I'm trying to understand why every language has an infinite number of TMs that accept it I found the following answer:

$L_{17} = \{ \langle M \rangle \mid \text{$M$ is a TM, and $M$ is the only TM that accepts $L(M)$} \}$.

R. This is the empty set, since every language has an infinite number of TMs that accept it.


As I know number of TMs is $\aleph_0$ and number of languages is $2^{\aleph_0}$, so how can it be possible that &quot;every language has an infinite number of TMs that accept it&quot;?
source of the solution here
The correct version of the claim states that every computable language is accepted by infinitely many Turing machines.
Indeed, if $L$ is computable, then there is a Turing machine $T$ that accepts it. Let $T_n$ be $T$ together with $n$ unreachable states. Then $T_n$ also accepts $L$, and the machines $T_n$ are all different from one another.