Would it be possible to find a Derivation path for a public TZ1 address

Question: I can not find my original Ledger Derivation Path that i used. I have tried all combinations that are known to be the default values of Tezbox:
 44'/1729'/0'/0'
 44'/1729'
 44'/1729'/0'/1'
etc.
None display my current public address.
Comment: We have noticed an edit which adds extra info into the post and it is large (from user @tndnz who is not you). The edit has been rejected. If you own the account that suggested that edit, then please don't do this again. Instead, edit your posts with your actual account, so that you can avoid confusions.

Dark Peta: Are you user tndnz ?
Answer: Assuming your PKH is a tz1* address, we would know 2/3 parts of how this address was derived, the only part missing would be your derivation path.
1 - seed phrase of the ledger device (assumed known via Ledger device ownership)
2 - tz1* = ed25519 signing curve
3 - Derivation Path
As noted on this question and yours, TezBox defaults to 44'/1729'/0'/0'. Since you've mentioned that derivation path and the next increment of /0'/1' do not generate your PKH, the next steps I would take are:
1 - Confirm that you are absolutely sure you have the device and signing curve correct
2a - Run tezos-client list connected ledgers when Tezos Wallet is open on the device, then run the first import command it provides - tezos-client import secret key ledger_yourstruly "ledger://adjective-animal-adjective-animal/ed25519/0'/0'", and then increment the derivation path and keep trying a reasonable number of combinations.
2b - You should also check the root path - tezos-client import secret key ledger_yourstruly "ledger://adjective-animal-adjective-animal/ed25519/"
Best of luck!


Does Ask Ubuntu have voice chat, and if not are there any plans for it?

Question: I think voice chat would be a valuable feature at Ask Ubuntu. Obviously some individuals cannot ask a question correctly when it comes to typing it because I see it said by other users all the time. Maybe if they could just ask the question out loud it would be easier for both parties involved. Also a person wouldn't have to see so many cry about how a question is asked.
Comment: No, the problem is two-fold:  (1) We are not technical support, we aren't paid, we don't have a live support option, we are just all volunteers.  (2) The SE service has not provided infrastructure for Voice Chat, and I don't think they'd want to handle that as Voice Chat is its own beast of a system and integrating it here would be very difficult and painful.
Comment: Hey, weren't you the user who got pissed off when Melebius tried to explain how the site works to you? That definitely gave off cold and indifferent connotations.
Comment: Further, it's less 'crying about it' and more a generic 'thoughts about the idea'.
Comment: Two down votes already. I see some folks would rather cry about it.
Comment: Agreed. In many if not most cases the problem is two-fold.Those who do not know, and those who know, or have an idea.
Comment: The silly notion that asking the question correctly is more important than the reason behind question is arrogant, and short sighted. Obviously one who does not possess skills to ask question "correctly" needs a litatude.
Comment: I think we can all assume that as one aquires knowledge questions will be formed in a more desirable way. I ve noticed many questions that were construed improperly asked. Instead of evoking re-assurance, and asking follow up questions to gain more understanding of the problem the questioner gets rebuked for the improper question. IMO it  has cold and indifferent connotations.
Comment: It was DK Bose who did what you describe. That exchange does actually fit the scenerio I describe above though. The way I asked a question seemed to be more important than my reason for asking. Maybe it was Melebius. I don't remember. I would say go read the posts and see for yourself, but they have been edited, and his posts removed. I understand why they were removed. It's just unfortunate that anyone has to tolorate crap like that.
Answer: Ask Ubuntu is not tech support
Many sites have a live chat option where users can get instant support, from someone paid to provide this service. This isn't always voice chat; it's often text-based (and I prefer that because information written down is easier to copy and refer to, but others will prefer voice chat for various good reasons). What's special is that it's live. Someone has to be on call to provide it.
That's the main issue with your suggestion; nobody gets paid here. I can't imagine anyone wanting to tie themselves to a headset to provide live tech support for free. Of course, we like to help the person who asks. Helping people feels really good. But I think what motivates many people to contribute here, aside from the gameification aspects of the site, is that we are creating something that survives, we are publishing work that helps many people now and in the future, not just one person today.
Ask Ubuntu is not a tech support service:

Ask Ubuntu is a question and answer site for Ubuntu users and developers. It's built and run by you as part of the Stack Exchange network of Q&A sites. With your help, we're working together to build a library of detailed answers to every question about Ubuntu.

Well, maybe a bit...
This said, we do have text-based chat. For example here's the Ask Ubuntu General Room. It's used for socialising, silliness and occasionally site-related discussion. Often, people come in and ask for help and get what I call "tech support". That's not really what the main chat is for imho, and it's nice if long tech support exchanges move to one-on-one chat rooms, or turn into a valuable question on the site, but often, someone in the room with nothing much else to do knows how to help the person who wants help, or anyway has suggestions, and tech support happens. The entire chat history remains available as a "transcript" for anyone who might benefit from reading it in some way.
One of the problems with voice chat that isn't a problem with text chat would be that very often tech support questions require the exchange of information, like log file contents, output of commands, lines of code, which does not lend itself to being spoken. It might be many lines long, or require every character be exactly correct, or have special characters whose names are not standardised... Also, very very often, replies to a question brought up in chat, or part of them, are links to questions on the site (folks have been working on this Q&A library for a while now).
How can we help users who struggle to interact with text?
You're bringing up an accessibility issue and all such issues deserve attention. You talk about users not being able to type their questions well. I'd say 95% of the time issues with the phrasing or formatting of a post can be fixed by editing. When what a user has written is not understandable and so cannot be fixed by editing, the reason is very likely that they don't know English well enough to write it clearly, and/or they used a translation service, and wouldn't be able to speak English either, and so wouldn't benefit from a voice chat, unless they could chat with someone who speaks one of the languages they do know well. I guess the Englishness of SE is its biggest access issue, but at the moment, the only thing I can think of to help this is to write posts in machine-translatable language.
I know well that there are people who know English and could benefit from information here but who can't read or write easily, because I work with people like that. Fortunately, text-to-speech and speech-to-text technology is getting better and more widespread all the time. Writing posts in a way that aids accessibility is important. Including descriptive alt text and writing in clear language helps.


Which galaxies can we photograph with a DSLR and a telephoto lens?

Question: I see a lot of photos of the milky way by photographers using wide angle lenses. I'm wondering if there are other galaxies that can be photographed by using a telephoto lens (>500mm). How do I figure out which these galaxies are? Also, can you share any tips on photographing them?
Answer: The largest galaxy (other than the Milky Way) in the sky is that of the Andromeda galaxy and is clearly visible in the night sky of the northern hemisphere with the naked eye - if you know where to look (and realize that fuzzy thing is just lots of stars).  The apparent dimensions of the galaxy is 190' x 60' (or about 3° x 1°).  To put that in context, the moon is half a degree in radius (it varies between 34.1' and 29.3').  This image shows the relative size of the moon and the Andromeda galaxy.
From What focal length lens do I need for photographing the moon? a reasonable 500mm reflex lens (it has the design of a small telescope - though some have been made that really make you wonder where the telescope or lens boundary is) will work nicely for this.  You aren't going to be at all concerned about the bokeh of a reflex lens for astrophotography.
The 500mm lens will give you a field of view of 4° (240') x 2°45' (165').  With this, the Andromeda galaxy should fill the frame.
Exposure is going to be the problem.  The photograph described at M31 describes 100 minutes of total exposure to capture it.  There are multiple problems that that describes right away.  The biggest of these is that the sky moves with respect to where you are sitting.  You need the camera to move too.  The photograph described used a polar-aligned tracking equatorial mount that was auto-guided.
You are going to want to get a tripod that looks something like this:

(from https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Maksutov-Cassegrain_Intes_M703_mounted.jpg)
With the proper setup (including a motor) the tripod's head will track a specific spot on the sky once it is set up.  You can read more about the equatorial mount at wikipedia.  This design means that the tracking of the sky requires only one degree of motion - it spins on the same axis as the sky does.
Note that this is a key thing.  Other mounts such as the altazimuth have multiple degrees of motion required to track the sky.  They work if you are looking through it with your eyeball, but they don't track cleanly (they move in steps).
Its possible to make this yourself as a baron door tracker, though it won't be as precise as one that is designed for that sort of work and precision made.
You should also look into broadband light pollution filters if you are anywhere near a city (you should go far away from it if possible given the OP's profile here is a map of light pollution in India and for comparison, a map of light pollution in the United States).  One such filter designed for telescope eyepieces: Orion SkyGlow Broadband Light Pollution Filters.  If light pollution isn't something you can get away from, consider a Hα filter which gives a narrow range of light which is much less polluted, even in cities (see this example for Andromeda in hydrogen alpha vs composite rgb).
For other objects, the best things to look for would be Messier objects and see which ones interest you.  Few will be as big (or 'bright') as the Andromeda galaxy (Messier object #31 aka M31).  M31 is the third brightest of the galaxies.  Going down a bit, the next brightest galaxy is M33 - the Triangulum Galaxy (which is only about a degree in diameter).  Other galaxies (such as M51) are only about 10' or so in diameter and you'd only get hints of their structure with a 500mm lens.
Answer: It is possible to image galaxies with telephoto lenses. I won't go into a lot of detail, as Michael has already covered most of the basics. I'll simply demonstrate what can be done with a Canon DSLR (5D III in my case) and the Canon EF 600mm f/4 L II lens. I've imaged two of the larger galaxies in the night sky, Andromeda and Triangulum:

These are readily visible from most places on earth except the most southerly. Both galaxies are within our local group. In addition to these two galaxies, the Magellanic Clouds, two dwarf galaxies in close proximity to the Milky Way, can be seen from equatorial and southern latitudes. The Magellanic Clouds are quite spectacular, but for the best view, one should be in Australia or South America (i.e. Chile).
There are a number of other local group galaxies that can be imaged with modest camera equipment. A 500mm or 600mm canon lens with a 2x TC has enough focal length to decently image objects like the Saggitarius Dwarf, or Omega Centauri (which is a gargantuan globular cluster one thought to be a part of our galaxy, but now known to be more akin to a dwarf spheroidal galaxy orbiting our galaxy.) At 1000-1200mm, you could also image a number of more distant galaxy clusters, such as the Leo Triplet, Markarian's Chain in Virgo, M101 or M51 in Ursa Major, and a host of other galaxies or galaxy clusters:
Comment: FYI - The Andromeda Galaxy  is approximately **2.3 MILLION**  light years away from earth.
Comment: ..:Dude....! .... is that andromeda picture a single shot or a stacked and/or heavily processed image?
Comment: Nice pictures, but I wouldn't call a $8k lens *modest*. For that price, you can buy a nice reflector telescope and have more light gathering capability (shorter exposures).


