Fun with inverse Ackermann
Let $A_k$ be the inverse of $\alpha_k$. $A_1(x) = 2x, A_2(x) = 2^x, \dots$. I claim that $k^{-1}(x) = A_x(x)$.

Since $x = \alpha_x(A_x(x))$, and since $\forall z, \alpha_y(z) &gt; \alpha_x(z)$, $\alpha_y(A_x(x)) &gt; \alpha_x(A_x(x)) = x$. As a result $k(A_x(x)) = x$.

Now consider the value of $\alpha(k^{-1}(n)) = \alpha(A_n(n))$. By definition of $\alpha$, this is $\min_z \{\alpha_z(A_n(n)) \leq 3\}$. We know that $\alpha_n(A_n(n)) = n$, so $\alpha(A_n(n)) &gt; n$. I claim that $\alpha(A_n(n)) \leq n+2$. $\alpha_{n+1}(A_n(n)) = 1+\alpha_{n+1}(n)$. Now $\alpha(n) = \min_z\{\alpha_z(n) \leq 3\}$, so $\alpha_{\alpha(n)}(n) \leq 3$. Since $n+1 &gt; \alpha(n)$, $\alpha_{n+1}(n) \leq 3$, so $\alpha_{n+1}(A_n(n)) \leq 4$. Thus, $\alpha_{n+2}(A_n(n)) = 1 + \alpha_{n+2}(\alpha_{n+1}(n)) \leq 1 + \alpha_{n+2}(4) \leq 3$.

So, we have $n &lt; \alpha(k^{-1}(n)) \leq n+2$, so $k$ and $\alpha$ are essentially equal.