Prove that if f ∉ ω(g) →f∈O(g)
The claim is not true (unless you add some "nice" conditions on the functions).

Take, for example, the functions $g(n)=n$, and consider the following function $f$: on the even numbers, we'll take $f(n)=n^2$, and on the odd numbers, take $f(n)=n$.

Since $n\notin \omega(n)$, then the assumption holds (that is, $f(n)\notin \omega(g(n))$), but since since $n^2\notin O(n)$, we also have that $f(n)\notin O(g(n))$.