Additional meanings of 'se'

Question: The sentence "Scusa se non mi sono fatta più sentire" means, as I understand it: "Sorry if I didn't get in touch with you anymore". Or is there a better translation? Anyway, what seems strange to me is the "if". It's somehow the same as "I am sorry in case I didn't get in touch with you anymore". But I know if I got in touch with the person or not, it's not that I need to say "if thats the case I am sorry". So basically "Sorry I didn't get in touch with you" or in Italian "Scusa non mi sono fatta più sentire". I asked an Italian native and she told me this sounds wrong/like a foreigner. I then asked if "Scusa che non mi sono fatta più sentire" is better and she meant it also doesn't sound quite right, but she couldn't explain me the details. So question to you: Do I need the "se" in the sentence? Why? Is there maybe another meaning of "se" that actually fits better? I am native German by the way and maybe it just seems strange to me because I wouldn't say it that way in my language.
Comment: If your Italian is sufficient, you may see that among the different uses of *[se](http://www.treccani.it/vocabolario/se2/)* registered by Treccani dictionary, 1.c register a causal or temporal one, almost as if it meant *since*. (And by the way, in Germanic languages too the two meanings blend somewhat, if German *wenn*, cognate to English "when", means both "when" and "if".)
Comment: According to Maria Cristina Peccianti in her *Grammatica italiana per stranieri*, the conjunction "se" has also a causal function, that is, it introduces the motive, the reason or the cause of the principal clause. In your sentence, "se" introduces the reason for asking for excuses.
Comment: This causal function of the conjunction "se" is also explained in the [Treccani dictionary entry](http://www.treccani.it/vocabolario/se2/) mentioned by @DaG.
Comment: You can say *(ti chiedo) scusa per non essermi fatta più sentire*, which maybe makes the causal meaning clearer. *Se* is the usual conjunction, though: the *per* makes it sound more formal and detached.
Answer:
what seems strange to me is the "if". It's somehow the same as "I am sorry in case I didn't get in touch with you anymore".

I agree with you, that seems a bit strange to me as well (and I am Italian). However, se also as a causal function as outlined in the comments to your question. Let me add this could also be used in an "angry" way to reply to one person if you are fed up with their request. Example:

Scusa se quel giorno lavoro!

This literally means «sorry that I work on that day» but it can be read as «Oh come on, you know that I have to work and I can't go out with you, then why are you mad at me and acting like you are offended»... well, you get the idea. :)
Now, regarding whether you must use se or not:

I then asked if "Scusa che non mi sono fatta più sentire" is better and she meant it also doesn't sound quite right

That is indeed incorrect, however children or people who do not have a very good education level make this error quite often. You would still be understood.

Do I need the "se" in the sentence?

You can use the following form:

Scusa per non essermi fatta più sentire.

As a side note, you can also invert the order of fatta and più.
Comment: I'd just add this: to me if you say "scusa se non mi sono fatto più sentire" you sound nicer than you would if you said "scusa, non mi sono fatto più sentire" or "Scusa per non essermi fatto più sentire". Actually what will always come next is: "scusa se non mi sono fatto sentire, MA...." and some excuses / real reasons after that ;)

Additional meanings of 'se'


How does the throttle position affect the speed of airflow to the engine?

Question: It is said that the less we open the throttle the slower is the speed in Venturi tube, thus less reduction in pressure and less fuel is being sucked from float chamber, however, actually if we reduce the area of the tube by closing throttle ,according to Bernoulli theorem, the speed of air in the same tube should increase, shouldn't it?
Answer: That's because it's not the restriction created by the throttle plate itself, that you see as manifold pressure (or vacuum), that is creating the suction that pulls fuel from the carburetor float bowl.  It's the restriction of the venturi, where the main discharge nozzle is, which is upstream of the throttle plate.  Since it's in in the upstream flow, the suction created at the venturi, being a fixed cross section, is a function of air velocity entering the carburetor, which is a function of throttle opening and engine speed.
In other words, the fuel metering system at the venturi doesn't care about the pressure differential created by the throttle plate farther down, it only cares about the velocity of the total mass flow that engine is able to pull past the venturi upstream of the throttle.
Open the throttle, the velocity of the air going through the venturi goes up, the suction generated by the venturi increases, and more fuel is pulled into the discharge nozzle.  And vice versa.
Comment: Important to note the SOURCE of the vacuum is towards the top of the diagram above the throttle plate where the pistons are pulling fuel/air into  the cylinders through the intake manifold.  When the throttle plate is more closed, vacuum in fuel spray area is less, and less fuel/air mixture gets into the engine.  Computer controlled fuel injection has replaced this design in cars.  However, it is entirely mechanical and reliable in the absence of icing.
Answer:
(enginehistory.org)
In the above example of an aircraft throttle, if the throttle is closed, there will be a pressure build up below it (the far side of the engine), which will in turn suck less fuel into the mixture (low pressure differential).
If it is open, the air will flow fast, pressure will drop due to the Bernoulli principle, and more fuel will join the air.


Where did the "art" in "Our Father who art in Heaven" go?

Question: What happened to the art in "Our Father who art in Heaven"?  And why is it art, and not is?
Answer: Art was the second person singular form of the verb "to be" in older versions of English.  Over the centuries, it eventually became are (along with the disappearance of the -st suffix across all 2nd person singular verb forms).  Is, on the other hand, would be the 3rd person singular form.
The reason are is used instead of is is because the prayer is speaking directly to "Our Father": i.e. "You, who are in Heaven".
Answer: It's also worth nothing that art is the second person informal. Because it sounds archaic and harks back to an era of more explicitly marked respect, this form is often mistaken for the formal. It may also surprise some that God is addressed informally, but this is true of other languages as well (cf. Spanish "Padre nuestro que estás en los cielos").
Answer: As far as what happened to it (i.e., why some churches use it and some do not) the Lord's Prayer is generally considered to be Matthew 6:9–13 (Luke has a differing version).  As it is a Biblical excerpt, as churches adopt new translations as canon the canonical Lord's Prayer for that church changes.


Can I mail bottles for homebrew contests?

Question: I was wondering if it is possible to  mail bottles to bjcp/ aha homebrew contest. I live in a place where there are not any contest within 300 miles and do not want to take work off to enter them. Is it possible to m
Comment: Depends on the country. In the US, USPS won't ship alcohol unless you have a license like liquor stores do.
Answer: No one is allowed to willingly ship alcoholic beverages across state lines in the US.  However, UPS and Fedex do a fine job shipping as long as you don't walk in screaming HEY I'M SHIPPING BEER!
When they ask whats in there I say glass breakables.  If they probe deeper, I say birthday gifts.  It all works out fine.
I tend to avoid the USPS because they are a little more tighter about what's in the box.
Comment: thanks for the help, do you know if homebrew competitions accept mail in bottles?
Comment: Many (perhaps most?) competitions will accept mail-in entries. It should be easy to tell: Does the competition's information give a mailing/shipping address? If you cannot find one, ask the organizers to be sure.
Answer: Each shipper has it's guide lines.
http://www.fedex.com/us/developer/product/WebServices/MyWebHelp_Oct08/Content/WS_Developer_Guide/Alcohol_Shipping.htm
That being said.  Homebrew is shipped with UPS or FedEx, not USPS.
Start with lining the box with a plastic trash bag in case of breakage. Pack it well with 2inchs of firm packing paper in a lose wrinkled fasion around each bottle, then surround those with packing peanuts so there is at least two inches between the bottles and the box.
Label it Fragile Glass, Non-perishable Food Goods, and declair it as the same.
Comment: thanks for the help, but do homebrew competitions accept mail in aplications.
Comment: @mpkas yes, but competitions will reject entries sent via USPS. I believe recieving undocumented alcohol holds the same fine as sending it if using federal mail system USPS.
Answer: Most applications for the competition are done online these days.  When shipping your entries, here is how I do it:
First, find two boxes that nest inside each other.  Purchase a roll of bubble wrap, a box of "snack" size baggies and a good tape gun with quality packing tape.  Print your labels from the competition site when you register and cut them out. Keep your entries separate if shipping more than one entry.  Be sure to read he competition guidelines for shipping and make sure you have a good address to ship to.  To prepare your bottles for shipment, here is what I do...black out any identification markings on the cap, place your label inside the snack size baggie and seal it, fold over any excess and put a rubber band around the label.  Now tear off a length of bubble wrap about 18 inches long.  Roll each beer in the bubble wrap leaving an even amount of space on either end.  Tape the wrap in the middle, fold over the top and bottom and tape securely. Do this for each beer.  When you have them all wrapped, stack them together inside a good quality kitchen trash bag (in case one of them breaks or leaks) and seal the bag (tie it and tape it closed).  Place the bag with the bottles in the small box, placing paper or more bubble wrap around all sides (I usually save packing materials I receive from online orders in a big bag for this purpose). Be sure to place your entry sheet in with the beer before you close and seal the first box.  Put packing material on the bottom of the larger box.  Set the small box inside the larger one and put packing material (paper, bubble wrap, etc.) around all sides.  Then seal the box.  Label it with the shipping address.
I get an account with UPS and fill out the shipping label online.  This way I avoid having to explain what is inside to shipping clerks.  I put the shipping label inside a large baggie and tape around the edges. Then all you have to do is drop it off at any place that accepts UPS shipments.  All you have to do is tell them its all ready to go and just give it to them.
If you don't want to get a UPS account, then you simply take the box to a shipping center of your choice for UPS or Fedex and give it to them.  They will weigh and measure it and ask you for an address.  When they ask what's inside, I usually tell them it is "yeast samples double boxed".    When asked about insurance, I tell them "less than $100" so you don't have to pay extra.  And that's it.
It seems like a big pain, but I've never had any bottles break as far as I know.  The snack size baggie prevents your label from running or smearing when they put it in the cooler to get cold and then take it out where it may get a lot of condensation on the bottle, depending on the temperature and humidity inside the competition area.
Cheers!


