What does $\text{PK}=\text{pk}\oplus\text{H}(\text{opk})$ represent in this paper? In Lu, Au and Zhang's 2019 paper (Linkable) Ring Signature from Hash-Then-One-Way Signature, they

…extend [M. Abe, M. Ohkubo, and K. Suzuki's 2019 1-out-of-n signatures from a variety of keys] framework to its linkable variant. Borrowing the idea from [our previous lattice-based linkable ring signature scheme, Raptor], we adopt [some] one-time signature scheme ($\Pi^{OTS}$). We build a generic method of constructing linkable ring signature based on $\Pi^{OTS}$ and $\text{Type-H}$ signature with uniform distributed public key. During the key generation procedure, in addition to the public key and secret key pair $(\text{pk},\text{sk})$, each signer also generates a pair of public key and secret key $(\text{opk},\text{osk})$ of a one-time signature. The signer then computes $\text{PK}=\text{pk}\oplus\text{H}(\text{opk})$ for some appropriate hash function $\text{H}(\cdot)$. The new public key is $\text{PK}$ and the secret key is $\text{SK}=(\text{sk},\text{opk},\text{osk})$.

I take it (perhaps incorrectly in this case) that this symbol, $\oplus$, in that second-to-last equation represents exclusive-or, but how is that implemented here?
They explicitly list RSA as a supported $\text{Type-H}$ signature scheme to underly this linkable ring signature scheme, but this leaves two large questions:

how does one use an RSA public key $\text{pk}$, which is an ordered sequence of two integers, one of which is at least 1024 bits, as an argument to XOR with the output of a hash function such as SHA256, which is merely 256 bits?

How would you interpret the (identically random) result of an XOR with a cryptographic hash digest back into such a particularly constrained sequence of integers as RSA public key $\text{PK}$? (i.e. the first one must be the product of exactly two primes; the second should be less than around 1024 bits) -- and then how would you ensure that $\text{SK}$ comprised its factors?


$\text{PK}_\text{RSA}=\text{pk}_\text{RSA}\oplus\text{SHA-2}_{256}\left(\_\right)$
^ This seems so impossible and ridiculous (despite the authors of this paper listing RSA explicitly as a supported algorithm, and SHA256 being practically &quot;the&quot; standard cryptographic hash) that I am sure I'm misinterpreting something — probably the $\oplus$ symbol, though I cannot fathom what it might mean instead — so, what is represented in that line? Am I misinterpreting what $\text{PK}$ represents?
For instance, how would I, &quot;mechanically&quot;, (in, say, pycryptodome) enact or implement this line, if we take SHA256 as $\text{H}$, RSA as the $\text{Type-H}$ signature scheme, and (say) Lamport signatures as $\Pi^{OTS}$?
Reading section III A of the paper (caveat, I've not read the whole paper), it looks like the construction has been generalised so that $H$ maps to the abelian group where the public key operations take place. As such the $\oplus$ operation generalises to the abelian group operation. This notation is unwelcome, but I think in previous work the abelian group in question did combine with XOR.
In the RSA case it would appear that the operation is multiplication modulo $N$ and the hash function maps to $\mathbb Z/N\mathbb Z$.