Is there a dual concept to "Turing Complete" in logic?
I'm not sure why you say "true" is ultimately undefinable, as there is a precise definition for what it means for a first order formula to be true.

What's unique in the case of computability, is that for any definition (as wild as your dreams) for a "computational model", you can finally associate it with a set of functions (the functions it can compute). Thus, you can naturally compare different models, and upon fixing one (based on some empirical justification such as "it is a good representation of computation in the real world") you can call any other model complete if it computes exactly the same set of functions.

However, how do you compare different logics? It seems there is no natural property you can attach to an arbitrary logic, and use it to compare it to other systems. You can perhaps, fix the logic, e.g. first order predicate logic, and ask about completeness of an axiomatic system. Suppose you work in ZFC, and believe it consists of the natural axioms that represent the world. Now, when given a different axiomatic system, you can ask whether they have the same theory, and call this system complete in the case the answer is yes. I think the difference from the computability case, is that for computability, there is a stronger consensus on what the "base model" should be. The reason for this consensus is that many independent models of computation were later shown to be equivalent, so this seems like a very strong empirical evidence for what our "base model" should be.