When are two CFG's different?
Two grammars $G_1 = \langle \Sigma, V_1, S_1, P_1 \rangle$ and $G_2 = \langle \Sigma, V_2, S_2, P_2 \rangle$ are


weakly equivalent if $L(G_1) = L_(G_2)$
strongly equivalent if $L(G_1) = L_(G_2)$ and for every string $w$ in the language, the minimal left-most derivations of $w$ in $G_1$ and the minimal left-most derivations of $w$ in $G_2$ are exactly the same in number, and can be put in one-to-one corresponce (note that the number of derivation trees must be the same in number if the grammars are ambiguous, i.e. they must be ambiguous "in the same way")


Example:

$G_1 = S \to A; A \to 1B; A\to 1; B\to 0A$; we have $L(G_1) = \{ (10)^*1 \}$

$G_2 = S \to B; B \to A1; B\to 1; A\to B0$; we have $L(G_2) = \{ 1(01)^* \}$


isomorphic if there is a bijection $\phi : V_1 \to V_2$ such that $\phi(S_1) = S_2$ and $\phi(P_1) = P_2$ (after extending $\phi$ to productions and set of productions in the natural way). 


Note that weakly equivalence is undecidable, while strongly equivalence (and ismorphism) are decidable.

As a final remark I think that - in most formal language contexts - it would be fine to say that the grammars in your question are the same grammar :-)