Relating univalence for a theory of cateogries to the skeleton concept
I refer you to Chapter 9 of the HoTT book. In particular, a category is defined in such a way that isomorphic objects are equal, see Definition 9.1.6. As Example 9.1.15 points out, there really isn't a reasonable notion of "skeletality" in HoTT. This is so because equality is so weak that it already means "isomorphic".

Furthermore, Theorem 9.4.16 says


  Theorem 9.4.16: If $A$ and $B$ are categories then the function $$(A = B) \to (A \simeq B)$$ (defined by induction on the identity functor) is an equivalence of types.


The theorem tells us that the Univalence Axiom gives us a sort of cateory theorist's dream: equivalent categories are equal.

You ask whether you can reduce the Univalence axiom to a statement about categories. Attempts using skeletons won't work because there isn't a good way to say "skeletal". We could ask whether Theorem 9.4.16 implies the Univalence axiom. This is not going to be the case, as far as I can see, because a category has a $1$-type (groupoid) of objects and a $0$-type (set) of morphisms, so theorem 9.4.16 amounts to something like the Univalence axiom for 1-types, only.