Kőszegi - Rabin (2006) model problem
You can interprete $c_1 \in \{0,1\}$ as "I have the tea" and "I don't have the tea", and this tea is valued $v=13$. $c_2$ is just a wealth transfer, i.e., it is $-p$ if the tea is bought and $0$ if the purchase is rejected.
Gain-loss utility is assesed separately in each dimension. Such that 
$$n(c|r) = n_1(c_1|r_1) + n_2(c_2|r_2).$$

In your case the reference point is $\widehat r =(1,-30)$. In words, the buyer expects to purchase the good at price 30.
In a PE, it must be that given this reference point
$$U (\widehat r| \widehat r) \geq U ( c | \widehat r) \quad \forall c.$$
That is, the buyer prefers to execute his plan.

This leads to utility
$$U (\widehat r| \widehat r) = v * 1 - 30 + 0 = 13-30=-17.$$
Suppose instead that the buyer does not buy the good. In pure strategies and with a fixed price, there are only two options "buy at price 30", $(1,30)$ and not buying, $(0,0)$.
That is, she does not spend $p$ of her wealth and does not get the good with value $v$,
$$U ((0,0)| \widehat r) = v * 0 - 0 \:+ \quad \lambda(v*0-v*1) \:+ \quad (0-(-30)), $$
where the first part is the consumption utility from not buying, zero.
The second part is the loss-utility from not having the good weighted by the loss-aversion parameter $\lambda$. He does not have the good, so he feels a loss of $v$, the value of the good. The third part is the gain-utility from saving 30 bucks.
Hence,
$$U ((0,0)| \widehat r) =30 - \lambda v = -22$$
with the given parameters. We can verify the given PE.

$v$ is the value of the good. Think of this setting as separable consumption utility
$$m (c) = m_1 (c_1) + m_2(c_2)$$
with $m_1 (c_1) = v c_1$, i.e., if you have the good you garner $v$ and otherwise zero. 
The money just enters linearly $m_2 (c_2) = c_2$. Gain-loss utility is always evaluated with respect to consumption utility, see the paper. That is, 
actually 
$$n_i (c_i|r_i)  = \mu [m_i (c_i) - m_i(r_i)]$$
with the given "universal gain-loss function".

EDIT: To make this useful for all, let me mention the paper corresponding to this model: Heidhues and Kőszegi (TE, 2014). See how they define the product and the money dimension, $k^v =v b$, where $b$ is the $c_1$ of your model (buying or not buying), and $k^p=-bp$. This paper has interesting insights on the impact of consumer loss aversion on pricing and it supersedes their earlier paper.