Where do these 200 mV come from?
Since C1 is an ideal capacitor, it has infinite resistance, which means no base current. This is supported by the 0 volts across R1. With no base current, there should be virtually no emitter or collector current, and this is supported by the 73 nV on R2. So, the emitter-base voltage is going to be determined by various leakages in the transistor, and these are not well-modelled (although clearly there is something in the Spice model which is producing your 0.2 volts. As a result, G36 is correct - there is no way to do it short of the simulation, and I'll go G36 one better: don't trust the simulation.