Can a Psion become a Thrallherd, then drop Diplomacy with Psychic Reformation?

Question: I have a Psion(Egoist)/Thrallherd with Psychic Reformation. I'm wondering whether I can use Psychic Reformation to drop the points in Diplomacy and the Inquisitor feat, and reassign the points to something else. Also, when I reform myself, I remain a Thrallherd. Does this mean I don't have to spend 8 points on Diplomacy, as it's already a class skill, thus letting me just put the required 4 points into Diplomacy, and use the other 4 on something else?
Answer: Thank you for not making this rules-as-written because
Opinions Abound, but Absolute Answers Are Absent
In every errata file there's the Errata Rule, which says

When you find a disagreement between two [Dungeons and Dragons] rules sources, unless an official errata file says otherwise, the primary source is correct. One example of a primary/secondary source is text taking precedence over a table entry. An individual spell description takes precedence when the short description in the beginning of the spells chapter disagrees.
Another example of primary [versus] secondary sources involves book and topic precedence. The Player's Handbook, for example, gives all the rules for playing the game, for playing PC races, and for using base class descriptions. If you find something on one of those topics from the Dungeon Master's Guide or the Monster Manual that disagrees with the Player's Handbook, you should assume the Player's Handbook is the primary source. The Dungeon Master's Guide is the primary source for topics such as magic item descriptions, special material construction rules, and so on. The Monster Manual is the primary source for monster descriptions, templates, and supernatural, extraordinary, and spell-like abilities.

The Dungeon Master's Guide--the primary source for information about meeting prestige class requirements--says

Unlike the basic classes found in the Player's Handbook, characters must meet requirements before they can take their first level of a prestige class. The rules for level advancement (see page 58 of the Player's Handbook) apply to this system, meaning the first step of advancement is always choosing a class. If a character does not meet the requirements for a prestige class before that first step, that character cannot take the first level of that prestige class. (176)

The Thrallherd
Thus, according to the Dungeon Master's Guide, it's totally legit for the thrallherd to employ the power psychic reformation [telepathy] (XPH 127) to remove the skill ranks and feats that he used to meet the prestige class's requirements yet continue taking levels in thrallherd. The character--to use the Dungeon Master's Guide's language--already took that step.
Complete Warrior, the FAQ, and Complete Arcane
Complete Warrior says

It's possible for a character to take levels in a prestige class and later be in a position where the character no longer qualifies to be a member of the class. An alignment change, levels lost because of character death, or the loss of a magic item that granted an important ability are examples of events that can make a character ineligible to advance farther in a prestige class.
If a character no longer meets the requirements for a prestige class, he or she loses the benefit of any class features or other special abilities granted by the class. The character retains Hit Dice gained from advancing in the class as well as any improvements to base attack bonus and base save bonuses that the class provided. (16)

The FAQ cites the Complete Warrior when answering the question

What happens when an assassin becomes non-evil?
A character who no longer meets the requirements of his prestige class not only can't advance any further in that class, but he also "loses the benefit of any class features or other special abilities granted by the class." (CW 16) You retain Hit Dice (and the hit points derived from), base attack bonus, and base save bonuses granted by the prestige class.

Complete Arcane says

Should a character find herself in a position (because of changed alignment, lost levels, or the like) where she no longer meets the requirements of a prestige class, she loses all special abilities (but not Hit Dice, base attack bonus, or base save bonus) gained from levels of the prestige class. (17)

Complete Warrior and Complete Arcane are the only texts removing prestige class features upon failing to meet prestige class requirements. And while language identical to that in Complete Arcane was present in the Dungeon Master's Guide (2000), it's absent from the Dungeon Master's Guide (2003) and the Dungeon Master's Guide (2012).1
The Thrallherd
Thus, according to Complete Warrior and Complete Arcane, if the thrallherd employs the power psychic reformation to remove the skill ranks and feats that he used to meet the prestige class's requirements, he loses all thrallherd special abilities but retains the thrallherd Hit Dice, base attack bonus, and base save bonus. The requirements are always looking at the character's sheet to confirm the character continues to meet those requirements.
Examples in Play

Under the Dungeon Master's Guide's rules, an arcane archer doesn't lose his arcane archer special abilities if he's brought back to life as a young adult non-elf or non-half-elf2 after he's the target of the spell reincarnate [conj] (PH 270). Under the Complete Arcane and Complete Warrior rules, he does.
Under the Dungeon Master's Guide's rules, an arcane trickster or assassin doesn't lose his prestige class special abilities if his alignment is changed from chaotic evil to lawful good by failing the Willpower saving throw versus the helm of opposite alignment (DMG 275) (4,000 gp; 3 lbs.). Under the Complete Arcane and Complete Warrior rules, he does.
Under the Dungeon Master's Guide's rules, a dragon disciple (DMG 183-5) doesn't lose all his dragon disciple special abilities upon gaining the 10th-level dragon disciple class feature dragon apotheosis. Under the Complete Arcane and Complete Warrior rules, he does.
Under the Dungeon Master's Guide's rules, a thrallherd (XPH 156) who manifests the power psychic reformation doesn't lose his special abilities if the manifestation leaves him without ranks in the skill Diplomacy and without the feat Inquisitor (XPH 48). Under the Complete Arcane and Complete Warrior rules, he does.

An Unpleasant Compromise
The strictest reading is that the prestige classes in Complete Arcane and Complete Warrior follow the rules given in those books for losing prestige class requirements,3 but prestige classes from other sources don't.
Talk to the DM
I suggest the DM make clear his house rules about prestige class requirements before play begins.

The current printing does include errata about prestige classes not incurring experience point penalties.
For perspective, though, one's chance of being brought back from the dead this way as an elf is 12% and a half-elf 10% .
Complete Arcane lacks the advance farther language of Complete Warrior. Thus a character who loses a Complete Warrior prestige class requirement loses the use of the prestige class's special abilities and can no longer advance in the prestige class, but a character who loses a Complete Arcane prestige class requirement loses the use of the prestige class's special abilities yet can continue to advance in the prestige class. Odd stuff.
Comment: Where's the fourth footnote?
Comment: Suggestions for improvement welcome. Also see [this answer.](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/41909/8610)
Answer: Leaving aside the question of whether any self-respecting DM would let you pull this kind of crap...
As per the SRD, "the subject can choose to spend its most recently gained skill points differently". To me, that means that you get to spend those points within the same constraints as when they were originally used, so you wouldn't get to count Diplomacy as a class skill.
And if you're planning to get them in a new level, you're forgetting that once you no longer meet the prerequisites to enter a PrC, you can no longer gain a level on that PrC until you meet them again (and, depending on whose word you take, you also lose all benefits of the PrC). Therefore, as soon as you level up, you won't be able to gain a new level of Thrallherd.
Comment: No, you do not always get a contradiction. As I just said, that rule applies to *Complete Arcane* and *Complete Warrior* only. Applying it to any other book's content is a houserule, and will lead to contradictions as you say. The official rules have a contradiction but have rules for resolving it, which simultaneously resolves the other conflicts.
Comment: Strictly speaking, losing the benefits of a PrC when you lose its prerequisites only applies to the PrCs in *Complete Warrior* and *Complete Arcane*, since only those books contained rules to that effect. They do seem to imply that these rules are global, but 1. that contradicts the DMG, 2. the errata rules state that in case of contradiction, the primary source (DMG in this case) wins, and 3. applying those rules globally breaks quite a few PrCs (such as Dragon Disciple, whose capstone prevents it from meeting its own prerequisites).
Comment: @Yandros There is no grandfather clause in 3.5 regarding material in 3.0. Therefore the presence of such a rule in 3.0 is irrelevant. As you say, 3.5 has no such rule in the RAW, except for those in CW and CA. Therefore, any class not subject to the rules in those two books, is not affected. Using a rule that's not in the RAW is pretty much the definition of a houserule.
Comment: @KRyan: Like I said, that depens on whose word you take. The issue is that, no matter your answer, there is always some contradiction (e.g., if you play by "you can no longer gain a level on a PrC if you don't meet the prerequisites", you can't take more than one level in Ur-Priest). In the end you should really just rely on common sense.
Comment: @KRyan: The rule in CW and CA is actually a copy/paste from the 3rd ed. rules on PrCs. 3.5 ed. does not define any rule contradicting them in any of the core books, so "that only applies in those books only" is just an assumption on your part and should never be treated as an unquestionable truth like you are doing. That said, this discussion does not add any value in answering the question it's on, so I won't continue it further.
Answer: I really feel like this use of Psychic Reformation goes against the intent of the power.  The power is intended to let you remake poor decisions, not eliminate prestige class prerequisites.  As a DM, I would never allow a player to Psychic Reformation away their prestige class prereqs.
That said, the rules text backing that up is very shaky.  There's no mention of prerequisites in the test of the power, and there is no errata mentioning them either.  The only thing that's related that I can find in the text of the power is:
<code>The subject must abide by the standard rules for selecting skills and feats, and so it
cannot take feats for which it doesn't qualify or take crossclass skills as class skills.
</code>
This makes me believe that you cannot end up with an invalid character after you finish redoing skills and feats.  Since you can't take Thrallherd without first taking its prerequisites, you can't Reform those prerequisites away.
Again, this is not a strict rules interpretation, it's more of an inference about what the intent of the power is, and a logical extension of the power's rules.  In any case, if you no longer meet the prerequisites for Thrallherd, you can't take further levels of the class.
Comment: I think the power wouldn't be a problem if they remembered to add "or remove something used as a prerequisite" to the list at the end there.
Answer: Sounds good to me. Neither the skill points nor the inquisitor feat are required for any of the thrallherd's abilities to function, so losing the feat/skills wouldn't de-power it's abilities, you simply couldn't gain further levels in the class till you reacquired the pre-reqs. Though, if you're only going for 1 level, it might be worth more to just pick up the leadership feat. Though, after reading through power documentation, it seems fully possible, if you're willing to spend the xp on it, to take 10 levels of thrallherd, then Reformat yourself back 10 levels and reapply all those skills and feats however you want. Sure your DM can rule however they want, since their word trumps source material, but by the wording itself this is perfectly acceptable.
And no where in the description does it say you must spend the skills based on your character at the time. So yes, you technically could take the 8 points out of the 4 cross class, and respend them as a class skill which it now is.
If anything, the only problem I see is that the power level seems a bit low for what it can do. The only arcane or divine way of replicating this effect is through wish or miracle and since it's not listed as a safe wish, the DM will probably screw you for trying it. Maybe if the power was 8 or 9 and/or the xp cost was 50 xp per character level per level you wanted to revision, it might be a little more balanced.
Answer: If you no longer meet the pre-requisites for anything - feat, prestige class, spell, skill trick, magic item - anything at all - you lose the benefit of that thing until you once again meet the pre-requisites.
I am aghast that all these answers and no-one has mentioned this.
For a prestige class, you retain the hitpoints, skillpoints, BAB, and saving throws but you lose any special abilities, any spell advancement, and may no longer take additional levels in the class until you once again meet the pre-requisites.
Since this makes the option moot, unless you were in it for that stellar Thrallherd BAB, I believe that's Question Answered.
Comment: No one mentioned this because this is *wrong*. Draconic Disciple is the Canon example - once you hit the capstone, you don't qualify anymore for the prestige class. However, you don't lose it's benefits! Same is true to Ur-Priest.
Comment: can you site your source? no one's mentioned it because it's one of those things everyone *knows* is in the rules, but no one seems to have ever actually *seen* it in the books


