How does $LL(n)$ languages compare with $LR(0)$, for $n>0$? In the context of languages (not grammars), I know following:


  
  $LL(0) \subset LL(1) \subset LL(2) \subset \cdots \subset LL(k)$
  $LR(0) \subset SLR(1) = LALR(1) = LR(1) = SLR(k) = LALR(k) = LR(k)$
  $LL(0)\subset LR(0)$
  $LL(n)\subset LR(1)$ for all $n$'s
  


How does $LL(n)$ languages compare with $LR(0)$, for $n&gt;1$?
They are incomparable.


Every $LR(0)$ language has the prefix property (no sentence is a prefix of another sentence). But many $LL(k)$ languages don't have this property ($a^*$, for example).
The language $\{a^nb^mc\mid n\ge m\ge 0\}$ is $LR(0)$ but is not $LL(k)$ for any $k$.