Equivalence of logical Formula (Kripke structures)
First, these can all be looked at as LTL formulas. Therefore, their equivalence can be determined by their behaviour on traces (no need for Kripke structures with a complicated structure).

This answer is just a bunch of spoilers, so read only if you already tried your best. 

For the first pair - they are equivalent.  Intuitively, this is because there are infinitely many p's or infinitely many q's iff there are infinitely many (p's or q's).
Foramlly, 

$\pi\models G(Fp \vee Fq)$ iff at every index $i$, $\pi^i\models (Fp\vee Fq)$, meaning that in every index, there is eventually a $p$ or a $q$. Equivalently, this means that there are infinitely many $p$'s or $q$'s, which is equivalent to $\pi\models GFp\vee GFq$.

For the second pair - they are not equivalent. Try and think of a counter example. If you really can't - leave a comment.

The third pair are also equivalent. Informally - this is because they both state that after a finite prefix, both $p$ and $q$ always hold. The formal argument just follows from the semantics.