Are LR(k) languages and DCFLs equivalent?
According to Wikipedia:


For every fixed $k \geq 1$: A language has an LR($k$) grammar iff it is DCFL.
A language has an LR(0) grammar iff it is DCFL and has the prefix property (no word is a prefix of another word).


The first property is proved in Knuth's original paper, in Section V on page 628.