Does my grammar contradict LL ⊆ LR(1)?
Confusingly, the terms $LL$ and $LR$ are overloaded. There are two related but fundamentally different classes of objects that we'd call $LL$ or $LR$:


The sets of all grammars that are $LL(k)$ or $LR(k)$ for some choice of $k$. Let's call these sets $LL_{CFG}$ and $LR_{CFG}$.
The sets of all languages that have an $LL(k)$ or $LR(k)$ grammar for some choice of $k$. Let's call these sets $LL_{LANG}$ and $LR_{LANG}$.


The example you've given is a grammar that is $LL(2)$ (I believe) but not $LR(1)$. This shows that $LL_{CFG} \not\subseteq LR(1)_{CFG}$. However, there is a different grammar that you could pick for the same language that is $LR(1)$, which follows because $LL_{LANG} \subseteq LR(1)_{LANG}$. This happens because $LR(1)_{LANG}$ is precisely the set of all deterministic context-free languages and all $LL$ languages are deterministic.