Société vs entreprise

Question: Users can create a company profile in my web application. I'm not sure how to properly translate the term company to French. I've been mixing société and entreprise, but would like to be consistent and only use one term. Which term is the most generic and encompasses most company forms?
Answer: I think the best way to translate a company in french would be to use une entreprise. This term is the most general one to describe a company in France.
Also, une société is a bit more specific than une entreprise. The first one is a juridical act in which two or more people accept in a contract to affect to a company some tools or skills in order to share the final profit or the resulting economy. It can also be used to describe the moral person created by this contract.
Une entreprise is just an economic and social notion which is encompassing most of the companies type.
But to be honest, you would be totally correct if you use any of those terms.
Comment: @SergeBallesta Votre affirmation me surprend énormément, une _société de personne_ au singulier, d'où tirez-vous ça, incluant cette définition à l'effet qu'elle ne serait composée que d'une seule personne ? Merci.
Answer: While entreprise and société are often used interchangeably despite not sharing the same definitions, it is not possible to provide a simple "best" translation.
Depending on how "company" is used in your web application, the translation might be société, entreprise or something else like employeur, raison sociale, and possibly other terms.
Answer: Most companies in France are 'sociétés anonymes' or 'sociétés anonymes a responsabilité limitée', so using 'société' is never wrong.
'Entreprises' produce goods or services and would not be used for such trades as lawyer practices or medical groups.
So it depends what your target market is.
Comment: I like your reference to the target market. The target market are creative agencies or development firms, so I guess "entreprise" is more accurate.

Société vs entreprise


What does the '−1' superscript mean in units?

Question: For example, the rate of a chemical reaction can be expressed in $\mathrm{mol}/\mathrm{L}^{-1}/\mathrm{sec}^{-1}$. Why is it '−1' and not, say, '−2'? Does it change the meaning if the minus is removed and we simply express the rate in $\mathrm{mol}/\mathrm{L}/\mathrm{sec}$?
Comment: The answers below are correct but none seem to mention that in math $x^{-1}$ [equals](http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=x+%5E+-1) $\dfrac{1}{x}$ for some variable $x$. The same thing applies here.
Comment: Please note that a solidus (/) shall not be followed by a multiplication sign or a division sign on the same line unless parentheses are inserted to avoid any ambiguity. Besides, the unit symbol for 'second' is 's' (not 'sec').
Comment: @Calvin'sHobbies while my answer doesn't say that explicitly, it does say it implicitly with the depiction of the example as a fraction.
Comment: @Calvin'sHobbies More precisely, given a multiplicative Group $(G, *)$ we denote for $x \in G$ an element  $x^{-1} \in G$ as an inverse of $x$. Depending on the Group it can mean different things and not necessarily $\frac{1}{x}$. In our case it is $\mathbb R$ Field we're probably talking about, but a Field encapsulates additive and multiplicative groups.
Answer: The -1 means "per" unit. So your first example mol/L-1/s-1 is not correct - it would actually be written as mol L-1 s-1, OR mol/(L s). It is also sometimes written as mol/L/s, but the double division is ambiguous and should be avoided unless parentheses are used.
If it were mol L-1 s-2, this would mean moles per litre per second per second.
This is really just a question of notation, and is not chemistry-specific at all. Yes, all the minus/plus signs and the value of numbers are important. Good examples of units can include:

area, measured in m2, or metres squared
volume, measured in m3, or metres cubed
pressure, measured in N m-2, or Newtons per metre squared
velocity, measured in m s-1, or metres per second
acceleration, measured in m s-2, or metres per second per second
Answer: The $^{-1}$ superscript can be thought of as saying "per" or as being the denominator of the fraction.
So in your example $\mathrm{mol \cdot L^{-1} sec^{-1}}$ can be thought of as saying moles per liter per second.
This is easier than writing $\mathrm{\frac{mol}{(L \cdot sec)}}$
Changing the super script from $1$ to $2$ or $3$ would change the meaning of the value.
Ex
$$1 \mathrm{cm^{3}\ is\ 1mL}$$
So, $\mathrm{cm}^{-1}$ is per centimeter, which would be a measurement of something per distance, but $\mathrm{cm^{-3}}$ would be talking about something in a given volume.
Comment: Generally correct, but fails to mention that the unit abbreviation for the second is simply s, not sec.
Answer: It may have its roots even earlier than that, but this was mainly due to people using typewriters to write scientific papers, etc.
Now we have the ability to format things like $\mathrm{\frac{mol}{L}}$, both on-screen and in print, but adjusting the carriage and line feed knob every time you had to type a complicated formula was tedious, so it was easier to type "mol-L-1" instead.  Even when the -1s became superscripts, as John points out in his answer, it was still used in typesetting to keep formulas, etc. all on the same line in books.
Comment: Even if we do not use typewriters anymore, an inline fraction  just looks plain awful and makes a manuscript very hard to read, since there will be different spacing between lines in a single paragraph.
Answer: First off: your suggestion $\require{cancel}\cancel{\mathrm{mol/L^{-1}/sec^{-1}}}$ is very wrong for three principal reasons:

the unit symbol for seconds is $\pu{s}$, not $\pu{sec}$ or anything else
you should never include two slashes for division. Does $\mathrm{mol/l/s}$ equal to $\mathrm{mol/(l/s)}$ or to $\mathrm{(mol/l)/s}$? This is ambiguous. One should always indicate with brackets which units are 'per' and which are not; in your example it should be $\pu{mol/(l\cdot s)}$.
your suggestion does not mean what you think it means; more on that below.

Mathematically, a negative exponent has the same effect placing the expression associated with it into the denominator.
$$\begin{align}x^{-1} &= \frac 1x\\[0.3em]
2^{-2} &= \frac1{2^2}\\[0.3em]
e^{-i\phi} &= \frac1{e^{i\phi}}\end{align}$$
Units in the natural sciences are treated much like variables in general mathematics, i.e. they can be multiplied and thereby raised to powers (e.g. $\mathrm{m^2}$) or divided by each other (e.g. $\mathrm{m/s^2}$). Only if the unit is identical, two numeric values can be added or subtracted; so $\pu{2m}+\pu{3m}=\pu{5m}$ makes sense as does $2a + 3a=5a$, but $\pu{2m}+\pu{3s}$ cannot be added akin to $2a+3b$.
The combination of units usually means what common sense would read them as. So $\pu{1m^2}$ is equivalent to a square area with the side length being $\pu{1m}$. $\pu{1 N\cdot m}$ is equivalent to a force of one newton applied over the distance of 1 meter (with a lever). And $\pu{1m/s}$ means travelling one meter per second. While more complex expressions such as $\mathrm{kg \cdot m^2 / s^2}$ do not always immediately make intuitive sense, they can usually be broken down into fragments that would make intuitive sense.
After this excursion, it becomes clear that an expression such as $\pu{mol\cdot l^-1\cdot s^-1}$ is equivalent to a fractional unit of $\mathrm{\frac{mol}{l\cdot s}}$, meaning that the concentration is increased by $\pu{1 mol/l}$ in one second. This also means that:

it does not make sense to replace the exponent of $-1$ with e.g. $-2$ as that would result in a different unit (e.g: $\mathrm{kg\cdot m^2\cdot s^{-2}}$ is joule, the unit of energy, while $\mathrm{kg\cdot m^2\cdot s^{-3}}$ is watt, the unit of power).
it does not make sense to remove the negative sign from the exponent as that would result in a different unit (e.g. $\pu{10Hz} = \pu{10s-1}$ corresponds to a frequency — ten times per second — while $\pu{10s}$ obviously corresponds to a duration).
one has to choose between either the slash or the negative exponent as both would cancel each other out.

This last one is implied by the general laws of mathematics:
$$\begin{align}\frac1{x^-1} &= \frac1{\frac1x}\\[0.5em]
&= \left(\frac11\right) / \left(\frac1x\right)\\[0.5em]
&= \left(\frac11\right) \times \left(\frac x1\right)\\[0.5em]
&= x\end{align}$$
which is also the third wrong factor in your suggestion.
In general, I would give preference to the negative exponents ($\pu{mol l-1 s-1}$) except in cases where there is only a single unit raised to a power of $-1$ and no other powers exist; in these cases, e.g. $\pu{mol/l}$ usually integrates itself better into the flow of text.

What does the ‘−1’ superscript mean in units?


What does $|V|=O(|E|)$ mean?

