Market Theory: Upper limit of capital/weatlth accumulation?
A market is an social institution with various attributes and works under complex conditions. Under some conditions a pure monopoly is the only known limit.

Markets are creations by human intelligence and will not exist if not used for merchand. The market mechanisms are used in our society to enable a complex, diverse, work-sharing economy. Not the other way around.

Side note: The question is not how big a government is. A small government can have a bigger impact on a market than big government.


  My question is simple; would a laissez-faire approach to the market always result in inequality?


The reason why markets are so useful, they lower the costs to synchronize the various supplies with the societal limitless demands (individual demands can be limited). Markets can react to  technological, cultural and knowledge changes in the societies. But they depend on the kind of economy wherein they function. When the economy prefers bigger enterprises than many small firms, markets can not change much on these structures. Nevertheless the answer to your question is no. When a market starts under the condition of fair distribution and some other factors like transactions costs, market entry costs, costs for research and development and others don't play an important role, markets can stabelize the fair distribution of wealth.