Are these statements about the effectiveness of condoms in preventing HIV transmission reconcilable?
Note that those three statements are also approximately equivalent to pregnancy risk in the context of vaginal intercourse:


Condoms form an essentially impermeable barrier to sperm
Sexual activities other than penetration carry a very low risk of pregnancy
The use of condoms has an annual failure rate around 15%, i.e. on average 15/100 couples using exclusively condoms will conceive in a year


There are dozens of sources that reconcile these issues, and it all comes down to the failure rate and misuse rate of condoms. Even the source you cite talks about this explicitly, so I'm not sure why you still have a question about it that isn't already answered there.