Explain simply why no is the correct answer to: Did land owners elect their rulers in the Kingdom of Hungary?. Explanation:
user
Certainly, I'd be happy to explain.

In the Kingdom of Hungary, the structure of government was different from what you might be familiar with. In general, land (or more specifically, territory) did not elect or choose their rulers.

The Kingdom of Hungary, which existed between the 9th and 16th centuries, was a feudal society. This means that the ruler (known as the King) held ultimate power, while the nobility (known as "Magyar" or "ruthenian" depending on their ethnicity) held significant influence.

However, the nobles did have various privileges, such as being known as the "nation" who participated in the coronation ceremony of the King. They also had the right to approve or refuse the King's officials in the Great Diet of Hungary, which was the highest court in the kingdom.

In summary, landowners in Hungary did not elect the rulers. However, they did have the right to participate in the selection of certain officials in the Royal Court.
assistant
Explain simply why no is the correct answer to: Did land owners elect their rulers in the Kingdom of Hungary?. Explanation:
user
In the Kingdom of Hungary, land owners did not elect their rulers. Instead, the kingdom was a monarchy, where the ruler, typically a king, was usually determined by hereditary succession. This means that the ruler's position was passed down through a family line, usually from father to son. In some cases, the ruler might be chosen by a council of nobles, but it was not a process of general election where all land owners had a vote.
assistant