Question: I was reading about Dijkstra's algorithm from this Stanford University lecture presentation. On page 18 it says Dijkstra's algorithm is $O(|V|\log|V|+|E|\log|V|)$ and I understand why. But then it says that $O(|V|\log|V|+|E|\log|V|) = O(|E|\log|V|)$, because $|V|=O(|E|)$. What does $|V|=O(|E|)$ mean and why is it so?
Answer: First, $|V|$ is the number of vertices and $|E|$ is the number of edges.
The point is that if a graph is connected it must have at least $|V|-1$ edges.  Therefore, $|V|\leq |E|+1$, so
$$|V|\log|V| + |E|\log|V| \leq 2(|E|+1)\log|V|\leq 3|E|\log |V|\,.$$
Writing $|V|=O(|E|)$ is something of an abuse of notation. $O(\cdot)$ is an asymptotic statement about what happens as some variable becomes large, over some infinite family of instances.  So, here, we're supposed to imagine that the infinite family of instances is the set of all connected finite graphs. It would have been clearer to just write $|V|\leq |E|+1$.
Comment: @Gokul But BFS only visits the vertices in the component that takes the start vertex and there are at most $|E|+1$ vertices in that component. The actual reason is quite subtle, so I put it [in its own question](https://cs.stackexchange.com/q/112546/9550).
Comment: Ok, thanks for the correction, now I think that I understand it. But one question, if we can reduce $O(|V|\log|V|+|E|\log|V|)$ to $O(|E|\log|V|)$, because we can use the fact that it's a tree so $|V|\leq |E|+1$, why is the time complexity of breadth-first search $O(|V|+|E|)$? Couldn't we reduce it to $O(|E|)$ by doing something similar ($|V|+|E|\leq 3|E|$, so $O(|E|)$)?
Comment: Not because it's a tree but, rather, because a connected graph must have at least as many edges as a tree. But you're right that the same argument can be applied to any algorithm on connected graphs, including BFS.
Comment: But then is there any reason why in many places it says that BFS is $O(|V|+|E|)$? For example CLRS 3rd Ed., p. 597, the previous Stanford lecture to the one linked on the question (http://web.stanford.edu/class/archive/cs/cs106b/cs106b.1198/lectures/Lecture23/Lecture23.pdf#page=64, p. 64), Wikipedia (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Breadth-first_search)...
Comment: @salcc BFS is O(V+E) in adjacency list format because 1) each vertex is put onto the queue only once, giving O(V) operations and 2) across the loop, each edge is visited exactly twice in an undirected graph (eg: if there's an edge (u,v), it is visited once in u's list and once in v's list), so making it O(2E) which is O(E) operations. So in total, the time complexity comes out as O(V+E).

What does $|V|=O(|E|)$ mean?


"Unregister" vs "Deregister"

Question: The concept of "undoing a registration" is widely used in my line of work. While most dictionaries define unregister as the proper verb for it, several widely used and highly considered sources also use the verb deregister. Do both verbs exist? Are they synonyms? Is there a slight difference in their meaning?
Comment: One possible advantage of using de- is to avoid ambiguity in the sentence "He was unregistered." If *unregister* is a verb, it's not clear whether this means he was taken off the registration list, or whether he was never on it. The sentence "He was deregistered" is unambiguous.
Answer: This is a question that used to plague me for ages, until I finally sat down and thought it through.
As a programmer, I see both used a lot, and often interchangeably.  For me, I like to think of the question by beginning with another question: What is the 'not registered' state called?
Let's assume you're a programmer, but keep in mind this is applies anywhere.  When you have a variable which represents some item that can be registered, what do you call the function to discover if it is registered?  In all likelihood, you'll call it 'isRegistered()'.  So in that sense, you make the problem into a boolean.  i.e. is it registered, or is it NOT registered.
Then, from that logic, I believe your options simply become:

isRegistered() - false if the object is 'unregistered' - i.e. 'not registered' false == isRegistered().
registerSomething() - It has now moved from 'not registered' to 'registered'.
deregisterSomething() - It has now moved from 'registered' to 'not registered'. i.e. 'unregistered'.

This is why it's convention in programming to call an object that hasn't been 'initialised' as 'uninitialised', not 'deinitialised'.  This implies it was never initialised to begin with, so its initial state is 'uninitialised'.  If its initial state was called 'deinitialised' it would give the false impression that it was previously initialised.
The bottom line for me is that you should define a convention for its use in your particular context, and stick to it.  The above convention is what I now use throughout my code.
Urgh... Here is all of that in a single line ;)
state=unregistered -> 'register' -> state=registered -> 'deregister' -> state=unregistered.
-- Shane
Comment: Yet, we use `unsubscribe` and not `desubscribe`. Sadly, while I agree with your rationale, natural languages are rather informal.
Comment: @David Rodríguez - dribeas - that's "unformal" if the subjected natural language  has not been deformalized
Comment: +1. I was just trying to solve the same identifier naming problem when I found this page. For some reason I can't help but draw a comparison in usage with the defrocking / unfrocking of vicars: there the two definitely are synonyms, as are defrocked and unfrocked. Here there is a distinction.
Comment: auth -> deauth. construct(or) -> destruct(or). I must convince myself to use deregister (even though the use of uninstall makes me doubt)
Comment: It's just that "`un-`" is more versatile than "`de-`." "`un-`" has two meanings for two different parts of speech: "(added to adjectives, participles, and their derivatives) denoting the absence of a quality or state; not" and "(added to verbs) denoting the reversal or cancellation of an action or state." "`de-`," on the other hand, is only added to non-participle verbs. "`to unregister`" and "`to deregister`" go ("`un-`/`de-`" + "`to register`") and are synonyms; those verbs produce participles of the same meaning. Another "`unregistered`" is made from "`un-`" and a participle "`registered`."
Comment: if you think through what this answer implies, it actually means some business logic may require a state more complex than 'registered' or 'not registered'.  For example, it may be important to know whether a stock is 'delisted' rather than just 'unlisted'.  And consequently there may be a reason to have two functions `unlist` (or `unregister` in our case) and `delist` (`deregister`).  The `de` version may need to throw an error for something never listed whereas the `un` version is fine with that.
Comment: @Psyrus Gee, has humor been uberformalized, these days? Had me properly gasping for air, this one. Funniest line I read all week.
Comment: Your answer does not seem to explain the difference between un- and de-. I really like it, but I could only understand it after I read [the answer by user1681572](https://english.stackexchange.com/a/154691/85002) below.
Comment: This is on point in so many directions. Super kudos mate.
Answer: Here's a look at usage during the last 20 years:

As evidenced, unregister received a substantial boost shortly after the dot-com boom/bust of the late 90s, while deregister usage has been more or less the same throughout. It's worth noting that neither word is defined by any major dictionary, although some lesser dictionaries include the two. (Of course, placement in a dictionary does not mean a word is "real" or not - a word can exist anywhere - but it does indicate whether or not the word enjoys popular usage and if it has standardized spellings.)
Additionally, both the un- and de- prefixes can be defined as a reversal of action.
Despite the similarities, I'd go with popular usage and use unregister.
Comment: Both forms are still relatively uncommon, so we can't assume too much from a pretty small sample size. I imagine lots of people needed a word for the concept on account of the internet, spam, etc. This NGram suggeststhat 'non-standard' *unregister* got temporary currency from people almost randomly choosing without being actually familiar with either alternative. But *deregister* will win out when people realise they don't like *unregistration*. http://ngrams.googlelabs.com/graph?content=deregistration%2Cunregistration&year_start=1980&year_end=2008&corpus=0&smoothing=0
Comment: @Fumble I agree about the sample size being small and arbitrary at best. But I don't feel the populist choice between two was entirely random: because of the significant usage _unregister_ has in a technical context, the `un-` prefix has the benefit of a well-established precedent: _undo_, which is nearly ubiquitous as a means to reverse an action on hardware and software. It's entirely plausible that _unregister_ gained traction by the use of this precedent. This is just supposition, however.
Comment: I quite agree about usage of *unregister* being influenced by a 'pre-existing' technical context. Which quite possibly would have made that form more common for labelling the appropriate link in web pages. But I still don't think speakers in general are going to accept *unregistration* over *deregistration*, so I'm still betting *unregister* will fade back over the next few years.
Comment: @Fumble I imagine time will tell. I prefer _cancel_ myself.
Comment: Acceptance in a reputable dictionary is almost always considered an infallible test of wordness (at some point in time); usage panels will reject candidates they consider don't have enough currency. Of course, non-appearance in reputable dictionary A doesn't prove much, especially when dictionary B lists the word.
Answer: Generally speaking, the de- and un- prefixes have different usages.
Un- more usually negates an adjective: unkind, unfair, etc. On the other hand, de- is a verb prefix, that denotes the action of removing some thing or state.
Hence: unleaded petrol/gasoline (because lead doesn't occur in petrol until it's added) but decaffeinated coffee (because the caffeine has been taken out).
However, when an adjective is from a verb, usage often slips from this, and we end up with un- prefixing a new verb. So the adjective unregistered gives rise to the verb to unregister, although deregister would be more in line with convention.
By this convention, unregistered should mean not registered (whether through active deregistration or never having been registered in the first place) and there should be no verb to unregister. Deregistered should mean actively removed from the register.
(The verb to undo is I think the most notable exception to the conventional norm.)
Comment: Yes.  Compare "unconnected" and "disconnected."  You can only be "disconnected" if you were previously "connected."  If you were never "connected," then you remain "unconnected."
Answer: I've checked the OALD, the NOAD and the OED and, surprisingly for me, none has "unregister".
The only similar entry is unregistered which means "not recorded".
But the OED (only this one) has deregister and gives this entry:

Deregister, v. (diːˈrɛdʒɪstə(r))
  [de- + register]
trans. To remove from a register. Hence ˌderegiˈstration.

It appears also here (it's an OED online, considering the credits given), while unregister, again, is not available. I can understand that some old Dictionary doesn't have unregister, but I can't understand why the Oxford Advanced Learner's Dictionary doesn't have any entry considering it's online and therefore has more opportunities to be revised and updated. Not to mention that I've seen unregister before, because it doesn't sound new to me.
Comment: This is the answer I was looking for. To remove (transitive) from a register is to deregister and, once removed, the status of the object is unregistered (passive).
Answer: I found this.

Deregister: to unregister

http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/deregister
So, they seem like synonyms to me.
Comment: And yet, other answers seem to distinguish between them as un- (not registered now) and de- (was registered before, but not any more).
Comment: After reading [this answer](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/25931/unregister-vs-deregister/154691#154691) I would rather say *Deregister: to make something unregistered*.
Answer: I would suggest that unregistering is the undoing of some registration that should never have taken place, e.g. a license that should never have been issued, whereas deregistering is the removal of some registration that is, perhaps, no longer valid. In the latter case, there is an element that it was once a valid registration but its status has changed. The former case suggests there should be no record the registration ever existed.
Comment: This is similar to the word "connect."

When you are not connected, you are "unconnected."

