Does standardization result in normal distribution? I have a question about standardization (subtract mean, divide by standard deviation) of data consisting of different features with different ranges.
I read some information that seemed to be contradictory.

Standardization

does not alter the fundamental shape of the data
but it gives the data the properties of a normal distribution: mean of 0 and standard deviation of 1


So, does it change the normal distribution or not?
No, standardization does not change the shape of the distribution. It centers the distribution by subtracting the mean and scales it by dividing by the standard deviation.