How to set Firefox path on Mac OS for Selenium WebDriver?

Question: I am beginner to webdriver. I have setup all configurations. I am using firefox 27.0.1 version with selenium jar files 2.40.0. I have written code to open firefox browser with a URL. I am unable to run the code and got the below error. Cannot find firefox binary in PATH. Make sure firefox is installed. OS appears to be Mac. It seems i should specify the firefox path to run the code. I tried to find the location on my mac. All i get is /Users/sathiyarengarajan/Library/Application Support/Firefox/Profiles. Tell me how to get the exact path on mac machine.
Answer: The typical location of FF is /Users/username/Applications/Firefox
To confirm the location right click on an FF shortcut and select "Get info".  The dialog box displays.
Comment: I tried using Get info. Still I am only able to get the same above. I tried even Firefox help->troubleshoot information->Application Basics->Profile folder->show it in Finder. Any help to get the exact location would be helpful
Comment: Why don't you just search the HD for Firefox? Use the search in Finder.
Comment: I tried. I got /Users/sathiyarengarajan/Downloads/Firefox 27.0.1.dmg. But still it didnt help. I uninstalled the firefox application. Once firefox is downloaded, i copied the firefox to the applications folder. Now I no need to set firefox path for selenium. Now things work
Comment: No you should be good now, the applications folder is Selemiums default location for Firefox.
Answer: Not quite the same problem, but since I found this answer when googling, I'm providing my solution here too.
I'm trying to find the firefox executable to execute it from scripts like cucumber / selenium tests without hardcoding the path. Here's what I do:
Find it with  Spotlight
firefox_paths = %x[mdfind "kMDItemFSName = Firefox.app"]
firefox_path = firefox_paths.split('\n').first.chomp
firefox_executable_path = File.join(firefox_path, '/Contents/MacOS/firefox')

Selenium::WebDriver::Firefox::Binary.path=firefox_executable_path

Another way would be to dump launch services database and grep it out there
/System/Library/Frameworks/CoreServices.framework/Versions/A/Frameworks/LaunchServices.framework/Versions/A/Support/lsregister -dump \
  | grep -n7 org.mozilla.firefox \
  | grep path: \
  | awk '{ print($3) }'

Answer: I put the geckodriver to /usr/local/bin/ directory, when I start selenium test, the log show default search path on Mac OS
geckodriver::marionette INFO     Starting browser /Applications/Firefox.app/Contents/MacOS/firefox-bin

So make sure you have firefox-bin in above path, if not, you can make a soft link to your search path, for example:
ln -s /Applications/FirefoxDeveloperEdition.app/Contents/MacOS/firefox-bin /usr/local/bin/firefox-bin

Answer: Let me share a crude but fool-proof way to find this:
On Terminal, type find /Applications -name *Firefox*
This will give you all paths to any file with firefox in the name. You should see these two lines in the output:
/Applications/Firefox.app/Contents/MacOS/firefox
/Applications/Firefox.app/Contents/MacOS/firefox-bin

Hope this will helps.

Alternatively from the UI :

Go to Finder, under locate Firefox Applications
  Right click and Open Package Contents. You will see MacOS folder.
  Drill down each subfolders. You will find that the executables you will see will be under MacOS, named firefox and firefox-bin.

Hope this also helps.
Answer: I faced the same problem when I had multiple versions of FireFox browsers.
Got the error below:

Cannot find firefox binary in PATH. Make sure firefox is installed. OS appears to be: MAC

I Uninstalled the older version and the test started passing.
    package com.chamlabs.restfulservices.client.pages;

import org.openqa.selenium.safari.*;

import java.io.File;
import java.sql.Driver;

import org.openqa.selenium.*;
import org.openqa.selenium.firefox.FirefoxBinary;
import org.openqa.selenium.firefox.FirefoxDriver;
import org.openqa.selenium.firefox.FirefoxProfile;
import org.openqa.selenium.WebDriver;

public class LogInPage {

    public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException {

        WebDriver driver = (WebDriver) new FirefoxDriver();
        driver.get("google.com");
        Thread.sleep(1000);
        driver.close();

    }
}


Can a single optical fiber support full-duplex communication?

Question: Can a single-mode single optical fiber support full-duplex communication, or does it have to be two fibers, one for each direction?
Comment: Did any answer help you? if so, you should accept the answer so that the question doesn't keep popping up forever, looking for an answer. Alternatively, you could post and accept your own answer.
Answer:
Can a single optical fiber support full-duplex communication?

Yes. There are "BX" standards, e.g. 100BASE-BX, which use different wavelengths for send and receive. The transmit wavelength on one end needs to be the receive wavelength on the other end.
For example, Cisco has these transceivers:

