Why has QE produced hyper-inflation in other countries, but not US and China?
That is because inflation is a change in price level and price level can be expressed using the basic monetary model as:

$$P=\frac{MV}{Y}$$

Where M is money supply, V is velocity of money and Y is output.

Hence, while it is true that the price level is increasing in money supply (M) it is also decreasing in (Y). Hence if your money supply grows for example by 5% but also your output grows by 5% and velocity stays the same your country will experience 0 inflation.

Countries that experience high levels of inflation such as Venezuela have a double problem of increasing money supply while their output is plummeting making their inflation very bad, while other nations get less inflation than you would normally see given change in M due to growth in output.

Furthermore, in certain types of recessions when there is a liquidity trap all increase in M can be offset by decrease in V. This is the reason why for example US or Euro-Area experienced low inflation even though they had large recessions and large expansion in money supply in the recent recession.

In more complex models expectations play role as well but I don’t want to go too much into technicalities as the main lessons carry from them to the above mentioned simple model.