Is this unambiguous grammar equivalent?
Although determining whether grammars are ambiguous is undecidable, in the case where the  grammar has a rule of the form

$$T\to T\;T$$

then either the grammar is ambiguous or the rule is useless. (Because $T\;T\;T$ can be reduced in two ways.)
Determining the equivalence of two CFGs is also undecidable so there is no general solution to the equivalence question. But you could try to prove that both grammars generate the Dyck language. 
A simple deterministic grammar for that language is

$$S\to \epsilon\mid(\;S\;)\;S$$