Prove that different definitions of big-Oh with n>=1 or n>N are equivalent I am coming across two slightly different definitions of big-oh and need to prove that they are equivalent to each other:

Definition 1: f(n) = O(g(n)) if there exists constants c and N such that f(n) ≤ c g(n) for all n > N.

Definition 2: f(n) = O(g(n)) if there exists a constant c such f(n) ≤ c g(n) for all n≥1.

Intuitively I know that if we choose c large enough we can get rid of N like in definition 2. But how to prove that if definition 1 implies definition 2, and vice versa.

Assume g(n)>0 for all values of n (I need to prove this equality when it holds).
Assume definition $1$ holds. Then we have identified a $c$ that works for all but finitely many $n$. For each of the remaining finitely many $n$, we can check if $f(n)&lt; cg(n)$ holds. If it does, then continue on. If it doesn’t, we can always find a $c’$ such that $f(n)&lt;c’g(n)$ holds for that particular $n$. $c’&gt;c$, so this will also hold for all the previously examined $n$. Iterate this through all the finite many $n$ and take the largest value of $c’$. Then definition $2$ holds.

The other direction is really easy. Try to think about it a bit more, because if you think about it in the right way it’ll be obvious.