When you were once connected but the connection has been removed, you have now been "disconnected."
Answer: "Deregister" carries more of an active connotation than "unregister". For example, while the "unregistering" might involve removing your name from the guest list for a conference, "deregistering" would also include cancellation of hotel reservations, travel plans, etc.
Comment: If so, it may be suggested by the way that "de-" seems to always imply reversal of an action, while "un-" can simply mean "not". I hope I am being "unassuming" and not "defensive" here.
Comment: I did not vote your answer down, so please don't feel bad about it. My knowledge of the English language is too limited to either believe you or prove you wrong. (By the way, I'm pretty sure that the "de" in "defensive" is no privative prefix)
Comment: Isn't it subjective?
Comment: Yes, I was stretching for a weak pun there before I had to leave for home. Great question, by the way.
Answer: Shane's got it right, deregister is the verb to move someone from state=registered, to state=unregistered, IMHO.
With respect to defrocking/unfrocking,  I think vicars are 'defrocked' by their superiors after they've been caught 'unfrocking' with the wrong people at the wrong time.
This leads to another possible distinction- One 'unregisters' themselves, and 'deregisters' others.  If I am registered for notification, I can 'unregister' myself, but the notification service could deregister me if communications were lost.
Answer: In OALD, only unregistered is found because this word is always used in passive voice.
As a reference dictionary, OALD will never mention this word without -d.
And actually, grammatically, unregistered is more likely an adjective because it is a past participle, and a past participle can be often used as an adjective.
Answer:
prefix un- means undo(ctrl + z) of something.

Examples: unlike, uncover, unregister, unsubscribe,

prefix de- means do reverse of something

Examples: demonetization, deactivate, decompile
Comment: This question was marked as answered six years ago and your answer doesn't really add anything or answer the question. I'd consider deleting it.
Answer: I believe the most popular (and accepted) answer starts going in the right direction (thinking of what the act of "deregistering" does and the state transition), but then wrongly concludes "deregister" is redundant because the "unregistered" state is the same as what happens after "deregistering".
If you really think about the state transition after a "deregistering" action though, it is not at all the same as not having been registered in the first place.
For example, consider a stock that has been "delisted" from an exchange.  Depending on how it has been delisted, there may be certain actions an investor holding the stock could still do on the exchange, but of course, an unlisted stock cannot have any actions taken on it (other than to list it!).
As another set of examples, consider a licensed professional that has been "delicensed".  It's interesting to note many professions have special terms for this state, e.g. a lawyer is disbarred, a priest is defrocked (there is an actual verb "frocked" but seems to have fallen into disuse).  A medical doctor does seem to be "delicensed" but commonly one sees "disbar" also being used nowadays.
The point of these examples is to show that this state of being "deregistered" is hugely significant in a variety of business domains.  One would not simply keep track of a boolean (true/false) but instead keep track of other variables.  As the accepted answer even notes, an "uninitialized" variable means something different than a "deinitialized" variable.  The former is just the default but the latter is on purpose and may signify critical business logic.  It's unfortunate, and the cause of many bugs, that developers don't actually distinguish between the two cases when they should.
Answer: Unregister means the item or person does not appear on the list because they were never on the list.
De-register means the item or person was initially listed, but has been removed and is no longer on the list.

"Unregister" vs "Deregister"


Stop notifications from briefly lowering media volume

Question: I have an LG G6 running Oreo and whenever media is playing and a notification sound comes through something briefly lowers (not fully muted) my media volume. How can I stop this? I don't want notification sounds to change my media volume.
Answer: Updated Answer
I first thought that the OP was asking about modifying the behavior of the sources of the notifications which can be done in with finer levels than before using Notification Categories in Android 8.0 Oreo.
However via the comments, it appears that the OP wants to stop Audio Ducking
from happening in the media player. Unfortunately this is a feature of the
media app playing the music itself and requires the developer of the app to configure. See
similar question: Prevent music volume from being lowered when using turn-by-turn navigation
Original Answer
In Android 8.0 Oreo the App can now have Notification Categories
Check the notification setting screen in:
Settings->Apps & Notification->[App Name]->App Notifications

For the App(s) that are interrupting see if you can either disable sound or adjust the priority to one which suits your needs.
Comment: You are referring to Audio Ducking. The app that is playing music handles the ducking. See: [Prevent music volume from being lowered when using turn-by-turn navigation](https://android.stackexchange.com/q/124876/3573)
Comment: That seems like only a stopgap measure. What about in cases like receiving texts? I need to be able to receive those sound notifications BUT I don't want them to effect the volume of my music.
Comment: Make thst comment into an answer and I'll accept it.
Answer: Rocket Player, is a music player that will let you choose between ducking and pausing, and will allow you to disable it completely, (The setting is under Settings->Sound->Audio Focus->Temp Focus Action)".
It does give the option to IGNORE all other apps. Just tested it: maps, camera shutter sound, notifications - all make sounds but no longer "duck" (more like stutter!) my music, listening via 3.5mm right now but should be same for BT.
Answer: To automate the Do Not Disturb toggle, you can use Tasker (https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=net.dinglisch.android.taskerm&hl=en).

Create a task that sets Do Not Disturb to "No Interruptions"
Create a task that sets *Do Not Disburb" to "Allow All"
Create a profile

Add trigger to the "No Interruptions" task when a specific application is launched (i.e. YouTube Music),
link an Exit task that triggers "Allow all"
Answer: If your device supports the Do Not Disturb mode, you can use it to achieve this effect system-wide for any music app as far as notifications are concerned. However, turn-by-turn navigation in Google Maps may still duck the audio. (I usually change it to Alerts Only and check the map visually for directions.)
By default, Do Not Disturb will suppress notification alerts completely, stacking the notifications up in the drawer silently. But depending on your phone model and ROM version, you may be able to fine tune the behavior to allow status bar icons and banner notifications.
Whether or not you allow the icons or banners, Do Not Disturb will always suppress the notification sounds. This will allow your music to continue playing uninterrupted even when notifications are getting added to the drawer or even popping up at the top of the screen.


How's the Zoom H1 working out for you?

Question: I've recently been considering getting a small portable recorder and had my heart set on the Zoom H4N because of all the wonderful things that I've heard about it. But the recently released H1 seems like an even better solution. What do you guys think about the H1, if you've purchased it or gotten a chance to use it? I know the noise floor isn't going to be as quiet as the Sony PCM-D50 or a Sound Devices recorder, but is it low enough that recordings of relatively quiet sounds like Foley or backgrounds are useful?
Answer: Hi Paul,
I bought the H1 when it came out and am really impressed, especially considering the price. I couldn't afford anything more expensive at the time. My only criticism is that it's prone to handling noise, but you get what you pay for. For me it's got some great microphones, high sample rate and small enough to put in my pocket. Here's a couple of links to my blog where I've said more and there's some examples of some recordings...
http://postproductionsound.wordpress.com/2010/10/08/zoom-h1-dialogue-recording/
http://postproductionsound.wordpress.com/2010/09/11/zoom-h1-initial-thoughts/
Ian
Comment: ha, the more sensitivity you pay for, the more handling noise you'll get..
Comment: A light touch is you need though ;)
Answer: I have one and love it.  I use it mostly to record ambience and in the beginning did have some trouble with handling noise and self-noise, but I think with a little practice and learning how to deal with the gain correctly you can easily overcome these problems.  I am very happy with the results I get and thoroughly recommend it.  Like Ian said, its portability is what really sells it.
Answer: I love mine, the size, amount of flash memory you get out of the box, and the price make it easily worth it. I carry it practically everywhere now. The mics are very good but sensitive to wind, and the case does get alot of handling noise. But once you get used to holding it loose in your hand it's totally fine. I went to a farm recently and got some great stuff with it (ambiences, animal vox, footstep foley)
Alot of sound designers have also purchased it to be used as their mic that gets put in dangerous situations. Not because its durable, but because it doesn't cost what your 416 costs.
Answer: echo the above comments, but add that for forest ambient noise its got a little high floor noise for my taste ... some can be fixed in post, but not easily.
Answer: I just got mine a month or so ago and am NOT impressed with it at all. It does not sound like anything special compared to any of my old video camera's audio, my hd cam's audio or even that much better than my kodak playsport's audio. The only decent way you can get audio out of it that is decent is if you are within 6 inches of your mouth, have a wind protector on it and have it on a boom pole just above the tip of your head maybe, otherwise holding it just below your chin. I am very dissapointed with this, very dissapointed. Plus the build quality is sickly cheapo plastic. You have been warned. Be prepared to buy some decent external mics if you want to get this because you will be wanting to use external mics after you hear the sound directly off this if you have to go further than 6 inches away from subject audio.
Answer: I'm a wedding videographer and we use the Zoom H1 on our rig to record audio from our Sony UWP-V1 during ceremonies. The main reason we decided on the Zoom H1 was for its light weight, price, 48khz 24-bit audio, and ability to be mounted to a standard quarter-20 mount (albeit, the socket is plastic, which sucks actually). Since our Nikons can only record for about 20 minutes at a time, we can't rely on using the in-camera audio since wedding ceremonies can sometimes go on for quite some time. Whatever camera the lav receiver would be plugged into would cut out—on long ceremonies that'd be really bad. Imagine "I take... <silence> ... I now pronounce you man and wife." o_0
During receptions I'll use it for speeches for the same reason (but instead we'll have the Rhode VideoMic attached). I'll also use it for ambient noise collection while shooting b-roll footage .
It's mic's ability to pick up even the slightest sound is awesomely useful (in most circumstances). Other contributors are correct in saying that it picks up every move of your hand while holding it. I generally just set it somewhere and let it do its thing. I would certainly not suggest using the mics while mounted to a camera unless it was in a shock mount... even then I don't think it would be a wise choice. It will pick up every little thing you do (maybe even more so than a built-in mic).
Answer: zoom H1 is great, its actually a pocket sized pocket recorder, no excuse not to have it with you all the time.
Answer: The H1 is great. I carry it everywhere. It fits in a small handbag and is great for travel, recording unusual sounds one happens upon, etc. Be very gentle.  I also recommend the H2n, which is a bit bigger and more durable but has a great selection of patterns to pick from - awesome ambiance recording machine!
Cheers,
Larissa S.
Answer: Old thread, but anyway...I've been using the H4 and now H1, because of its portability, for interviews, ambient sound and simple video sequences. As a former radio producer i've also worked with more high-level (and definitely high-priced) gear.
I've find the zoom series (I've also tried the H2) good when it comes to sound quality. And especially the H1 is a bargain for its price.
Some drawbacks, though.
1) The H4 and indeed the H1 is VERY sensitive for handling sounds. You have to have a delicate sense of handling if you are using the H1 as a interview microphone "on the street". If you are putting it on a microphone stand on a decent surface it is ok. Just using the handle in the accessory pack is just slightly better. I put the H1 in a rubberband microphone holder on a mic boom, which does the job.
2) The microphones in the H1 catches every sound. Fine for ambience, bad when it comes to wind or breathing sounds. Use a microphone windscreen as the one in the accessory pack. And for voiceovers etc - talk close to the microphones in a quiet and soft area (a wardrobe filled with clothes is just fine!)
3) The H1 i very plastic. Its a pity that it makes the thing feel cheapish. But it also feels a little fragile, for example in the mic stand mounter. I do not use it fulltime, and try to be careful, but it is something to keep in mind.
Answer: Very old post but for those having issues with wind noise I found a solution. I bought a rycote windjammer but found The mic was still picking up wind noise through the casing. Solution? I wrapped the body of the h1 in a cheap Cotten wool Santa beard. Even on a very windy day I don't pick up any wind noise at all. I can even use the mouth of the beard to look at the screen. Sounds crazy, but it works. Beard must have cost a couple of euro

How's the Zoom H1 working out for you?