lumia 535 won't share network

Question: My Lumia 535 suddenly stopped allowing other devices to connect to its hotspot....keep getting unable to join network whenever my other devices try to connect...most times they cant even detect the WiFi signal from my Lumia and when they do,they wont connect. At one point I edited the APN to manual and set network mode to ipv4 only worked for few minutes then stopped...I have also tried both soft and hard reset...nothing worked...please is there a solution?..and how do I go about getting it
Comment: This is a common bug in windows 10 mobile, by the way are you on 10?
Answer: This is a known issue even in windows 10 , can't say about the new anniversary update. There is only one way to keep the hotspot running , that is never let your phone go to sleep the screen must be always on and the hotspot setting must be opened. Don't use any other apps .
yes yes i know this is stupid but this is the only way.
and if the phone goes to sleep you must switch off both cellular and wifi then reenable them for the hotspot to work properly.
I hope this helped.

lumia 535 won't share network


What's the difference between bacon and gammon?

Question: What is the difference between Gammon and Bacon? Would it be generally reasonable to substitute the two as required?
Comment: Please clarify your definition of bacon. Perhaps with a picture?
Comment: @hobodave Bacon joint: http://www.flickr.com/photos/21309047@N00/2426000884
Comment: @hobodave And for completeness, Gammon: http://www.flickr.com/photos/raps_uk_ltd/359391671/
Answer: I did my internship for culinary school in London, and if I recall correctly from what I saw in the markets there, what you call Gammon would be equivalent to our Ham - both coming from the pig's rear leg.
What we call bacon is what you'd call "streaky" or "streaky bacon" which is made from the pork belly.
Streaky would be the best substitute in recipes calling for bacon.
Comment: According to Wikipedia "bacon" in the UK may refer to what we call canadian bacon. Not yet sure which Rowland is referring to since he's in the UK. Was this your experience there as well?
Comment: @hobodave:  I don't recall seeing our equivalent of "Canadian Bacon" (made from the loin). This was 16 years ago too so it's been awhile.  The terms streaky and gammon I do recall and they were the english equivalent of "bacon" and "ham" respectively.
Comment: @Hobodave & Rowland:  After referencing some of my English cookbooks and specifically "Traditional FarmHouse Fare: A Collection of Country Recipes from Farmer's Weekly" they are using the terms mentioned above with "back bacon" as the English term for American "Canadian Bacon".
Comment: @Hobodave & Rowland:  I just checked out "Anton Edelmann Creative Cuisine - Chefs secrets from the Savoy Hotel" and where he lists "streaky bacon" in two recipes he notes "US Canadian Bacon" in parenthetical notes.  However the photo of his bacon-wrapped scallops shows something closer to a dry cured ham such as prosciutto.

Here's my final suggestion on substitution:  If you're cooking it and the recipe says to cook something else (such as onions) in the rendered fat, then use Streaky Bacon.  If it's in the recipe as more of a meaty element, then back bacon or gammon should be fine.
Answer: As per:
"Both ham and gammon are cut from the leg of a pig. The meat is the same but the preparation and treatment is different. Ham and gammon are both cured meats. This means that they are treated with salt, known as brining, and other substances before being eaten.
Ham is meat that is cut from the carcass and then treated.
Gammon is meat that is cut from the carcass after the brining treatment.
Both gammons and hams might also be smoked.
Traditionally, regional variants in the process and the ingredients used would bring different flavours to the cured meats. This explains the origin of distinctive varieties such as York ham, Bayonne ham and Prague ham.
Air dried hams are also cured first but then usually eaten raw whereas brined hams are baked or boiled before serving."
Comment: For me, ham is **cooked**, cured pork, which can be cooked on the bone (most supermarket delis tend to stock some on the bone for hand-carved ham)
Comment: @Rowland Shaw: before it's cooked and sliced I'd still say ham. If you were to say "We cooked a whole ham last weekend", or "I've got the ham for christmas" I would have a picture in my head that involves starting with a raw leg on a bone and ending up with slices of ham as you would understand it.
Answer: According to my local friendly butcher, Gammon is a type of bacon that is specifically from the hind quarters.
Bacon is defined as any pork that has been cured through a process of salting, either as a dry-cure or a wet-cure where the meat is either packed in salts or brine respectively. With wet curing, other ingredients can be added to impart other flavours, such as beer or sugars.
Typically, rashers are made from the body of the pig with streaky bacon coming from the belly, and back bacon coming from, well, the back (so the same cut as a pork loin chop). Bacon joints are typically made by combining cuts of bacon from the shoulder and collar, whilst the hind quarters are sold as gammon with a premium on price.
Traditionally ham referred to cooked gammon, although in modern uses, it is often extended to include other cooked bacon joints, which include moulded meats made from combining cuts together with other additives to help bind them.
Answer: Well bacon is a very generic term. You might want to clarify which you're referring to.
In America 'bacon' comes from the belly of the pig. Whereas, according to Wikipedia bacon in the UK typically comes from the back of the pig (we call this canadian bacon). Either way these are usually dry-cured.
Gammon cuts come from the hind legs of the pig. It is typically wet-cured.
Update: Based on your images above, yes gammon can be used as a substitute for back bacon.
Answer: Bacon
In England good bacon is dry salted, (without sugar) and is mostly cut from the back and side of the pig and has a 'pork chop' appearance, with an eye (tenderloin), and muscle streaks and fat attached to the tail end (side of the ribs).
It is called a rasher, often has the skin attached, and can be either 'green' (unsmoked) or smoked (never hot smoked like in N. America).
It may be cooked to a crisp, or just till it turns opaque. Depends on taste.
There are many regional varieties, with Wiltshire and Danish being premium varieties. In Scotland, Ayrshire bacon is excellent and the rasher is rolled so the bacon rasher has a round appearance. Good bacon and gammon does not ooze white stuff, nor does it shrink much when it is fried.
Gammon
Gammon is always cut thicker and is composed mostly of meat like a ham slice. It also tastes different. From my understanding it is usually made from salted leg meat.

You can find photos of 'English bacon rasher' and 'gammon rasher' on the web if you include UK in the search. If you haven't tasted this kind of bacon you can get an idea of the British bacon taste by salting a piece of pork belly in the fridge (it really needs fat to be delicious). Just leave out the sugar and spice. There are recipes on the web. You may never go back to the water soaked meat in a plastic bag that is sold as bacon in supermarkets.
Answer: Peameal Bacon is commonly known as Canadian Bacon, it comes from the loin is cured and rolled in cornmeal. Streaky Bacon is also often referred to as Canadian Bacon, comes from the belly, cured and then smoked.


clone sharepoint enviroments?

Question: We are under process of clone on QA environments to new environments. machines and urls will changes. How we can configure these changes in central admin level in new environment?
Please advice me.
Comment: which sharepoint version?
Comment: SharePoint 2007 and MOSS SP1
Answer: Short of buying a 3-rd party tool, your best bet is to do a backup-and-restore into the new environment. It's not easy to keep them in sync after that, so you'll want to develop and enforce some kind of workflow that requires the new stuff going through your qa env.  Here's a great article about using CA for backup-and-restore in various scenarios>
http://blah.winsmarts.com/2007-10-Backup_and_Restore_Strategies_in_MOSS_2007.aspx
Answer: I recommend going about it differently. You can put all your customizations into a SharePoint Solution in Visual Studio, setup a separate brand new SharePoint Server, then Deploy all your Customizations to the new Environment using WSP Installer / Deployment. If you try to clone an existing environment you will spend a lot of unnecessary time trying to reconfigure the old environment to work on the new Server, and it will be an ongoing recurring headache to try and keep them in sync that way.
If you setup your solution correctly, you should be able to include all your changes that way easily, which will then allow you to install updates to the second environment with one Power Shell Command and you are done!
Answer: I maintain pre-production and development environments that are as close to a mirror of production as possible.  With this setup, I use one forest per pre-production environment in order to be able to reuse hostnames for Web Applications.
http://sharepoint.nauplius.net/p/sharepoint-test-environments.html

clone sharepoint enviroments?


Could I make this dark and eerie world possible?

Question: The inspiration came from the music in the title sequence of the film Alien. The idea is a planet that humans have colonized where it's almost always drizzling slightly.  It's always dark but there is a visible sun and it can sustain life. The sun would be small and a bluish tint. How could this be possible?
Comment: Sounds like the UK!
Answer: You need smoke.
Or dust, or volcanic ash.  The haze will make it dark and gloomy and if you do it right, the suspended particles will make the sun seem small and blue via the Rayleigh effect .

