Dominance Law in Boolean Algebra The dominance law states that x + 1 = 1

If we go by that logic, does that mean that x' + 1 = 1?

Please just tell me if it's a yes(as I think that this is the answer but I just want to clear my doubts) and maybe provide a little explanation if it's a no.

Thanks!
If $x+1=1$ then, substituting $x'$ for $x$, we deduce that $x'+1=1$.

In other words, your claim follows from the fact that $x'$ has the same "type" as $x$.