What is the autocorrelation of a Dirac pulse?
Well, by definition of the $\delta$ distribution, you have:

$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(t) \delta(t-T)\, \textrm{d}t = f(T)$

The autocorrelation of a function $g(t)$ can be computed via:

$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} g^{*}(t)g(t + \tau)\, \textrm{d}t$, with $g^*$ as the complex conjugate of $g$. Since $\delta(t)$ is real-valued, this is conjugation can be skipped. So you are left with:

$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \delta^{*}(t)\delta(t + \tau)\, \textrm{d}t = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \delta(t)\delta(t + \tau)\, \textrm{d}t = \delta(-\tau)$.

The first = sign comes from the autocorrelation of the real-valued $\delta$, the second from the definition of the $\delta$-distribution.

So, the autocorrelation function of the $\delta$-distribution is the distribution itself. A eigenfunction of the autocorrelation function, so to say ;)

Think about it, this does make sense: the only perfect match is achieved with no time shift, ie at $\tau = 0$. All other shifts would end up with one of the arguments of the $\delta$ being different from 0, hence with the $\delta$-function being 0 there. 

BTW: $\delta(-\tau) = \delta(\tau)$, since the function/distribution is symmetric.