Photo by Jan Smith: Blue sun during Brisbane dust storm
https://volcanocafe.wordpress.com/2015/01/24/once-in-a-blue-moon/

Particles of size around 1 micron affect red light more than blue.
  This unusual situation makes the Moon or Sun appear bluer. It would
  not be notable against a blue sky, but in such conditions the sky will
  become greyish (and perhaps even red): the contrast between the sky
  and Sun makes the Sun appear blue. It is magnified by the tendency of
  the human eye to assign colours in contrast. Photographs (this one
  from Brisbane, 2009) of the effect tend not to be show it as well, but
  the effect is marked to the eye. It only works if the particles are of
  quite uniform size: mix grains of sizes which are different by more
  than 50% and the effect goes away.
Comment: @Khris - thinking more, it could be done. Dust can get really high up and the effect to darken the sky and blue the sun will work regardless of altitude.  If dust was at very high altitudes - from a Krakotoa-like eruption or an asteroid impact - the weather would be underneath it.  Blue sun is the tricky part.  It does not take much worldbuilding  to have a place w gloomy weather all the time; visit Portland.
Comment: That's a dry haze though, no drizzle.
Comment: @Khris - I think it needs to be dry.  I think water would wet the particles and make them larger than 1 micron.
Comment: True, if you don't want to make the sun blue to begin with you have to think of some more elaborate tricks.
Answer: First, if there are always clouds all over the planet but it should still be warm enough to sustain life you need a stronger sun. Make it a hot blue star so you automatically get your blue color even without Rayleigh effect. Move the planet further away from the star to make it appear smaller.
Usually on earth if your clouds let the sun shine through they're not thick enough to produce precipitation, e.g. Altostratus translucidus.
Instead the only clouds that produce rain are Cumulonimbus clouds which are out of question for your scenario and Nimbostratus clouds.
You want the latter, you want a layer of thick dark clouds which constantly produce light precipitation. If your central star now is much stronger than the sun it's entirely possible that it still shines through those dark clouds. Also a cloud layer that procudes only drizzle is usually not that thick, maybe 1-2 km.
That kind of scenario means that the star's radiation is so strong that life can only thrive because of the clouds, otherwise it would be a dead planet. That means essentially that there is a strong capping inversion in the atmosphere above your cloud layer that traps the clouds and moisture below while above there are hot and hostile conditions.
Given that in clouds with bigger particles forward (Mie) scattering dominates you can have dark clouds with a bright star. If you had an open sky Rayleigh-scattering would dominate and you had lots of light coming from the whole hemisphere.
Comment: "if there are always clouds all over the planet but it should still be warm enough to sustain life you need a stronger sun" - just a question, would the continuous sun over millions of years not just heat up the clouds to the point that they warm the planet enough by themselves, without needing a stronger sun? (Also perhaps having a sort of greenhouse effect akin to Venus)
Comment: Clouds are a complicated thing. They have a cooling effect since they reflect solar radiation back into space but they also have a warming effect since they absorb and emit thermal radiation. They surely get heated from above, but heating clouds would mean to increase their evaporation which is another problem, the clouds in this scenario need to be replenished with moisture since at the top they'll for sure lose some of it, otherwise they'll slowly vanish. To go deeper into this a whole atmosphere had to be constructed carefully.
Answer: Yes it should be possible. If life developed on that world then it would be adapted to those conditions.
Life quite possibly started without the need for sunlight at all, we have life on Earth that doesn't get it's energy from the sun.
Plant life that is dependent on sunlight is really a matter of the Photosynthetically Active Radiation, so while Earth plants wouldn't be too happy as they won't grow in just blue light, plants whose equivalent of chlorophyll does use blue light may thrive enough to build an ecosystem.
Always drizzly would require a happy equilibrium between heat retention and heat loss with large bodies of water evaporating enough moisture into the clouds to keep them going relatively well.
You're main issue would be having the whole planet weather homogeneous without areas of cold and relative hot like our equator and poles. Because this would mean your basic weather would need to be driven by the cloud cover rather than just the sun, and this would have to be very serendipitous indeed not to either go the way of Venus with rampant warming or fail at least periodically in some other way with disastrous effects. But with a fairly light atmosphere it could work. I'm thinking massive global warming on the bottom mitigated by massive heat loss on the top.


Hash rate for litecoind is way below the one I get for bitcoind, is this normal?

Question: I'm running bitcoind on an Ubuntu EC2 image in the Amazon cloud; on another identical image I'm running litecoind. I compiled both of these on the bitcoind instance. According to the getmininginfo command, my hashes per second for litecoind ranges around 300, while for bitcoind it is over 300000; 3 orders of magnitude greater. Is this normal, or have I botched something?
Comment: You might want to edit the title - it makes it sound like you're not getting any hashes in litecoin.
Comment: how to check if litecoind daemon is actually hashing? Is this the 'networkkhashps' figure in getmininginfo?
Answer: Mining in Litecoin uses a significantly different algorithmic pattern which takes substantially longer to complete a "round".
Litecoin uses scrypt while Bitcoin uses SHA256. Usually devices are measured in Khash/Mhash for Litecoin and Mhash/Ghash for Bitcoin.
The initial concept behind this is that it would be GPU proof so everyone could use their PC. GPUs can still perform substantially well.
Comment: thanks! I suppose I could have found that out with more Googling but my first tries were fruitless.


Is there any caffeine in kuding tea?

Question: Does anyone know if the bitter kuding tea (苦丁茶) contain caffeine?
Answer: I believe it depends on the source of the leaves. Kuding can be made from both a wax tree species and a holly species. I do not know about the wax tree, but teas made from holly do contain caffeine (Yerba mate, for example).
Comment: Ah good to know about the Yerba mate, but I still want to know the caffeine content in the chinese Kuding tea.
Comment: Unfortunately, I have not been able to find the amount of caffeine in this tea. I think this is partially because, like I said, it can be made from different sources (some with caffeine and some without).

Is there any caffeine in kuding tea?


What to do with tags that have multiple meanings?

Question: I was going to put a tag on this question of karl-iv. On wikipedia, it says that his name in english is Charles IV. A simple google search shows that there is also a Charles IV in Spain and France. Should we use charles-iv-france, charles-iv-spain, and charles-iv-hre?
Answer: I agree that we should specify the nation where it is necessary to avoid ambiguity. Rulers are the primary example, but it would also apply to anything else that may be ambiguous such as periods (eg. both China and Korea have three kingdoms eras) and cities (eg. Thebes in Egypt and Greece).
Answer: I think it might be more appropriate to use two separate tags in an example like this. That way if someone is looking for questions pertaining to the person, they can searrch by name, while people looking for questions pertaining to the country will also find it. I think this would allow for a broader reach when trying to find information.
The whole point is to simplify the tags as much as possible. Of course, the problem is that not everyone will intuitively recognize the need to use both the name tag and the country tag, so there is the risk that only one or the other gets used. Even so, with an active core of users monitoring each question, it wouldn't be that big a deal to get the extra tag added if necessary.


Is using encryption the only viable option to thwart password sniffing?

Question: I'm using HTTPS Everywhere on my browser to chose SSL versions of websites when available, but many sites don't offer a secure version. Is SSL the only viable option to thwart password/clear text sniffing?
Answer: If you don't want to send your data in plain text, you have to use encryption, but it doesn't always have to be SSL. For example, a site might choose to do their own encryption at the application level instead of just using SSL (though I can't imagine why anyone would ever do that >_<).
However, if a site doesn't offer this encryption, there is nothing you can do to avoid sending your data in plaintext. After all, the site is expecting it in only plain-text. You can't change that without changing what the site expects.
Comment: "though I can't imagine why anyone would ever do that" - extreme naïvety, perhaps? :)
Answer: You need to use encryption, even if it doesn't matter what kind.
There is one other (pretty useless probably) thing that you could do that comes to my mind, since you are asking if there are other options to defend yourself against password sniffing: web apps could be modified to work with password hashes instead than with plain-text passwords, as @Oleksi said. This way, at least, if you sniffed a password, you would have a bit of work to do before you can get to the plain-text password.
But of course, using encryption is better.
Comment: It *does* matter what kind. `c[n] = m[n] xor k[n mod len(k)]` where `len(k) < len(m)` is encryption, but it's practically useless.
Comment: @Polynomial sure, I should have said "it doesn't matter at which level in the ISO/OSI stack", as Oleksi pointed out.
Answer: It is theoretically possible to get password-authenticated connections without encryption. A putative protocol for that would begin with a password-authenticated key exchange (such as SRP), resulting in a shared secret, known to both client and server, but nobody else; and client and server would be mutually authenticated with regards to the knowledge of the password. The shared secret would then be used as key in a MAC algorithm, for maintaining the integrity of the subsequently exchanged data packets. And there you go: password authentication, yet no encryption, and you are still protected against online dictionary attacks: eavesdropper learn nothing about the password, not even a hashed-or-equivalent value which would allow them to test potential passwords afterwards; and this property is maintained even when faced with active attackers, even attackers who impersonate the server or the client. Such is the magic of PAKE protocols.
Of course, no encryption means that the subsequently exchanged data can be inspected by indiscreet spies; integrity is maintained, not confidentiality. This is often an issue in its own right.
(Not all problems are solved with such a protocol, though. Registration would be hard to do without leaking to outsiders at least a hashed version of the password.)
In practice, a cryptographic protocol is "viable" only insofar as it is implemented properly by all involved parties. The theoretical possibility of a cryptographic protocol which does password authentication without encryption does not change the fact that, right now, Web browsers do not implement that. Web browsers implement SSL (HTTPS). So, use SSL. It is the only reasonably secure way of handling password authentication when the client is a Web browser which exists and is widely deployed as of early 2013.


Why do policemen in Germany still carry lethal firearms instead of non-lethal ones?

