A question on data distribution probability Let $D={D_k}_1^N$ denotes a set of i.i.d observations, and x denotes random variables, p() denotes probability, whether $p(D|x)$ equals to $p(D)$? Thank you for any help.

EDIT: To be more clear, I talk this problem in Bayesian inference context where we seek the posterior distribution $p(x|D)~p(x)p(D|x)$, so D is dependent on x.
You stated that D are i.i.d. so they are independent to each other.

The crucial question is whether D are all independent of x.

p(D|x) = p(D)


only if D are all independent of x