Question: A 28-year-old Caucasian woman, Nulípara, attends an annual gynecological examination and requests the possibility of reducing the risk of ovarian cancer given that her mother died of this neoplasm at 64 years of age. In the detailed questioning, no other family history of ovarian or breast cancer is identified. Which of the following strategies is the most appropriate to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer in this patient? 
 Options:  <1> Bilateral tubal occlusion. <2> Bilateral laparoscopic salpingo-oophorectomy. <3> Continuous daily administration of aspirin at low dose. <4> Advise her to use artificial lactation if she is pregnant. <5> Treatment with combined oral contraceptives.
5