Question: The death penality is abolished in Germany. Wouldn't it be prudent to also outlaw the killing of criminals in danger situations when it would be possible to stun them efficiently in the same time?
Comment: Note that there is no relationship (at least legally) between the death penalty and use of weapons by police force; even in countries with death penalty police follows the same Rules of Engagement (use weapon as self-defense or when other people are in danger), death penalty is stablished by a jury or judge (police is a law enforcement agency, sentences are issued by judges or juries)
Comment: It is odd enough that they have to pay the bullet-proof vests by themselves, don't let them become even more rediculous. There are enough shootings e.g. in Berlin. The defence of themselves and others includes killing if it is the best way to eliminate a threat in that moment. Policemen in Germany often do not even dare to shoot because they know they will be charged if the case isn't 100% clear. Quite the opposite to the US if I look at the news.
Answer: The difference is that when someone is arrested, tried and convicted, the convict poses no danger to society anymore. So, not having the death penalty saves lives (note that studies have shown that there is no deterrence effect from having the death; murder rates are not lowered by virtue of having the death penalty).
In case of a situation where a gunman poses an imminent risk to people, the situation is different, eliminating the risk posed to the people takes priority over saving the life of the gunman. However, even in such a situation, the police will still try to resolve the problem without having to use deadly violence.
Answer: The main reason is that "stunning them efficiently in the same time" is often not possible. The tools available to the police (pepper spray and baton) are far less efficient than firearms. They have a much shorter range and sometimes fail to incapacitate an attacker where a firearm would be successful. A police officer is only supposed to use deadly force when the life of the officer or of a civilian is in danger. In that case it is a case of self-defense (which is the right of every citizen when their life is threatened), not a government-sanctioned execution.
There are discussions in some federal states to equip police officers with electric shock weapons (aka "tasers") to "close the gap between baton, pepper spray and handgun".
Proponents of this say that this could reduce the number of deadly use of firearms by giving police officers an alternative way to incapacitate a dangerous attacker.
Opponents point out that in countries where police officers are already equipped with electric shock weapons, officers frequently abuse them by causing unnecessary pain to suspects which could be subdued in other ways (not necessarily representative example: the "don't tase me, bro!" incident at the University of Florida in 2007) and even for torture. This kind of police brutality is hard to prosecute because electric shock weapons rarely leave lasting marks. Also, electric shock weapons can endanger the life of suspects with heart conditions, in these cases, they are not as harmless as expected (Amnesty International claims US law enforcement officers killed over 500 people with them between 2001 and 2012).
Answer: In countries where the police are armed, the police normally want to retain their guns, as it offers leverage when facing violent criminals.
In countries where the police are not routinely armed, the police normally want to stay unarmed, as it is felt that carrying guns will lead to more criminals also carrying firearms.
There seems to be a resistance to change. Both styles of policing can be effective.
Answer: Your premise is wrong. Police officers are already trained to use non-lethal force whenever possible. However, there are still situations where less violent options are far more likely to endanger the officers or civilians and thus using a gun is the prudent option, which for that reason is not being outlawed. That being said, also note that using a gun isn't necessarily a death sentence - it depends again on the situation whether a warning shot, a shot to cripple an attacker rather than fully incapacitate (likely kill) him/her is the best option.
However, whether all officers need to carry a gun is a viable question, some countries seem to fare well with having only special forces carrying guns.
Answer: Police carry weapons in order to compel compliance from potentially hostile people, and to protect themselves.
They don't carry it to disburse mini-punishments to the unlawful or unruly, so the context of what the laws have as punishment for conviction should not be relevant.  The police are only supposed to use lethal force to protect themselves or other citizens from a life-threatening situation.  It's considered that erring on potentially using too much force and killing the person who has made themselves a lethal threat is preferable to erring on being too gentle and the police or an innocent bystander getting killed by a perpetrator.


Does a parabolic trajectory really exist in nature?

Question: It seems it is very difficult to have e=1 perfectly in nature. The final state (being captured or running away) of a celestial body with a parabolic trajectory,
is determined by minor perturbation?
Comment: @jamesqf You're probably thinking of the result from introductory physics courses that objects under constant acceleration follow a parabolic trajectory. When dealing with, say, a baseball thrown across a baseball field, gravity is nearly constant. However, in astronomical mechanics, gravity can't be considered constant. And if the Earth were a point source of gravity, so that the baseball's trajectory weren't terminated by colliding with the ground, the parabolic trajectory would be a small scale approximation to the overall orbit, which would be elliptical.
Comment: Would not a projectile launched from an airless body at less than escape velocity follow a parabolic trajectory?  Neglecting perturbations from other bodies, and inhomogenieties in the bodies themselves, of course.
Comment: No, elliptical, but the ellipse would intersect with the surface, and if the velocity is much less then escape, then that very thin ellipse is well approximated by a parabola.
Comment: OP: "Perfect" with what margin of error? If something were following what should be a parabolic path but there were a single excess massive particle in some direction in the visible universe then the path would no longer be parabolic... even if in practice measuring the deviation was impractical or even theoretically impossible.
Comment: I don't even understand this question?
Comment: Nice question but you could also ask about the simpler case of circular orbits with $e = 0$.
Answer: No, but nor do elliptical or hyperbolic trajectories.  These are features of a model we have for gravity, not part of nature.
The modelling process involves constructing a mathematical framework that describes a natural system and allows for predictions. It is often said that "no models are correct, but some models are useful".  For gravity, one common model is the Newtonian model.  In the Newtonian model, you can set up two particles in such a way that one follows a parabolic curve (in some inertial frame) Parabolic trajectories exist in the Newtonian model.
In nature, there are more than two particles in the universe and so there are no parabolic, elliptical nor hyperbolic trajectories.  Moreover, the Newtonian model is known to only approximate gravity (even General Relativity is probably an approximation, gravity is probably some kind of quantum interaction. But the details are not yet known)
Nevertheless.  The Newtonian model is a very useful model for solar system dynamics.  Long-period comets, falling from the distant Oort cloud, will have orbits that are very long and are well approximated by parabolas. (but only approximated, as comets, in particular, have significant non-gravitational accelerations due to reaction forces from outgassing, in addition to gravitational perturbations of the planets, and effects from the non-spherical shape of the sun)
Comment: The analogy is a bit off because whilst Newtonian 2-body applies to many systems with _asymptotic accuracy_ (in a _limit_ of extreme mass and/or scale relations), parabolic orbits are a _boundary_ case. A randomly picked 3-body configuration has a decent likelyhood of being well approximated by a superposition of elliptical and hyperbolic trajectories, whereas actual 2-body systems have vanishingly small likelihood of parabolic behaviour.
Comment: I did! — The point is, though both hyperbolic/elliptic strictly speaking "don't exist in reality" any more than parabolic, good approximations of these are actually extremely common in reality, whereas parabolic trajectories can only be approximated by unlikely coincidence (or intelligent planning).
Comment: I think I'll leave my answer as is. Parabolic trajectories do exist in a newtonian model, they don't exist in reality. I think that is the main difference, but feel free to upvote uhoh's answer that makes exactly this point.
Comment: "Long-period comets, falling from the distant Oort cloud, will have orbits that are very long and are well approximated by parabolas." Are parabolas a better approximation than hyperboles?
Comment: Are hyperbolas a better approximation than parabolas (for an orbit with e = 1.00+-0.01)
Comment: But the Newtonian model fails for Mercury, it took General Relativity to account for the error
Answer:
Does a parabolic trajectory really exist in nature?

This is a great question! But let's ask two simpler questions first, then move back to yours.

Do Keplerian orbits (circular, elliptical, parabolic, hyperbolic) exist in nature?
If they did, what fraction would be parabolic?

The answer to #1 is no. If there were only two spherical objects in the universe, each would be affected only by the other. In that case their trajectory would be Keplerian.
The answer to #2 is zero, and that's for the reason you suspected; eccentricity would have to be exactly unity, and for any finite number of eccentricities that can occur, there's no finite probability that any exact value would come up. There's be zero chance of an eccentricity of 0, 0.5 1, 2 or any specific number.
But to your question about a population of real-world orbits, Those that have eccentricities of say 0.01 to 0.99 we can safely call them elliptical, because in the short run at least they will not be affected by the gravity of other solar system objects enough to push them into exactly zero, or to and beyond 1.
For orbits so close to the hairy edge like an eccentricity of 0.99999999, or 1.00000001, we might call them "parabolic" sometimes, but in those cases we would have an understanding that there is no such thing as an exactly parabolic orbit and that the obit may easily change between bound and unbound states due to a weak perturbing force by another body.
Comment: consider the several discarded boosters that temporarily change from a solar orbot to captured in earth orbit, then change back to solar later. Perturbing bodies can switch binding easily.
Comment: I understand there are no perfect Keplerian orbits, but  e>0.99&& e<1.01 should happen.  A change between bound and unbound states is widespread? Do you have examples?
Comment: A hypothetical example might be a rogue asteroid entering the solar system slightly unbound and through multi-body interactions with one or more larger planets become slightly bound to the Sun and enter a highly eccentric elliptical orbit. As I discuss in the answer, assigning Keplerian labels to orbits when there's more than two bodies in the universe is always approximate, but it could spend some time slightly bound to the Sun before getting kicked again by Jupiter or somebody else, either to an unbound or a more strongly bound orbit. Stuff happens even when we're not looking.
Comment: @questionhang No and no need for any. The answer cites "orbits so close to the hairy edge like an eccentricity of 0.99999999, or 1.00000001" as a case when someone *might* apply the term parabolic with the understanding that it might be elliptical or might be hyperbolic, and being so close, that could change. I don't think any astronomer would ever officially label an orbit as parabolic, but if that has ever happened, it would probably be a case like this.
Answer: Short answer: Yes, orbits with a value $e=1$ certainly exist.  An object perturbed out of a bound state from $e<1$ to $e>1$ must at some time have a value of $e=1$.

Long answer: The intermediate value theorem states that for a continuous function $f$, if $f(t_1)=x_1$ and $f(t_2)=x_2$, then for any value $x$ in the interval $(x_1,x_2)$, there exists a value $t$ in the interval $(t_1,t_2)$ such that $f(t)=x$.
For real bodies, we can assume that eccentricity is a continuous function of time since position and velocity are continuous functions of time (we assume no teleportation or infinite acceleration engines).
If we apply the intermediate value theorem to the eccentricity of an orbit as it passes through a bound state at $t_1$ where eccentricity $e_1 = 0.999$ to an unbound state at $t_2$ where eccentricity $e_2=1.001$, then there must be at least one value $t$, $t_1<t<t_2$ such that the eccentricity is $1$ at time $t$.
Notes:

The above proof works for bodies perturbed out of or into a gravitationally bound state (with obligatory XKCD comic):

The resulting orbital path won't appear exactly parabolic in most coordinate systems since it will have a value of $e=1$ for an infinitely short period of time.