Why is closing the center by White generally considered a concession?

Question: Why is closing the center by White generally considered a concession? I mean, pushing e4-e5 when there are Black Pawns on d5 (and e6), or pushing d4-d5 when there are Pawns on e5 (and d6), is often considered "the second best way" to play, and something that White has to do only if necessary. I.e. vs King's Indian is considered generally a stronger opening strategy to keep the d4-e5 tension (by delaying d4-d5) until necessary. Why?
Comment: Whatever gave you this idea? The question presupposes that it is actually considered a concession, but is it? Any source for that sentiment?
Comment: Vs KID, may I suppose that Mar del Plata variation (keeping the tension) is considered more challenging than Petrosian variation (with early d4-d5). Then vs French and Caro-Kann, aren't main lines with Nc3 / Nd2 considered more challenging than early e4-e5 lines?
Comment: Speaking extremely generally - pawns side-by-side are better than pawns not side-by-side, because there are no holes and they have more future options available to them.
Comment: Well, in the Mar del Plata variation, the center is closed one move later than in the Petrosian. I would hardly call that a difference.
Comment: But in the French Defense whether the pawn is moved from e4 to e5 or exchanged with the d5 pawn the holes are the same. In fact, moving it to e5 leaves less holes because d5 is blocked then.
Comment: @A.N.Other: realize that top players still play the Petrosian. Whatever the difference in challenge is, it can't be very big. Probably smaller than an amateur needs to worry about.
Comment: Related: http://chess.stackexchange.com/questions/9294 and http://chess.stackexchange.com/questions/6555
Answer: The pawn advance reduces the potential, what is done cannot be undone and Black uses the information to set up accordingly. This is probably the broadest and most general explanation. In the end, however, it may turn out to be a matter of taste or fashion.
Answer: Based on my understanding it's not closing the position that is a concession, it's releasing the tension for no reason that is the true concession. Finding meaningful moves in a position while maintaining tension, whether that is not moving pawns in contact that can take each other or pieces in contact, is approaching master level play (I say this being a master myself). The only time you want to release tension is when you get some tangible benefit. The results of releasing tension too soon is usually just slightly worsening your position, but can result in an outright blunder occasionally.
Concerning the Kings Indian you mentioned in the Mar del Plata variation where black plays 7...Nc6, closing the center with 8. d5 is the most "correct" move as you gain a tempo and gain space by releasing the tension. This makes releasing the tension completely worth it. In the Petrosian variation of the Kings Indian by comparison white only gains space by releasing the tension, which while not that bad often leads to equal positions with best play, losing the advantage of the first move. In systems of the Kings Indian where black plays Nbd7, often white is served best by maintaining pawn tension until black plays Re8 or Qe7 to prepare to play exd4 and try to gain piece activity along the e-file, then he can release the tension with d5, gaining space and pointing out black wasted a move to misplace his rook/queen to a file that will never be open.
You could say the philosophical reason to maintain the tension stems from forcing your opponent to develop his pieces and plan his moves in such a way that he has to react to a much larger series of positions and plans from yourself. This helps limit his pieces and keeps them from being placed optimally and efficiently. Whoever released tension first generally is simplifying the game for his opponent and making it easier for him to maximally place his pieces. Hence releasing tension must be justified with some sort of benefit, or because the tension just can't be maintained since the opponent has too much pressure on your position (understanding when this point is reached can be very difficult).
So closing the center itself isn't bad generally, it just depends if it's the right time to release tension or not.
Answer: Those pawn advances are not concessions, but rather stylistic choices.
Chess is about having choices.
Answer: White has the advantage of the initial move. As such, he will want to preserve as many options as possible (all other things being equal).
"Closing" a position reduces those options (by definition). That's why Black will sometimes play e6 and d5 (French defense) in response to d4, to try to induce White to close the position with e5. Some players feel that the advanced pawn in e5 is sufficient compensation, others do not.


Installing an application on Windows 7 using Windows recommended settings

Question: I'm trying to install an application on a Windows 7 computer (I right click the setup.exe and chooses run as administrator). However the installtion fails because it can not access a file in Windows\system32\. And Windows is showing saying something like "Re-install Program Using Recommended Settings" when I choose to do so the program is installed perfectly. But why do I need to do this? What are the "Recommended settings"? Do I need to change my users permissions?
Answer: Is this one specific application, or all apps?   If it's one particular one, the installer itself may be defective.  Try downloading it again, or check the knowledgebase/forums for that particular program to see if anyone else reports the same problem.  (If you specified the app in your question, someone here might be able to help, but the current question is very vague.)
Answer: Did you change the compatibility setting "Run this program in compatibility mode for:"?, Right click on the installer and do properties, then go to the compatibility tab. Set the compatibility for whatever OS the program was designed for. This is what recommended settings is doing for you in the background.
Answer: The installer is probably not made for your operating system.
It refers to a DLL that is missing on your Windows installation.
More info is required for giving a better answer.


no way to use opendns on pppoe connection?

Question: I have an old speedtouch usb modem (revision 0) and on my desktop with xubuntu 12.04 I've configured a pppoe connection. I can connect and my ISP assign an IP address and the DNS but the primary DNS address is not reachable by ping, the secondary yes but no address is resolved then I can't surf the web. Then I want to set the open DNS but there is bo way, if I change manually /etc/resolv.conf it is rewrited by some script (there is the flag usepeerdns on the configuration script, if I exclude it there is no way to assign any DNS server because resolv.conf is not read) also if I set not writable the file changing the default permission. I changed dhclient.conf with the code
<code>prepend domain-name-servers 126.96.36.199,126.96.36.199;
</code>
and now if I connect by a wifi connection to my router I'm using openDNS server but ppp does not use this script as long as I can see and the DNS server is always setted by my ISP. How can I use set DNS manually to a PPP connection? Is there any way to change it after the connection? Why NetworkManager is not able to manage my dsl connection, it seems not able to manage the dsl usb cable modem.
If I use pppoeconf NetworkManager doesn't start and I have to manually delete the lines added to /etc/network/interfaces because the system is not able to start with full configuration of network
If I connect a modem-router to the same line I can surf with the DNS server assigned by my ISP, I can't figure why. Some suggestion? Thanks to all

The problem is that NetworkManager doesn't manage my usb adsl modem (speedtouch 330). Also if I try to set the interface in /etc/network/interfaces NetworkManager process doesn't start when I reboot the system and I have to restart it manually after large delay before the system is ready. In any case it is not the DNS supplied by my ISP the problem because if I address a query to the DNS server expliciting its address it answer the query, if I not explicit the dotted address of the DNS server the pc answers that no server is reachable. The file /etc/resolv.conf is a symlink to /etc/ppp/resolv.conf that is updated when I connect then I don't understand because the system does not use the DNS listed in the configuration file
Answer: If you are using NetworkManager then you should use the Connection Editor to adjust network settings. To set your own nameserver addresses, click on the network indicator | Edit Connections...; select your connection; open the "IPv4 Settings" tab; change "Automatic (DHCP)" to "Automatic (DHCP) addresses only"; enter the desired nameserver addresses in the "Additional DNS servers" field.


Should I install Mac OS X Snow Leopard Server?

Question: I will be using Mac OS X Server to hold an email server, web hosting, DNS and iOS and Mac development and I was wondering if you guys think Mac OS X Snow Leopard would do me just fine or if Server would be the best bet. So far, when setting up server tools on Snow Leopard it seems to be tedious but from the overview page on Apple's website, Server seems to be able to perform tasks with ease. Should I just use Snow Leopard or go for the Server?
Comment: In would say that server admin tools are the opposite of tedious given the alternatives for other server os tools. Getting those tools integrated with the server software is why people pay for server in the first place, not a reason to avoid it.
Answer: It depends on how good you are at configuring the relevant services in Unix-land. All the services you mentioned can be run from the non-server version, but OS X Server has that sort of thing pre-configured and maybe even a nice GUI for management purposes.
Comment: Yea, not only do I want the server stuff but I also want to do general computing on it. Day to day stuff whilst still running the server service in the background.
Comment: Either will work: the only difference is that Server has additional services preinstalled. It will work great as a desktop general-computing machine.
Answer: The admin tools that OS X Server provides for DNS configuration almost justify its use on its own. Combined with your needs of email, web, and development hosting, definitely go with Server. I will assume you have the appropriate hardware for running OS X server, because a regular iMac won't do; you need either an Xserve (no longer manufactured, but available used) or a Mac Pro (a Mac Mini Server might suffice, but it will be sluggish).
Comment: You can run the Server editions of OS X on any Mac without problems, but you are correct that the Xserve (no longer sold) and the Mac Pro will be speediest.
Comment: There is no way you would run a production server on desktop hardware.
Comment: Why not? macminicolo.net does just fine (and, true to their name, they run everything on Mac minis). It's not like server hardware is different or special. Maybe you've customized it for more RAM or disk space or many cores or one very fast core depending on intended workloads, but for **most people**, a desktop-class machine (or even a laptop) will work great as a server. When you reach the point where it won't *you'll know*, and you can get a mess of servers customized to fit your particular needs.


