Is $f\colon x\mapsto g(x+1)$ necessarily a pseudorandom function? Let $l\in\mathbb N$ and suppose
$$g\colon\;\{0,1\}^l\to\{0,1\}^l$$
is a pseudorandom function.
Is $f$, defined as below, necessarily a pseudorandom function as well?

$$f(x)=g((x+1)\bmod2^l)$$
The general way to answer questions like this in the affirmative (i.e. prove that some transformation of a certain type of thing gives you another of that type of thing) is to assume that your transformed version doesn't have the property you need, and use that to prove that the original also doesn't have that property. Then if the original does have the property we want, so must the transformed version.

So, assume $f$ isn't a PRF. That means that there's an efficient algorithm with a function as its input that can reliably tell whether you gave it $f$ or gave it a random function as input, by evaluating its input at a bunch of points. You can modify this algorithm to tell $g$ apart from a random function -- because $f(x)=g(x+1)$, just tweak the algorithm so that every time it evaluates the function you had passed it at $x$, it instead evaluates it at $x+1$. If you run this algorithm with $g$ as input, it acts exactly like your original algorithm did with $f$ as input. If you pass it a random function as input, the random function is still random. So, this new algorithm can tell $g$ apart from a random function, and $g$ isn't a PRF.

Because any distinguisher for $f$ can be tweaked to make a distinguisher for $g$, it means that $g$ can only be a PRF if $f$ is, so if $g$ is a PRF then $f$ is a PRF. This kind of argument is extremely useful when building cryptographic functions using primitives; it even works when the properties of the underlying primitive and your construction are different (you show that an attack on property A of your construction lets you attack property B of the underlying primitive).