Is the identity function a many-one reduction from a language to super-set?
In order to disprove this, it is enough to disprove the conclusion that if $L_2$ is decidable then so is $L_1$. Can you think of a counterexample for the latter claim?

Another option is to directly disprove the fact. For $f$ to be a many-one reduction from $L_1$ to $L_2$ would mean that $x \in L_1$ iff $x \in L_2$, that is, $L_1 = L_2$. So to disprove this you only need to find two languages $L_1,L_2$ such that $L_1 \subsetneq L_2$.