How is it possible for the absolute fitness to be more than 1?
That definition in the wikipedia is misleading at best. Contrary to what it seems to suggest there, absolute fitness is computed across a single generation, not within a single generation. For simplicity, let's look at an example using asexual haploids with discrete non-overlapping generations. If individuals with the A genotype produce an average of 3 offspring, each of which survive with probability 0.5, the A genotype has an absolute fitness of 1.5. The key is that we've multiplied fecundity (3) by viability (0.5) and this allows us to obtain a value greater than 1. 

Things get more complicated if we look at diploid sexuals. The absolute fitness of the Aa genotype is not the ratio of the number of individuals with the Aa genotype at time t+1 to the number of Aa at time t. An easy way to see this: in a population of AA and aa parents only, e.g. as produced by a cross, the ratio of Aa at t+1 to Aa at t is infinite, which would imply infinite fitness if we went this with definition. Rather, the absolute fitness of the Aa genotype is one-half the number of surviving offspring at time t+1 produced by Aa parents at time t. The one-half comes from the fact that a parent individual contributes only one-half of the genetic material of each surviving offspring. For some traits, e.g. those involved in sex ratio determination or parental care, it will not be sufficient to count surviving offspring; in these cases we apply comparable logic to counting grand-offspring. 

The wikipedia seems to suggest we are to look only at viability because we are comparing before-selection numbers to after-selection numbers, within a single generation and thus without an opportunity for fecundity to come into play. That is not consistent with the common usage of the term. To be fair, I have on rare occasion seen "absolute fitness" used as a synonym for "viability"--though I cannot think of any good justification for this usage.