What is the reason for mode collapse in GAN as opposed to WGAN?
I don't have a definite answer, but only a suspicion/idea:
Looking at Figure 1 from the WGAN paper, we clear see that the JS divergence on the right is not continuous at $0$, hence not differentiable at $0$. However, the EM plot on the left is continuous also at $0$. You could now argue that we have a kink there, so it should not be differentiable there either, but they might have a different notion of differentiability, I am honestly not sure about it right now.