I do not quite get a phrase that I read in the Financial Times today.
When the share price has fallen 90% from some price P, the current price is P $\cdot$ 10%.

When it has fallen 95% from some price P, the current price is P $\cdot$ 5%..

P $\cdot$ 5% is half of P $\cdot$ 10%.

As the share price falls from P, it will first pass through P $\cdot$ 10% before reaching P $\cdot$ 5%. So if we obsere the time period from when the price was P until it was P $\cdot$ 5%, it has hallen 95%. But if we observe the time period from when the price was P $\cdot$ 10% until it was P $\cdot$ 5% the share price has fallen by half.