We can also define a coordinate system in which an orbit is perfectly parabolic using the same methods I've used here.
Comment: Oh this is interesting! Yes, an *osculating orbit* can indeed pass through $\varepsilon=1$ but the time it spends there is: $$0$$
Comment: Just because it happens in the math doesn't mean it exists in real life, as space isn't infinitely dividable.  Continuous functions are models, not reality -- just ask Zeno!
Comment: Positions don't have eccentricities.
Comment: Can we say that an instantaneous condition that is over as soon as it happens has an *existence?* I'd say no, but I suppose that's a debatable topic.
Comment: @uhoh I agree that it's a debatable topic, but I am on the other side of the debate.  The trajectory of any body can be thought of as an collection of positions and velocities in time, perhaps as the center of mass.  If none of them exist, aren't we left with no trajectory at all, and further, no existence in the universe?
Comment: @eps If "space isn't infinitely dividable", just how dividable is it? In regards to Zeno's paradox, my answer above is more akin to saying that if an arrow hits a target, it had to pass through a plane between the archer and target, with center of mass as a point on that plane at some time.
Answer: Sure. Go to the moon, and throw a rock.
When you're on a planet with no atmosphere, like the Moon, gravity can be considered as a field oriented in a constant direction, straight down, and its force is a effectively constant value in a constant direction. When this occurs, and there is no atmosphere to cause wind resistance, then the trajectory of an object thrown into space and experiencing no other forces will be parabolic in shape as it goes up and then comes back down, as long as its initial speed doesn't exceed the escape velocity of the planet, and it doesn't travel enough distance (vertically or horizontally) for the force of gravity to notably change.
Comment: Actually that's more of an ellipse (the part of which which you can see until it's intersected by the moon surface can be approximated by a parabola).
Comment: Trajectories of thrown objects are only parabolic on an infinite featureless plain.  On a spherical body, it's an ellipse, though most bodies are large enough and throws are slow enough that the easier-to-calculate parabolic approximation is usable.
Comment: @Mark Trajectories are parabolic if you disregard changes to the direction and magnitude of the gravity vector, because the thrown body covers a small enough distance in angle and distance from the center of the body.


Should there be clearer usage guidance for [ios], [iphone], [cocoa-touch], [objective-c], etc?

Question: There seems to be a confusion when asking questions of which of these tags to use. I have seen a few questions tagged with any combination of these.
Should there be some clearer guidance on when to use each of them?
Comment: How can there possibly be confusion between an operating system, a physical device, a language, and a library ?  Sure, **users tag badly** but there's no "confusion" here at all.
Answer: Part of this confusion comes from the history of the various tags. When Stack Overflow launched, the OS for the iPhone was just called iPhone OS, and there was no iPad. Development for these devices was (and still is, in many places) referred to as "iPhone development." Thus, iphone became the de facto standard tag for all development questions regarding the iPhone and iPod touch.
Apple then rebranded the iPhone OS as iOS with iOS 4.0, which made more sense given the variety of devices other than the iPhone running that same OS. It has taken a while, but ios now seems to be the most popular tag for questions about development on these devices. I've actually made a habit now of adding the iOS tag to questions just tagged as iPhone or iPad when performing other edits.
While it could apply to most questions for iOS development, objective-c is less frequently used than those others, and usually only as a supplement to them. Same is true for cocoa-touch. We could argue about what's appropriate where, but this seems to be the convention that people have established on the site. Personally, I tend to use the former when a question explicitly involves language syntax or usage, and the latter when dealing with UIKit elements.
The really problematic tags are the version-specific ones that people use (iphone-sdk-xxx and so on), because questions tagged with just those aren't anywhere near as visible as ones tagged for just iOS and iPhone. I retag those whenever I can.
Also, don't even get me started on the misuse of [xcode] everywhere.
Comment: Very clear thank you. Yes Xcode was one I missed out in the original question, and it seems to be the most mis-used of the lot. I can see [tag:iphone] and [tag:ipad] being useful in hardware-specific questions, or even questions relating to, for example, `UIPopoverController`. Between them, [tag:objective-c] for language questions (which actually aren't specific to iOS), and [tag:cocoa-touch] for framework questions, all questions should be covered. I am wondering though, is it worth the hassle to attempt to re-tag these questions?
Comment: @c.cam108 - I only tend to retag if I'm performing some sort of larger edit, or if the question is lacking the important tags and won't get the visibility it needs without them (like missing [ios] and just having one of the minor tags instead).
Comment: Have to disagree with you on this one, @BradLarson  "History of..." has nothing to do with anything.  **users tag badly** .. so what?   If these tags for an operating system, a physical device, a language, and a library had all came in to being on the same day in history - so what?  Folks would still use them "somewhat messily" (exactly as with every single tag and every single question on the site.)
Answer: If there's any confusion it's because the user doesn't understand the respective topics enough. It could be argued that that user is lacking the prerequisite knowledge required to ask questions on those topics in the first place.  I see no problem that an after-the-fact retagging couldn't fix.
If the wiki's aren't clear enough then a clarifying edit on your part would be very welcome.


Why is insider trading illegal?

Question: I feel I must first make the confession that I know very little about stocks and trading them. But when I heard the news of Raj Rajaratnam convicted and what he was convicted of (insider trading), it go me to thinking. Why is it considered illegal? Isn't using privileged information when trading stocks akin to having a "secret formula" that you keep from your competitors?
Comment: Many libertarian economists do not accept that insider trading is harmful, and don't think it should be illegal.  Some of them argue, for instance, that the Enron scandal could never have happened had insiders been able to trade on their knowledge on the empty internal dealings of the company's sham investments.   I'm not sure what to think, myself; I think one's position on this depends on how much one values the knowledge discovery ability of markets vs. the thought that ordinary people should feel safe and not exploited, so that anyone, rich or poor, might invest prudently for the future.
Comment: This has been a very interesting and enlightening discussion. I wish I could accept answers from all of you :)
Comment: @Billare, write your comment as an answer!
Comment: This question is better suited to a site like Politics, because there's no real answer other than "because a bunch of legislators decided to make it illegal".
Answer: A practical issue is that insider trading transfers wealth from most investors to the few insiders. If this were permitted, non-insiders would rarely make any money, and they'd stop investing. That would then defeat the purpose of the capital markets which is to attract capital.
A moral issue is that managers and operators of a company should act in shareholders' interests. Insider trading directly takes money from other shareholders and transfers it to the insider. It's a nasty conflict of interest (and would allow any CEO of a public company to make ton of money quickly, regardless of their job performance).
In short, shareholders and management should succeed or suffer together, so their interests are as aligned as possible and managers have the proper incentives.
Comment: "non-insiders would rarely make any money, and they'd stop investing" - exactly; the behaviour of insider trading is similar to the "rent-seeking" behaviour of monopolists or anti-competitive conspiritors.  When markets become distorted in this way then investors without these connections stop investing for fear of being ripped off and the entire economy loses to the benefit of the few.
Comment: I'd say because there's little ambiguity here - it's a way managers could screw shareholders massively and get rich in the process, and there's no legit reason to be doing it. So I'd say there's a societal interest in the threat of jail time. Financial penalties wouldn't really be effective, see 2008 financial crisis...
Comment: @HavocP "would allow any CEO of a public company to make ton of money quickly, regardless of their job performance"  Sadly, in many cases that's already true.
Comment: Managers and operators of a company should *already* be obliged by contract to act in shareholders' interests at all times. Why should this particular kind of contractual breach be criminalised, when many other kinds are not?
Comment: I think it is even more general: insiders are not only company managers or employees. As far as I know (not being a lawyer) e.g. just overhearing a stock price relevant conversation in a coffee shop without knowing the people and acting on that information would be insider trading. It seems to me to be very generally in place to guarantee the stock market is a fair playing field for everybody (well yes I know, ... this is theory we're talking here).
Comment: @user3377 for sure, it's not just managers (it could be Raj Rajaratnam even as mentioned in the question!). I do think managers, or people like Rajaratnam who are collecting leaks from managers and apparently rewarding them for it, create the big systematic problem, while random people in coffee shops would probably not be that big a deal by comparison. But for sure it's all illegal.
Answer: @sdg - If you can be flippant, I can be pedantic. Insider Trading is not illegal. Any employee of a company can be an insider, yet most of their trades are perfectly legal. What is illegal is trading on Inside Information. Such information may be available to those within a company, or those who have some contact with an employee. In fact, if I am seated at a restaurant table and hear Bill and Warren talking about a purchase they plan to make, I am in possession of inside information and risk prosecution should I purchase shares and profit.
Often, a company will have a "quiet period" before earnings reports or potential stock-price-moving-news. During this time, employees are forbidden from buying or selling shares, excluding those that would be automatically bought in their retirement accounts or ESPP.
Answer: I'm surprised at the tone of the answers to this question!
Trading with insider information is corruption and encourages fraud. As in many areas, there's an ethical line where behavior the gap between "ok" and "illegal" or unethical is thin.
The classic local government insider information example is when the local councilman finds out that a highway exit is being constructed in an area that consists mostly of farmland. Knowing this, he buys out the farmers at what they think is a premium, and turns around for 10x profit a few months later.
In that context, do you think that the councilman acting on that insider information is committing a crime or ethical lapse? Most people say yes.
Even in this case, the line is thin. If the same councilman has his finger on the pulse of growth patterns in the area, and realizes that the terrain makes a certain area a prime candiate for a highway and exit, buying up land would not be criminal -- but it would be risky as it creates a perception that he is abusing his position.
Comment: Yet oddly, members of congress can trade with inpunity when laws they are about to pass will affect their investments (e.g. the 2008 bailouts)
Answer: To be flippant: it is illegal because it is against the law; there is no considered involved, it just is.
To elaborate, part of the illusion of the stock exchange and other market-like entities is that of (apparent) fairness.
If I think a stock will go up because it is involved in a growing industry, that is generally public information.  Conversely if I have a dim view of a particular company because of its track record of product launches, that is similarly out in the open.
A secret formula is something that I invented or discovered, not (presumably) something that I stole from someone else.
To stretch that further: If I notice that Company X stock always moves with Company Y stock, that is indeed something that I have found, that I can try to profit from.  It is secret to me, but not particularly dependent upon information not available to others, just that my interpretation is better.
So trading on information in the public domain is fine, as it preserves the principal of fairness I mentioned, whereas inside knowledge breaks that principal.
Comment: +1. Altho the law is considered: it *isn't* until someone considers it and makes it so.
Answer: Capitalism works best when there is transparency.  Your secret formula for wealth in the stocks should be based on a fair and free market, as sdg said, it is your clever interpretation of the facts, not the facts themselves.  The keyword is fair.
Secrets are useful for manufacturing or production, which is only a small part of capitalism.  Even then we had to devise a system to protect ideas (patents, trademarks and copyrights) because as they succeed in the market, their secrecy goes away quickly.
Answer: Illusions of transparency. Mitigation of risk. Emotion. The system.
Short answer per sdg's post - it's the law.
Long answer which I wont get into - it's a philosophical stance. It makes people feel better. It encourages a sense of "the system really does work."
Answer: "Secret formulas" are legal, "privileged information" is not. And that may be the whole point.
People are allowed to trade stocks profitably if doing so results only from their skill. A "secret formula" (for evaluating information) is part of that skill.
But having "privileged information" is not considered skill. It is considered an unfair, illegal advantage. Because company officials (and others) with privileged information are 1) not permitted to trade stocks while that information is privileged and 2) are not allowed to share that information with others. Inevitably, some do one or the other, which is why they are prosecuted.
"Raj" took the process to new highs (or lows). He not only "dealt" in privileged information, he PAID for it. Anything from a new car or house to $500,000 a year in cash. In essence, he had a bunch of strategically placed "spies" inside or close to corporations including one on the board of Goldman Sachs, "selling out" their companies, and thereby practicing a form of corporate "treason."
Answer: It is illegal because laws are written by people, and laws of stock trade are written, in part, to make it appear "fair" and thus contribute to the willingness of the people to invest their money in that particular venue. Profiting from information on the stock market that some people have and some can't have is considered "unfair", since it presumably excludes the latter from profit-making opportunities and thus makes their trades less profitable than otherwise. Since it is universally felt so, people made laws that prohibit such behavior.
I am not aware of any research that shows beyond doubt that allowing insider trading would really ruin stock markets, but such thing would be very hard to prove. There are arguments to both sides, and the side that supports prohibiting such trade has a clear majority, so it is prohibited.
Answer: Most people are not insiders, so they support laws that pre-empt ways of defrauding them. Insider trading results in insiders making money at the outsiders' expense, as a result it is often banned in democratic countries.
Even an autocratic country has a reason to reduce insider trading. It is not hard to see that there is practically no point to trading as an outsider in a market where insider trading is common active. They would take all your money. The safe thing from you to do is withdraw from that market, and only invest in companies where you are an insider. The result is that most people will not invest in most stocks and there will be a capital shortage. This obviously grinds the economy to a halt - something most governments abhor, as a result they block insider trading to keep everything running smoothly.
Answer: Insider trading is considered illegal because it is considered fraud. This is true for both selling and buying.
Fraud on the selling side is easy to picture - insider sales are like a used car salesman who sells a car without mentioning critical issues. You knew it was flawed (about to lose value) and you then trick somebody into buying it to your benefit and their detriment.
Fraud on the buying side is trickier. Normal purchases don't require the buyer to disclose information about the property to the seller. But in insider purchases, the buyer (or whoever gave them the inside information) has a fiduciary duty to the seller, since companies and their executives owe a duty to their shareholders. Without the fiduciary duty, it's just somebody who thinks they've got a bargain buying from somebody who's willing to sell at that price. With the fiduciary duty, it's betraying a legal obligation.
Insider purchasing is the side that directly answers your question:

