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Review title: Even better the fourth time!
Product review: I saw the stage play forty years ago, and it was great. And every ten years or so, I watch the movie and enjoy it more every time.But I have a question...Why did James Goldman portray Henry II as a bisexual and pedophile ("Alais, in my time I've known...contessas, milkmaids,courtesans...and novices, whores, gypsies, jades...and little boys..."), and his son Richard the Lionhearted as a homosexual?Couldn't the story have been just as interesting and compelling, or even more so, without the homosexual fabrications? There was no historical or artistic reason to include any of that.So, why? Could it be that Goldman was himself homosexual? Was he a closeted forerunner of today's hollywood writers, who include a homosexual character in nearly every television show and movie, to advance their own social agenda?What other reason would there be?