What would be the right way to shoot a portrait in a very dark room with flash?

Question: I have several flash units. Both the shoe-mount type and the "studio" type.
The portrait has to be taken in a room that happens to not have
windows. It is always dark in there. I can bring a light just bright enough to help me see the subject, but the camera needs some light to focus.
I don't want the warm cast of any incandescent lights.
Do I let the  TTL system in the camera take care of the exposure?
Do I have to focus manually, without any other option?
Comment: What kind of portrait are you creating? And what camera are you going to use?
Comment: Canon T2i, The kind of portrait is for an adult male, just a common portait showing the face and part of the chest. The background is also not important. The only reason why it has to be taken in that room is because is the only room with enough space for the subject, a chair, the flash unit(s) and myself.
Comment: Can you trigger the flash units with the on camera flash?
Comment: I could buy slave sensors,the kind that trigger other flashes when they sense the light from the on-camera flash if needed, or I have a cable that I can connect to the camera shoe with an adaptor, and connect the other end of the cable to the studio light that I have.
Comment: Here's a tip: Separate the autofocus function on your camera away from the shutter button, if possible. This will allow you to use whatever light is necessary for autofocus, even a flashlight will do, trigger autofocus, and then turn off that light and just take the photo with the shutter button. Here's how to move autofocus to one of the buttons on the back of the camera: http://www.dpreview.com/forums/thread/2798738
Answer: TTL flash exposure typically requires that all flashes are compatible with a single TTL system, and it's not clear from your description which if any of your flashes would work with TTL.  Manual flash exposure is a bit more work, but is will work with virtually any flashes. If you don't know how to perform manual flash exposure, Strobing 101 is a great place to start.
Studio strobes often include a "modeling light", which is a small, always on, incandescent light whose brightness is scaled to the strobe brightness.  This allows you to easily preview the effect of the strobe without taking a picture, and also provides enough light for autofocus or manual focus.
Many cameras, include the Canon T2i have an AF assist lighting system, that when enabled allow the camera to achieve autofocus, even under ambient lighting conditions that are too dim for effective autofocus.
Finally, if you use a bright flash combined with low ISO and your maximum flash sync shutter speed, you should be able to have ambient light that is bright enough to focus with, but that will not contribute significantly to the final exposure.  You can confirm this by taking a picture with these ISO, shutter, and aperture settings and with the flash temporarily disabled.  If ambient lighting still shows up in this exposure, reduce the amount of ambient light, reduce the aperture, or lower the ISO until you achieve low enough ambient lighting that you can still focus by, but does not contribute significantly to your exposure with the flash disabled.
Answer:
I can bring a light just bright enough to help me see the subject, but the camera needs some light to focus. I don't want the warm cast of any incandescent lights.

You're worrying about a problem that doesn't exist. The flashes of light produced by even a small hotshoe flash gun are so much brighter than standard interior lighting that provided you shoot at or close to your sync speed (e.g. 1/250s) the room lights simply wont show up - you can safely leave them on for the whole shoot so you should have no problems focusing.
You can test this by setting your camera up for flash, say 1/250s f/8 ISO100 and taking a shot with just the room lights on. It should come out black. Turn the flashes on and if the result is well exposed then you can be sure the room lights are not affecting your shot.
These were shot with all the room lights on. Notice that when the background light is off [left] the background becomes black, the ambient light doesn't touch it, likewise when the background light is on and the foreground light is off [right] the subject is totally black:

TTL metering is fine too - as long as the camera is forced to use a low ISO number (e.g. 100) and fast shutter speed, it will calculate the amount of flash needed effectively ignoring the room light (which wont be contributing enough light for the camera to care about).
Comment: You're understating the case a bit, Matt. Because of failing eyesight, I keep things pretty bright (well, other folks would call it annoyingly bright) at my place — I'm running a trio of naked 40W CFLs (not 40W tungsten-equivalent) in this little room (call it roughly 3.5m x 5m) so I can read, and I can get my very slightly off-white walls looking black at 1/250, f/4 and ISO 200 (the lowest the ol' D70 can go). At ISO 100 and f/8 you probably wouldn't notice the influence of the modelling lights on a Euro-spec Broncolor Pulso head (650W tungsten) unless you went digging in the shadows in raw.
Answer: Use only a modest amount of constant light, just enough for the focus system to work, and use the fastest X-sync speed your shutter has.  That will make the ambient light during the short exposure interval so dim relative to the flash as to be irrelevant in most cases.
For example, to properly expose a picture in a room lit just enough for the auto focus to work might take 1/30 second at f/2.8 (just picking something vaguely in the plausible range, you'll have to measure your setup yourself) and some convenient ISO.  With all the stobes firing, you might stop down the lens to f/11 and whatever your fastest X-sync speed is, let's say 1/250 second.  Compared to the ambient light exposure, you're 4 f-stops down due to aperture, and another 3 due to shutter, for a total of over 7 f-stops the ambient light will be dimmer than the strobes.  At that point, the ambient light is basically irrelevant.
Answer: I actually prefer to have the room rather dark when doing flash photography.  Flashes are much brighter than pretty much any room lights, but the room lights will still give some contribution and take away from the control of the flashes.
If all your flashes are compatible with your camera's TTL system, then you can use that, but unless they are all the same make, there is a reasonable chance they may not be compatible with each other.  If they are not, you would have to manually configure the power (and you will still want to manually configure the power ratios between your groups).
As for focusing, most flashes will either offer a modeling mode (where the flash fires repeatedly for a few seconds) to allow for seeing how the lighting looks and for focusing to occur) or more advanced models may have an assist beam that can be projected on to the scene in order to further aid focusing.  You can also use the modeling mode for manual focusing if you prefer, though generally you want to avoid using the modeling flash too much as rapid repeated use will cause the flash bulbs to accumulate heat which is bad for their longevity.
Comment: Answer is very clear. Except for this part:  "(and you will still want to manually configure the power ratios between your groups). You mean having not one but several groups of strobes?
Comment: @angelrojas - yes, ideally when working with multiple strobes you want to assign them to groups that can be fired at different brightness levels.  Most wireless systems will allow you to independently control the relative balance between multiple groups (often 3 or 5, some RF ones go further).  This lets you adjust the balance of the lighting while still keeping a good overall exposure.
Answer: Use modeling light. Or just turn on the lighting in the room :-) If that is inconvenient, there are cheap Zigbee wireless remotes for switching on and off a 220 V device plugged in. Best if you have a fast-turn-on LED lamp.
Then you focus with available, constant light, and then turn off main light, make the shot with flashes, and turn on light.
If your camera emits pre-flash, it will calibrate the flash power and adjust exposure. Typical for Canon-s. However, with flash-es, you usually go all-manual in a studio, so you will do a few shots, adjust camera settings, and that's it.
Answer: Focus with flashlight.  But frankly, for producing a dark picture my usual approach is to expose fully at low ISO (assuming your flash is good for that), then reduce exposure in post-processing.  That gets rid of the "shadow noise" that could otherwise pervade the picture.  It will also make it lots easier to tone down the influence of ambient light.  To make this look well, you want to bounce the flash.
Answer: You don't have to focus manually (though you may choose to if you wish); if your flashes don't have modelling lights, you can easily use a small torch (flashlight) to put enough light onto the subject for the camera to focus and turn it off (or point it away) before tripping the shutter.


Can you eat turkey eggs?

Question: I'm considering acquiring a few turkey hens and was wondering can you eat Turkey eggs? Has anyone eaten one? How do they taste?
Comment: After seeing a turkey I would not bother trying to steal eggs to it XD, chickens are small and manageable if they get angry, turkey can be a little more dangerous I guess ^^. I think eggs are eatable, if you can get them safely :)
Comment: I very recently found out they were a thing (along with also-interesting duck eggs and too-pricey-for-now goose eggs), by seeing them for sale on a local farmer's market type website.  Haven't had a chance to try them, though I intend to.  Others have better answers, so I'll leave it at this - check the Internets well, and you might be able to find some to taste (before a larger acquisition, as it were)
Answer: Yes, you absolutely can eat turkey eggs. They are somewhat like duck eggs in that they are richer and creamier in taste. However, turkeys don't lay nearly as many eggs as chickens - perhaps 100 a year as opposed to a hen's 300, so don't expect to enjoy them too often.
Comment: But note that "a few turkey hens" each laying a hundred or so eggs a year still equates to about an egg a day.
Comment: Are they approximately the same size too?
Comment: @BrownRedHawk they are a little bigger, but the main difference is they are more pointed.
Answer: Turkey eggs look and taste like chicken eggs, they are just bigger. The ones I have tried had a higher yolk to white ratio, and were much richer as a result. Perfectly safe to eat.
Comment: `Perfectly safe to eat.` - As in raw, like boxers [did](http://www.slate.com/articles/news_and_politics/explainer/2006/12/do_boxers_drink_raw_eggs.html)?
Answer: Yes, and here's a rare example of some on sale in a supermarket, in the "eggs" section.
These images are taken from the Buzzfeed article "19 Times Waitrose Went Way, Way Too Far", which gently makes fun of a UK supermarket chain that has a reputation for being rather posh. Individual Twitter users are credited in that article.

For a size comparison, you can just make out a box of hen's eggs on the left.
For an alternative size comparison, here's the same company's brand of osterich egg(s), duck eggs and quail eggs, on similar shelving in a branch of the same supermarket:
Comment: Golly 20 pounds for a ostrich egg. I know some Karoo farmers who would salivate and the idea of getting such a price for a ostrich egg.
Answer: Yes - they are even commercially available now. In fact, almost all bird eggs are edible. Only a few birds have any kind of poison, and they live in Indonesia. This source gives more details about the two kinds of birds that are known to be toxic, and the nutritional benefits of eating eggs.
However, given the difficulty of obtaining eggs from large hens and finding the nests of smaller birds, they are not often described in survival or wildlife guides.

Can you eat turkey eggs?


When did semiautomatic hunting rifles become commonly used in the United States?

