Help interpreting a Taylor rule
$i_t$ should be the interest rate at time $t$. $\pi_t$ the inflation at time $t$. $Y_t$ the income at time $t$. The variables without indices are the targets of the central bank. The interpretation of this Taylor rule is therefore that the current interest rate is a function of the past deviation of the interest rate from the target, the current inflation deviation from target, the current output gap, the exchange rate deviation from target, and deviations from the current money growth target.