non LL(1) grammar but LL(1) language I'm reading a Basics of Compiler Design and on page 84 it is making the following statement:


  A language may well be LL(1) even though the grammar used to describe
  it is not.


Can someone give such an example? I'm not really sure how this is possible. I thought grammars generate languages, therefore if a grammar is non LL(1) then a language generated by it is also non LL(1). Apparently that is not the case.

Any help is appreciated.
Well a language is XX iff there exists an XX grammar for it. There might be other grammars for an XX language. For instance you might have a context-free grammar for what is actually a regular language.

Read the book. It contains techniques (with examples!) that show how some non-LL(1) grammars can be transformed into LL(1) grammars. The techniques are called elimination of left recursion and factorization.