Isn't using privileged information when trading stocks akin to having a "secret formula" that you keep from your competitors?

Because NO, buying using privileged information when trading stocks is akin to having a secret formula that you keep from your shareholders.
Finally, some clarifications/definitions:

Various countries have various standards on insider trading - the standard is by no means universal.
Insider trading is not merely when insiders trade stocks. Insiders trade stocks all the time, and that's fine. Insider trading is when insiders trade stocks differently due to their non-public information. Most insiders trade very carefully to avoid being accused of "insider trading" - there are a variety of ways to do this, but the most common is to avoid trading anytime near a public announcement.
It is possible to make money if you know almost anything about the future of a stock for certain - even knowing that the price won't deviate is enough to make money (e.g. the iron condor strategy.)
Comment: It's outside the scope of the question, but for more information on how insider *selling* is fraudulent, I would recommend reading about implied warranties, fraud, and unconscionable conduct.

Why is insider trading illegal?


Can I fly for commercial jobs with just my temporary certificate?

Question: I just received my temporary certificate and when I called the airman registry to ask how long it would be before I received my permanent copy, they basically told me it was going to take awhile. So my question is, what can I do with the temporary? Are commercial jobs allowed? Can I apply at private companies to fly for them?
Comment: A temporary certificate has all the privileges as the permanent one.
Comment: What certificate are we talking about here?
Comment: If you have a temporary commercial cert and someone will hire you, yes, you can. What makes you think that you can't?  Assuming USA/FAA.
Answer: A temporary certificate is valid for everything that a permanent one is valid for; it's just, well, temporary.
14 CFR 61.3:

No person may serve as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil
  aircraft of the United States, unless that person:
(1) Has in the person's physical possession or readily accessible in
  the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate
  or authorization—
[...]
(iii) A temporary certificate issued under §61.17;

61.17:

A temporary pilot, flight instructor, or ground instructor certificate
  or rating is issued for up to 120 days, at which time a permanent
  certificate will be issued to a person whom the Administrator finds
  qualified under this part.

(See this question for what happens when the 120 days are up.)
As far as the FAA is concerned, your temporary certificate is no different from a permanent one. I suppose it's possible that an employer might decline to hire you until you get a permanent certificate but I think that's highly unlikely within the US (employers abroad might be a different story). I've seen people pass a CFI checkride and start instructing within a few days, for example.
Answer: A temporary certificate has the same privileges as the permanent certificate. A temporary certificate expires after 120 days.
If you temporary certificate is about to expire, you can have a new one issued on the spot at an FAA FSDO, with an appointment.  If the FSDO is not convenient, there is a way to request an extension online.
Temporary certificates are commonplace, as any pilot adding a rating will receive a temporary certificate.
Most permanent certificates have no expiration date, but common exceptions are CFI and Remote Pilot certificates.


Why are main sequence stars more massive than the Sun less dense? e.g. Vega, Spica etc

Question: Why do main sequence stars more massive than the Sun have lower densities? e.g. Vega, Spica etc.
Comment: You need to be clearer. Average densities? Core densities? Is there any source that this is typical among more massive stars, or are you just using a sample of 2?
Comment: yes, fair enough. I'm referring to average density among the most commonly cited examples of main sequence stars where I notice that volume increases much faster than mass.
Answer: Main sequence stars are defined by being hot enough in the core to fuse hydrogen, so their core is at least about 10 million K, and can get up to 20 million K for the more massive ones (because they are more luminous, so their nuclear fusion has to crank itself up a bit more).
The way they get their cores hot enough to fuse hydrogen is via gravitational contraction, but a more massive star does not need to contract as much to reach the necessary temperature.   Since it does not need to contract as much, it is at lower density.
To see the scaling approximately, use the virial theorem, which says that the energy per particle in the core (roughly set by the need for fusion) is about $GMm/R$, where $M$ is the mass of the star, and $m$ is the mass of a proton.  Expressed in terms of density $\rho$ instead of radius $R$, that's proportional to $M^{\frac{2}{3}}\rho^{\frac{1}{3}}$.  Ergo, $\rho$ drops when $M$ rises.
Comment: You might want to add that this is the average density of a star we are talking about. Density is however not distributed uniformly throughout a star but varies quite a lot from the surface (where it might be almost a vacuum) to the core.
Comment: Yes, good point.  We are taking a picture that says as you look at higher mass stars, mostly what changes is their overall scale-- larger radius, lower density, etc., but that the internal structure, like how density decreases with radius over most of the star, does not change much-- so the stars look similar, just with a different overall scale.  That's only an approximation, the structure is also changing a bit, because the outer convection zones get thinner, and the core starts to go convective instead, but those are details.
Comment: Thanks James and Ken. as mass increases fusion rate also has to increase to balance out gravitational contraction 'pressure'. For fusion rate to increase I assume core temperatures and/or densities need to increase. What then is the intuition behind average main sequence stellar density decreasing with mass?
Comment: No, there is not an increase in pressure for higher mass stars-- their pressure is actually lower.  A lot of places get that wrong.  The luminosity sets the fusion rate, not the other way around, because fusion self-regulates to match the luminosity, much moreso than the  luminosity self-regulates to match the fusion.  The density and pressure must be lower because otherwise the higher mass would lead to too high of a core temperature and too much fusion.


PHP/cURL/Fedora issues resolving hostname possibly a DNS problem?