Question: My understanding (possibly wrong) is that the use of semiautomatic hunting rifles is fairly recent.  I recently encountered someone online who claimed that in the United States even in the 1970s it was fairly common for semiautomatics to be used in hunting.  Is this true?
Comment: It will depend on the State.  See [this article](http://wnep.com/2017/03/28/deer-hunters-relieved-over-semi-automatic-weapons-law-change/) about recent decision in Pennsyllvania against using semiautomatic rifles on big game.
Answer: The first mention I can find of a semi-auto rifle produced in the United States for hunting was the Remington Model 8.

The Remington Model 8 rifle was the first commercially successful semiautomatic rifle offered for civilian sale in the United States
...
The primary market for the Model 8 was sport hunting.

Source
The first successful semi-auto shotgun was the Browning Auto-5

It was the first successful semi-automatic shotgun design, and remained in production until 1998.
...
Most A-5s have removable plugs in the magazine which prevent more than three shells from being loaded (two in the magazine, plus one in the chamber) to comply with US federal migratory waterfowl laws, as well as some state hunting regulations.

Source
So as you can see, hunting with semiautomatics has been going on for quite a long time.
Further along in history, after World War 2 there were surplus M1 Garands and M1 Carbines which were semiautomatic and used for hunting.
Then in 1964 Colt started selling AR-15 as sporting rifles (Source) and in 1977 the patent on the gas system expired, allowing more manufacturers to build them.(Source).
In the 1990s companies started taking the carry handle off and instead putting a flat rail on top instead which in turn made it easier to use scopes. (Source)
Today semiautomatics are very popular due to a number of factors.

Cheap ammunition relatively speaking.
Lower felt recoil which makes them more pleasant to shoot.
Lots of customization options.
The ability to quickly fire a second shot.

All of this to say that while semiautomatics have been used for hunting for quite a while, today's popularity is more a recent thing.


Is there a passive infinitive?

Question: If I say something can be changed, for example, how would I say that in Latin? Would I say id X potest, or is there some other construction for this? The context doesn't really matter, but it's for my Commentarium Latinum entry about drawing people.
Answer: Yes, there is a passive infinitive.
If something can be loved, seen, pulled, or heard, you can say amari/videri/trahi/audiri potest.
In the first, second, and third conjugation you just replace the final -e of the active infinitive with -ī.
In the third conjugation you replace -ere with -ī.
I interpreted your question to mean that you wanted a present passive infinitive.
The active and passive infinitives also have past and future forms.
Some of these forms require an auxiliary verb (esse or iri).
If you want to know more about different infinitives, please consult a Latin grammar and ask a new question if something is unclear.
Comment: @Anonym True, many of the infinitives are periphrastic (*visurum esse, videre, vidisse, visum iri, videri, visum esse* and similarly for other verbs), but they are there nevertheless. They are indeed morphologically different, but it has little effect on their use (gender and number for the ones with *esse*).
Comment: On your last sentence: sort of. There's a perfect active, and *esse* has the lonesome honor of a future active (*fore*), but all the other infinitives are periphrastic.
Comment: @JoonasIlmavirta I think one could take exception to the use of the word *forms*.
Comment: @C.M.Weimer I expanded a little. I wanted to keep the mention of other infinitives shallow; the details are beside the point here but I thought the OP should be aware of their existence.

Is there a passive infinitive?


Issues using 'Related Permissions Module' with v4.6 of CiviCRM. Will there be an upgrade soon?

Question: We are using CiviCRM Webforms to allow parents to sign-up their events for there children. I am restricting access to related contacts using groups but would like to enforce permissions using 'Related Permissions Module', however this does not seem compatible with v4.6. Will there be an upgrade soon
Answer: Good question!
It adds fields to the relationship_type form - & the methodology for that broke in 4.5 I believe. So, I believe that if you install the github version Related permissions on 4.6 the relationship type form is likely to, at the very least, need testing. The added fields are the ones that force particular relationship types to always be permissioned. I think the earlier version doesn't offer that functionality & also doesn't require the entity_settings module. If you auto-installed you probably have that earlier version.
The way the fields are added to the form is by declaring it to the entity_setting module - which added them via extra.tpl - but they were winding up outside the form - so the alterContent hook was moving them around in the DOM to an appropriate place. Wasn't much fun & is now broken - but not sure a good way to inject fields into settings forms without doing a tpl override
Answer: Although the extension is still listed as v1.2, there have been recent updates to the codebase which have helped us with a conflict with CiviMail in 4.7.10.
Once installed, the info lists compatibility with 4.7 even though the extensions page on civicrm.org only lists up to 4.4.


Can I make my own potting soil with what I have?

Question: I have miracle grow gardening soil as well as Hoffman and Espoma cactus mixes. Can I mix these two (part cactus mix part gardening mix) together for potting geraniums and lobelia? I'm out of general potting mix and am curious if mixing the two together would be an OK alternative? If not, what is the harm or reasons not to?
Answer: A few questions to consider; is that soil old, been around awhile in opened bags? Miracle grow potting soil already has fertilizer added.  Need to know if any fertilizers have been added any of these soils.  Too much fertilizer and too little fertilizer will kill a plant.
Old soil will probably have pathogens or insects in it now.  That is a risk.  Will this pot be out of doors?
Myself?  I would take the risk and use those soils mixed for the potting soil.  Do not use any rock or gravel at the bottom of the pot below the soil and above the drainage hole.  Just add your mixed potting soils, plant plants, water the soil as you go to moisten all of the soil, not saturate.  Do not water again until that soil is dryer and the pot feels lighter.  Lobelia loves shade...partial shade.  Geraniums love sun.  Something to keep in mind.  You'll have to put the pot in sun with a little partial shade late afternoon.  Cut the flowers off way before the blooms get old.  To keep Geraniums blooming you really have to be brutal cutting the flowers off especially at the beginning.  Try the lobelia but a better filler would be Ipomea Lime Green.  Potato Vine in chartreuse green that would do well with your geranium for sun and water.  The Ipomea that is dark eggplant color is also good to combine with the Geranium (red?) and Lime Green Ipomea.  An orange sedge or two would pull those plants together well.  How big is your pot?
Comment: For July 4th, great combinations!  Makes total sense.  I would recommend deadheading now hard for the next week then stop.  You'll get more flowers. Your potting soils mixed together will work just fine!  Lobelia is a great all purpose blue!  On your porch both types of plants will thrive.  Lobelia is tough to dead head but go to work cutting dead flowers/seeds off.  Stop on the 20th.  Need fertilizer unless your soil had fertilizer already incorporated.  4th of July Red, White and Blue pots and baskets were a big deal and to screw up would not be cool. Petunias are another color choice.
Comment: Make sure the nitrogen is less than the phosphorus and potassium!  Otherwise, reproductive growth will be inhibited.
Comment: Pot size about 3 Gallons, yes red geranium and one white., Reason for the mix with lobelia is the placement is on my covered front porch- good mix of sun for a few hours, partial for a few and shade depending on time of day AND porch decor theme is red, white, and blue. And no not old bought within the month- I just have to travel 30 miles to get to my closet garden or hardware store to get more n thought it'd be worth asking. Thanks for the details thus far!
Comment: How do I check nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium?....If you know the answer, Should I make this into a question, so that others who are curious or need to know can find what they're looking for in the title (of the question) ?
Comment: A soil test.  The best place to do this is with your cooperative extension service provided by one of your closest Universities.  They also have offices and classrooms around the state.  Call them and they will give you the information on how to send soil samples.  The cost should be around $10 to $15, last time I checked.  This is the only way.  They also have pH and help with amounts necessary to add, even what may be in excess.  There are other things tested for you might be able to add.  They will fill you in.  We just had someone send a picture of their test that I wish I knew how to find


How can Mewtwo Mega Evolve?

Question: Mewtwo being an artificial pokemon, how can it mega Evolve? Has the mechanics of Mewtwo mega Evolution been explained in the Genesect movie, game or any other canon?
Comment: But if it is artificial, and mega stones are natural, so there shouldn't be a mega stone for Mewtwo (unless it is artificial of course)
Comment: @Gravinco I think that is the answer (though would be fan theory). He requires an artificial mega stone, a mega stone for a different pokemon (mew maybe), a combination of mega stones from those pokemon whose DNA he has, a science experiment (think recreate stone radiation or something) or a special story such as being accepted as a real pokemon by Acceus (or another ultrapowerful pokemon) causing a mega stone to "naturally" form.
Comment: being artificial but is still a pokemon isn't it? therefore shouldn't it mega evolve like any other pokemon?
Comment: You should post this as an answer
Comment: @kaine the only ingame theory is that the Mega Stone require Irradiation from Xerneas or Yveltal. Charizardite X is also postulated to be artificial, with the Y-forms being the natural ones.
Answer: It's only theoretical and the evidence may not me be true to the games, but in the first movie we see Mewtwo create new Pokeballs, that can even capture a Pokeball, and the pokemon once captured going through DNA engineering device to be cloned, so it's not too far to say that Mewtwo is the one who created the Mega Stones for him.

Although the theory might not well combined with the game, I can bring reference to that from the game, once captured in Pokemon X\Y the player is given automatically the Mewtwonite as shown it was where Mewtwo is found, it may imply that Mewtwo already had the Mewtwonite.
Though in the remakes for Sapphire and Ruby the player finds the mega stone for Mewtwo in the Pokemon League buildings, still it's only theory.
(all this support @kaine comment)
Answer: What else can you expect? Also the anime was been very inconsistant, which has led to the theory that the anime is completely different from the game.
As for the fundamental laws of Pokemon, a certain Pikachu once KO'd a Rhyhorn (Ground type) with Thunderbolt. That same Pikachu's Thunderbolt failed to destroy a certain Swanna because it was hiding behind an Aqua Ring. Aura Sphere has set a record for having missed.
The most logical expectation might be that Mewtwo is almost a completely humanoid Pokemon, so it doesn't need a trainer to actually set itself into a mega form. Also since it is artificial, maybe a few tweaks or something happened, that made it capable of Mega Evolving itself.
Hope I helped!

How can Mewtwo Mega Evolve?


Why are deadlifts so much more taxing than other workouts (say squats)?

