Question: A 78-year-old woman went to the Emergency Department for pain in the left iliac fossa of 24 hours of evolution associated with fever and occasional vomiting. On examination, pain is palpated selectively in the left iliac fossa with a feeling of occupation, defense and positive decompression. Upon suspicion of acute diverticulitis. Which of the following statements is correct? 
 Options:  <1> The safest and best performing complementary scan is the enema with barium contrast. <2> In the case of a pelvic abscess, the placement of a percutaneous drainage guided with CT or ultrasound is indicated. <3> If surgical intervention is necessary after the acute episode is resolved, the laparoscopic approach is contraindicated. <4> In the case of acute uncomplicated diverticulitis, elective sigmoidectomy is indicated after the first acute episode has been cured. <5> If generalized peritonitis occurs, the most appropriate surgical technique is the practice of a derivative colostomy without resection of the affected sigmoid segment.
2