Is the XOR of PRGs sharing the same input a PRG? I have question in learning PRG. Given that $f$ and $f_1$ are PRGs, both $\{0,1\}^n \to \{0,1\}^{2n}$.

Is $g(x) = f(x)$ xor $f_1(x)$ a PRG?

Someone told me that in this case, $g(x)$ is not a PRG, but I don't know how to prove it.
Thank you everybody's help. I have known that if $f$ and $f_1$ have some relation, then $g$ can not be PRG.
e.g. $f = f_1$, then we can know, after $f ⊕ f_1$, it always return 0 for $g(x)$, in this case, $g(X)$ will never be a PRG.