Prove (p → ¬q) is equivalent to ¬(p ∧ q)
Can we use that $a \to b$ is same as $\neg a \lor b$? If yes then:
$$\neg (p \wedge q) \rightarrow (p\rightarrow\neg q) $$
is same as
$$(\neg p \lor \neg p) \rightarrow (\neg p \lor \neg q)
$$