Question: I have the following simple test script for cURL/php on a FC12/apache server that has PHP 5.3.2, cURL v7.19.7 (according to phpinfo()):
$ch = curl_init();
curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://www.google.com/');
curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_VERBOSE, true);
curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADERFUNCTION, 'read_header');
curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_WRITEFUNCTION, 'read_body');
curl_exec($ch);
if ($error = curl_error($ch)) {
    echo "Error: $error
\n";
}
function read_header($ch, $string)
{
    $length = strlen($string);
    echo "Received $length bytes
\n";
    return $length;
}

Now, if I run it through the browser it returns: "Error: Couldn't resolve host 'www.google.com'"
If I run it through my php-cgi command line on the server it returns what you would expect (sans all the BRs):
Header: HTTP/1.1 200 OK
Header: Date: Tue, 13 Jul 2010 20:08:09 GMT
Header: Expires: -1
Header: Cache-Control: private, max-age=0
Header: Content-Type: text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1
Header: Server: gws
Header: X-XSS-Protection: 1; mode=block
Header: Transfer-Encoding: chunked
Header:
Received 2507 bytes
Received 1589 bytes
Received 1362 bytes
Received 2734 bytes
Received 1690 bytes

If I change the google line to google's ip e.g. http://220.127.116.11/ then the script works through the browser as well as through the command line.
dig, ping, nslookup and general dns seem to be working fine on this machine.  I should add that DNS for this site is using a subdomain foo.ourdomain.edu and getting it's DNS from a Windows 2003 domain controller.
Answer: Edit your /etc/resolv.conf and add a DNS
nameserver 220.127.116.11

nameserver 220.127.116.11

Then:
service networking restart

And try again
First is a Google DNS and orther one from level 3
Answer: Perhaps this post will be of some help: http://curl.haxx.se/mail/lib-2008-07/0067.html


Multiple image upload

Question: i have a problem in multiple image upload, when i upload, there's only 1 image which go to the targeted directory and database. i need two images to go directory and database...any help please?
this is my form
<form action="test.php" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data">
Keywords: <input style="margin-left:35px;" type="text" name="keyword" />

Name: <input style="margin-left:60px;" type="text" name="name" />

Name2: <input style="margin-left:60px;" type="text" name="name2" />

Categorie: <input style="margin-left:40px;" type="text" name="categorie" />

Lieu: <input style="margin-left:70px;" type="text" name="lieu" />

<input type="file" name="file[]" multiple="multiple" /><input type="file"     name="file_2[]" multiple="multiple"/><input type="submit" name="submit" value="Upload" />

</form>

<?php

$connect = mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "");
$select_db = mysql_select_db("yakatrouver_test", $connect);

if(@$_POST['submit']){

$keywords = $_POST['keyword'];
$name = $_POST['name'];
$name2 = $_POST['name2'];
$categorie = $_POST['categorie'];
$lieu = $_POST['lieu'];

$file = $_FILES['file'];
$file_name = $file['name'];
$file_type = $file['type'];
$file_size = $file['size'];
$file_path = $file['tmp_name'];

$file_2 = $FILES['file_2'];
$file_name_2 = $file['name'];
$file_type_2 = $file['type'];
$file_size_2 = $file['size'];
$file_path_2 = $file['tmp_name'];

if($file_name!="" &&     ($file_type="image/jpeg"||$file_type="image/png"||$file_type="image/gif") && $file_size<=2000000)
if(move_uploaded_file ($file_path, 'pictures_uploaded/' .$file_name))

$query = mysql_query("INSERT INTO `user_input`(keyword, name,  categorie, lieu) VALUES ('$keywords', '$name', '$categorie', ' $lieu')");

$query = mysql_query("UPDATE `user_input` set image='pictures_uploaded/$file_name' WHERE `name`='$name'");
    if($query  == true)
    {
        echo "file Uploaded";

    }

}

$result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `user_input` WHERE `image`=''") or     die(mysql_error());

while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result))

?>

Comment: Well then duplicate your file copying and sql code for `$file_2`.
Comment: Use Ajax uploader jquery
Comment: Please Take a look at this link.

http://stackoverflow.com/questions/19686781/multiple-photo-upload-php
Answer: Try:-
HTML:
<input type="file" name="file[]"/>
<input type="file" name="file[]"/>
<input type="file" name="file[]"/>

PHP:
$file_count = count($_FILES['file']['name']);
for($i=0;$i<$file_count;$i++) {
   $file_name = $_FILES['file']['name'][$i];
   $file_type = $_FILES['file']['type'][$i];
   $file_size = $_FILES['file']['size'][$i];
   $file_path = $_FILES['file']['path'][$i];

if($file_name!="" &&     ($file_type="image/jpeg"||$file_type="image/png"||$file_type="image/gif") && $file_size<=2000000)
if(move_uploaded_file ($file_path, 'pictures_uploaded/' .$file_name))

$query = mysql_query("INSERT INTO `user_input`(keyword, name,  categorie, lieu) VALUES ('$keywords', '$name', '$categorie', ' $lieu')");

$query = mysql_query("UPDATE `user_input` set image='pictures_uploaded/$file_name' WHERE `name`='$name'");
   if($query  == true)
   {
    echo "file Uploaded";

   }
  }
} //close the braces accordingly, some seem to be missing in your code

I think it's self-explanatory. It's just looping through your file input array, fetching each file information and processing one at at time.
Comment: Notice: Array to string conversion in C:\xampp\htdocs\yakatrouver_test\test.php on line 50
file Uploaded

Nothing enters my database and upload folder... :(
Comment: $query = mysql_query("UPDATE `user_input` set image='pictures_uploaded/$file_name' WHERE `name`='$name'");

Multiple image upload


Cannot get StatsD and Graphite to play

Question: I've been fiddling trying to get StatsD to push information across to Graphite but am seeing the following in the graphite logs
<code>[18/Jan/2013 08:12:12] code 400, message Bad request version ('1358518363')
[18/Jan/2013 08:12:12] "stats.statsd.bad_lines_seen 0 1358518363" 400 -
</code>
The information that is pushed from StatsD looks like (taken from logs)
<code>19 Jan 00:12:12 - debug: Counters:
{ 'statsd.bad_lines_seen': 0,
  'statsd.packets_received': 0,
  'x.show.html': 0 }
Timers:
{ 'x.show.html.duration': [],
  'x.show.html.view_runtime': [],
  'x.show.html.db_runtime': [] }
Gauges:
{}
</code>
I have checked StatsD via TCP management interface and it believes that it's flushing to Graphite just fine even though every single flush seems to throw errors on Graphite's side:
<code>~$ telnet localhost 8126
Trying 127.0.0.1...
Connected to localhost.
Escape character is '^]'.
stats
uptime: 2021
messages.last_msg_seen: 2004
messages.bad_lines_seen: 0
graphite.last_flush: 1
graphite.last_exception: 2021
END
</code>
I'm not sure what I am looking for to solve this problem. At the moment I'm fiddling with config incase I missed something - my next step would be to jump into the StatsD code and find out why it thinks it's getting a 200 back instead of a 400. Any guidance would be appreciated.
Answer: Can you check whether you have configured the graphite(carbon) listening hostname and port in your statsd configuration file? The value that you have to set is:
<code>{
   graphiteHost: "127.0.0.1"
 , graphitePort: 2003
}
</code>
It is the default value for carbon

Cannot get StatsD and Graphite to play


What's the name for the style of guitar on Reggae songs

Question: I'm wondering if there's a word for the style of guitar on most Reggae songs, when they play chords on the upper strings and mute them after. I would love to know if there's a word for that, that could be used much like you would use "palm muting". For example, you could say "They [insert word I'm looking for here] on that song". Does anyone know if a word for this exists? Thanks!
Comment: If I wanted to ask someone to play like that in a band tonight, I would suggest they play it "reggae style". If they gave me a funny look, I'd describe it by saying play staccato upstrokes on the off-beat or on every other eighth note, depending on the rhythm. Probably not what you're looking for, hence the comment instead of answer.
Answer: I know it as the "skank", though other names are used (see the link).  I think it would be reasonable to say "The guitarist skanks on that song" for example.
Comment: This is the most ubiquitous word to describe it. Note in music that "skanking" also refers to a dance in ska where people join arms and kick in a circle. It also is a rather derogatory way to refer to someone outside of music. As always context is key :)
Comment: @Conor - I spent my teenage years in the Third Wave Ska Scene in the 90's, and I know all about shanking, but I never heard of it being done in a circle, nor did I see it happening. Everyone tends to face the stage.
Comment: There are several different variations of the dance - the one I described doesn't always involve a circle and is most associated with late 1990's - 2000's era ska (Reel Big Fish, Aquabats, Streetlight Manifesto, Suburban Legends, etc)
Answer: The term is "skanking" (a la the Marley song "Easy Skanking"), and it's also part of other Jamaican music, such as Ska. You are correct that it's about the high strings. When I've done it, it's been more about muting by releasing tension in the chording hand, rather than with the palm of the picking hand. The picking hand stays loose, keeping with the rhythm.
Answer: It seems that the prevailing opinion is to use the word "skank" although I would personally go with the word "chop", as "skank" has another meaning - it is also the name of the type of dance that people do to reggae and ska music.
Using a term such as "reggae off beat chops" on a popular search engine will yield a few results confirming the usage, although admittedly some of them also refer to it as the "skank".
A good thing about the word "chop" is that it is onomatopoeic, so to someone less familiar with the style of music, it is more clear that the sound is short and sharp.
For a fuller description, I guess you could say "off-beat chops".
Perhaps it's worth mentioning that I am from the UK; perhaps the usage differs elsewhere.
Comment: Skank seems onomatopoeic also.


Should licensing questions be allowed on this site?

Question: I just saw the question about licensing (Does Sitecore licensing affect API calls?) on the sitecore SE site. As licensing is not an expertise of any of us and this may vary per customer, I would say that we shouldn't allow licensing questions over here and advise the person who is asking the question directly to sales support. What are your ideas about licensing?
Answer: I agree with this. I believe that StackOverflow and other sites take legal and licensing questions in a similar fashion, that it's not a proper question for the site.
Comment: Fair enough. I put in a vote to close it.
Answer: I agree with the above, but we still need to make judgement calls on some questions. For example, I would consider the below to be valid questions for this site:

Where should the license file be installed?
Why am I receiving a license not found error even though it is in my Data folder?
How do I view my license details from the user interface?
How do I know how many concurrent users I am allowed to have?
Comment: Indeed, but those are more technical questions, not commercial
Answer: Yep, I can see the argument. More so as I tried to answer it realizing that I needed to make sure we reflect it back to Sitecore sales.
I agree with this.
Answer: I broadly agree with this, however the question cited in the example above seems legit, it's not specifically asking about pricing, it is a yes or no answer.
If the answer is yes then that it could affect the customer going into production.
Comment: There is no "in the box" EULA with Sitecore. Every license is unique to the customer which in it can and deos vary. Even if there is no technical limitation in the product, to may be against the agreement.  As a Sitecore rep once told me, "There is no such thing as a standard Sitecore license agreement"