Question: Why are all of the workouts in the 5x5 Stronglifts program except the deadlifts? If I added an ab exercise to the workout (say Landmine 180s), would how do I know whether it should be 5x5 or 1x5?
Comment: ***Pound for pound, back squat is the king of all exercises.*** Generally, if you can squat it, you can deadlift it *(the reverse isn't usually true).* You've been provided with great answers.
Answer: After reading your comments to John P's quite accurate answer, I think the question you're really asking is "why are deadlifts so much more taxing than squats" (maybe rename the title if I'm accurate on that).
If that's the case, I'd offer these up:
Deadlifts put much more load on your thoracic spine, arms, shoulders, rhomboids, and hands.
You can see someone back squat with their hands off the bar, but that's obviously not going to happen with a deadlift. There are more muscles engaged in a deadlift than a squat.
Deadlifts are generally heavier than squats.
The weights are heavier, generally to the tune of 20% for most folks. So a person squatting 300 should be in the neighborhood of a 360 deadlift.
Deadlifts lack a viscoelastic element that is found in squats.
From a 2008 study concerning viscoelasticity:

The high resilience of tendon means that it can serve as an effective
  biological spring.

You get a lot of power from a squat because of the loading up of your hamstrings and associated connective tissue. You can try this for yourself if you're feeling brave: start a backsquat from the bottom (barbell on the safety pins in a power cage). You'll struggle much more than a typical up-and-down squat. In fact, one of Mark Rippetoe's big arguments for squatting as deeply as you (safely) can is because you need that hamstring load up to create the elastic spring.
This of course is lacking in the deadlift, where as the name implies you're starting from zero each time. I'd add this is why deadlifts need to stop completely and you should in fact relax your grip momentarily between reps, to ensure that you are truly dead-lifting and not bouncing around.
CNS Fatigue
This is a loosely understood (and commonly thrown around) statement, that seems to be the catch-all phrase for "you're tired". But if you add up some basic facts:

Deadlifts are heavier, and require more power production.
Deadlifts require more muscles to be activated.

It seems pretty reasonable that the drain on your CNS's ability to create and organize force production would be more impacted by a 3RM deadlift than a 3RM squat.
Comment: Well stated, and probably much more in line with what the OP really meant. Kudos.
Answer:
5×5 stands for five sets of five reps. These are the sets and reps you do on every exercise except Deadlifts. Deadlift is only one set of five reps (1×5) because doing more would beat you up. Plus, Squatting three times a week will get you stronger at Deadlifts since it works similar muscles.
  Read more: http://stronglifts.com/5x5/

From the page explaining the program.
Comment: I don't understand why deadlifts are any different from a squat (or any other workout) in terms of how it taxes a body.
Comment: @Steven I answered the question below, but I would recommend changing the question title a bit if you like my answer as JohnP's answer really addresses specifically what you're asking here.
Comment: I should have read this earlier. An year ago, I took deadlift to be any other exercise. Using the weight that would give me 5 reps in a set, I did 3 sets. I didn't feel anything then. The next day my back was so painful, I was unable to sit for 2min continously. Back pain was so severe, I visited doctor and took bed rest of 15 days while taking medicines. After couple of months of suffering without any improvement, I went to a weightlifting coach and he suggested a weightless exercise program for a month. The pain started decreasing gradually. Now my back is perfectly normal. Lesson learnt.
Answer: Deadlifts are a very tiring, very strenuous exercise. You also only lift the barbell once during a deadlift, they are not meant to be exercises for repetition, this is part of the reason a deadlift is classified as a deadlift. I would suggest doing 1x5, it will still build muscles, and nothing is wrong with the program. And just to note, if you're performing ab exercises, or not, you still should stick with 1x5.


Should I file my income taxes in NY or DC?

Question: For the past 10 months I have lived and worked in DC for a DC-based company. I still own a home in NY. Should I file my 2016 taxes in DC or NY?
Comment: If I were you, I'd see an accountant.  NY is very hard core about preventing people from not filing the proper taxes.  It is likely that some of your income will have to be filed for NY and some for DC.
Comment: If you moved or had NY income in the year, the short answer is "both"
Answer: You should talk to a tax professional because these rules can get complicated.  You'll need to determine if you fit some specific definitions for either state then determine how much, if any, of your income needs to be reported to that state's tax authority.  Some of the criteria is very narrow and the way you use your home in NY will impact your tax status in the state (and possibly in the county).
Here's a little reading for you:
New York State Domicile, Resident and Place of Abode definitions
Washington DC Tax filing FAQ
Answer: If you were a resident in DC (legally defined as living more than 50% of the tax year in DC), you are legally required to file your taxes in DC, regardless of you owning property in NY. At that point, the house in NY is considered an asset, not as a residence.
edit: but agreed with quid, you should talk to a tax accountant.


How do I get proper exposure when photographing white subjects?

Question: When spot metering white subjects (e.g. snow, white birds), do I adjust the EV on my camera + or - to get a proper exposure? I'm getting conflicting info.
Answer: If you are spot metering the brightest points, you are telling the camera to put that in the medium exposure, and everything else will end up below it, except for brighter highlights, so will want to EC it up, so you are telling it that this is the bright area of the scene.
It is when you have snow all over and meter on a darker subject, you might want to do -2 EC to get the shades in the snow, or all the snow will be clipped.
Answer: When spot metering on a white area you should set your EC to approx +2 (or, in manual mode, get the meter to show about +2)
This is obvious when you think about it in manual mode - white is brighter than 18% so the meter should show the scene it too bright.
Or, another way to think about it, without EC snow will be medium gray, you want to tell the camera to make the picture brighter to get the snow back to white.
I blogged about this same time ago here
Answer: An example shot where zero exposure compensation worked out best.

Olympus compact camera, 1/125 sec, f/3.5, ISO 200, flash -1.0, exp.comp 0.0
My learning experience from taking this shot tells me I should have flooded the cats with light, and not even try it in the dim like I did. The problem is the black cat, really. Exposure to the white one would render the black cat just plain black without any texture.
So when you hear conflicting info about exposure compensation for white subjects, it may be related to each photographer having different experience in this matter. Generally I agree with Nir, but I would not blindly set +2 exp.correction and then wonder what else is wrong with the setup.
Comment: Well, without knowing the exact metering area and algorithm… black and white average to some grey :)
Answer: White/black, bright/dark, same thing to the camera.
If shooting in Manual, I'll use the spot metering mode to meter a bright part of the scene, and check it's more than +1 (or 2 as other have said), then i'll meter on the darkest part and ensure that's negative enough.
Then I have a rough idea that it's all covered-for and take the photo.
Otherwise, if you're out in the day light and it's really bright it will be difficult to tell whether something is bright/dark enough by viewing the LCD screen. In this scenario, I have three choices:
1. Sunny 16 rule.
2. Give up and let evaluative metering take care of it.
3. Assume you'll post process and take a photo right before clipping. Ie, take photos until you have the highlight warning going off, then take it a notch darker.
4. Meter the bright and dark areas with spot to figure out your + and -'s, then check with the histogram that it looks reasonably correct to the distribution of brightness in the scene.
In the snow, I use #3 and postprocess. Snow is difficult, esp cos you've got goggles on, high reflection, etc. Only the blinking highlight alert and histogram is really useful.
Out and about I use #4 and/or #1
If the scene is changing wildly I use #2.
Answer: As the other answers say, it depends on what you're metering.  What you want is for the white areas to look white: not so bright that they clip, but not so dark that they look gray either.
Thus, if you're spot metering on the white object itself, you should adjust the exposure up to make it look white, not medium gray.  However, if you're metering on a dark object on a white background, you want to adjust the exposure down to keep the white background from burning out.  And if you're using a large enough spot size to catch both white and dark areas in the measurement, you may even find that ±0 EC works best.
In practice, especially when shooting fast-moving targets on a bright white background (like, say, kids playing in snow), my experience has been relying on the camera's automatic metering is a total crap shoot: you can't predict how much of the metering area will be snow, and thus you can't tell in advance how to compensate for it.
So my advice, in that situation, is to shoot in full manual mode and just take a few test shots to get the exposure right.  (The histogram is helpful here: typically, you'll have two peaks, an upper one for snow and a lower one for everything else.  Make sure the upper peak is close to the top of the range, but leave some margin above it so that it won't clip.)  Obviously, that's harder if you're shooting on film than with digital; in that case, you'll just have to learn to estimate the correct exposure in advance.
Also note that, especially with digital cameras, it's a lot easier to brighten underexposed pictures than to try to fix blown highlights.  So, if in doubt, err on the low side.


Changing a White Background to...?

Question: I am in the process of creating a website. Currently the website has a solid white background with black text. However, on different monitors the white background can be blinding bright. I have attempted to changed the background to a more off-white color but it still can be bright.  What are some techniques or ideas that are considered good UX design to help minimize this blinding white screen but not having a dark or black background with white text?
Comment: A huge amount of the internet has a white background -- most news sites, Google, Facebook, on and on... not to mention applications like most email apps, word processors, etc.  I'd imagine if the user has their monitor set to blinding bright it's cause they like it (or maybe even need it for some kind of sight deficiency).
Comment: I prefer pure white background over off white for aesthetic reasons and often use a foreground color between #333333 and #444444 and find that has good readability. You should play around trying various color combinations and check it a contrast checker like http://www.checkmycolours.com/ to keep it readable.
Answer: It's the contrast between your background and foreground colours that matters.  So most things that will reduce this contrast while still having the text readable will help.
Personally, I like having an off-while subtle texture as the background and dark grey text for the foreground.  This is still readable and easy on the eyes.
Comment: @Lynda take a look at http://subtlepatterns.com/
Comment: Do you have any examples you may provide for an off-white subtle texture background?
Answer: I agree with JohnGB, the contrast between your foreground and background will determine the legibility of your website.
However, your question seems more of a monitor problem than a specific UX question. All monitors are different and users have different levels of tolerance of the brightness set on their screens.
For example, UX StackExchange is mostly white with blue/black text. I have no problems reading it on my monitors with the brightness set to max.
So I wouldn't make these changes because "you" think it's too bright on "your" monitor. I would do some research on similar sites or conduct some tests with your audience to determine that.
Answer: It's not just a matter of the monitor, but also a matter of the eyes of the person. What is  blinding bright for someone can be fine for someone else. I'd say that if something can be " blinding bright" for some people, better avoid it.

Changing a White Background to...?