1000BASE-BX10-D and 1000BASE-BX10-U SFP for Single-Fiber Bidirectional Applications
The 1000BASE-BX-D and 1000BASE-BX-U SFPs, compatible with the IEEE
  802.3ah 1000BASE-BX10-D and 1000BASE-BX10-U standards, operate on a single strand of standard SMF.
A 1000BASE-BX10-D device is always connected to a 1000BASE-BX10-U
  device with a single strand of standard SMF with an operating
  transmission range up to 10 km.
The communication over a single strand of fiber is achieved by
  separating the transmission wavelength of the two devices as depicted
  in Figure 2: 1000BASE-BX10-D transmits a 1490-nm channel and receives
  a 1310-nm signal, whereas 1000BASE-BX10-U transmits at a 1310-nm
  wavelength and receives a 1490-nm signal. As shown, the presence of a
  wavelength-division multiplexing (WDM) splitter integrated into the
  SFP to split the 1310-nm and 1490-nm light paths.
Figure 4.      Bidirectional Transmission of a Single Strand of SMF
Comment: I answered that question. The answer is, yes, if you use one of the "BX" standards. Your transceivers need to support the correct standard.
Comment: Can a single-mode single fiber alone support full duplex?
Answer: A full duplex or Bidirection communication meaning that it can support both stations transmitting and receiving simultaneously.
To accomplish this, a single optical fiber with WDM technology is required for optical tommunication.
WDM stands for wavelength division multiplex. This multiplex method uses both 1310 nm and 1550 nm wavelengths.Two devices are used for connection via a single optical fiber just as seen in the picture. Device A transmits data at 1310 nm on the TX channel and device B receives data at the same wavelength on the RX channel. When the roles are reversed, 1550 nm is used in the other direction. Connection is therefore only possible between device A and device B. The devices are available as a set.

Note that Cisco 1000BASE-BX10-D and 1000BASE-BX10-U SFP is availble for Single-Fiber Bidirectional Applications.
Answer: Yes, if you have the right hardware.
Normally a seperate strand of fiber is used for each direction. This keeps the transcievers simple and allows the same transcievers to be used for both ends of the connection.
However you can now buy transcievers that allow full-duplex communication on a single fiber. These are known as "bidi" transcievers. They work by using two different wavelengths with splitter prisms inside the transcievers. You need to use an "upstream" transciever at one end of the fiber and a "downstream" transciever at the other.
For 1Gbps there was a standard for bidi transcievers, 1000BASE-BX10. I cannot find any evidence of a standard for 10 gigabit bidi optics despite some vendors selling their products as "10GBASE-BX" or "10GBASE-BR". So I would treat any 10 gigabit bidi transcievers as propietary.
Coming back to this post in 2022, it seems even 100G bidi is now becoming a thing, again tey don;t seem to be bothering with formal standards though.
Comment: 10GPON is bidirectional - but that's something completely different. ;-)
Comment: AIUI PON takes a bidi physical layer and adds on top of that a medium access control protocol to support a point to multipoint arrangement with passive splitters.
Answer: Single strand fiber transmission use a single strand of glass (optical fiber) to send data in both directions, namely bidirectional (BiDi) transmission. In recent years, the mainstream single strand fiber transmission technology is based on two wavelengths traveling in opposite directions (also called TW BiDi transmission). This technology is achieved via wavelength division multiplexing (WDM) couplers, also known as diplexers, which combine and separate data transmitted over a single fiber based on the wavelengths of the light. Generally, this WDM coupler is integrated into a standard interface optical transceiver module. You can read more details here: http://www.fs.com/blog/single-strand-fiber-solution-is-it-right-for-you.html
Answer: Yes.  Single Fiber, Single Wavelength, CWDM SFP Transceivers, some with Micro-OTDR Fast Fiber Fault Finder technology, have been commercially available for years.
Comment: Coarse wavelength division multiplexing (CWDM) is not "single wavelength".
Answer: Using wavelength-division multiplex, a single fiber can support many full-duplex channels.
There are 45 common channels for DWDM, 18 for CWDM - these overlap but you can easily run a dozen full-duplex links over a single fiber using readily available transceivers and multiplexers.


The reputation bar to add a comment should be reduced

Question: It can happen many a times that a user with even lesser reputation can have a really valuable point/counter question to add, but it may not be complete in itself or simply might not be able to answer the question satisfactorily. In such a condition the valuable addition may be missed out.
Comment: This seems like a network-wide issue, not specific to Physics. There are many discussions on the mother meta.
Comment: You're already more than half from the needed rep, I wonder why you don't post anymore after Oct 2016?
Comment: @AndrewT. OP spent 50 on a bounty and is now below the required rep amount (I think that indicates a loss of commenting privileges). Now it's surely a bad idea to put up a bounty and then use answers as a replacement for comments (which OP did before I directed them to meta).
Comment: If you doesn't click (probably accidentally) the community wiki button below your [this](https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/247091/32426) answer, already you could have the 50 rep... :-) Don't worry, as I can see on your progress, you will get it soon. For community wiki answers, you don't get reputation (it has deeper reasons, also I am not sure so is it the best).
Comment: Building on the comment by @peterh, it may be OK for you to custom-mod-flag that specific answer and say that it shouldn't be community wiki. If a mod undoes the CW status, you'll (probably) get that rep.
Comment: @aymusbond Oh well, my flag on the post was marked as helpful and it's no longer CW, but it doesn't look like you got the rep. Wait a day and see if a recalculation takes place. Otherwise, I'm afraid you'll need to write more posts/edits to get the rep. Or if there's a different SE site where you feel you'd know a bit, try earning 200 rep there, and then you'll automatically get 100 rep automatically, instantly, on every SE site you join, so you'll be able to comment anywhere on the network, including here on Physics.
Comment: I'm sure that my recent comment under your answer [here](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/52631/) included a link to [meta.se]. I don't recall if I mentioned that this issue has been brought up several times and is never well-received.
Comment: This is a different problem altogether which I wanted to discuss with you as well. I was following the concerned thread for more than a week but the question did not have any thoughtful answer (which it now has :) ) and since the question was old there was no scope of it getting any attention. So after losing my patience I had to finally use the bounty (unwillingly of course). Was there any better solution? Please tell me.
Comment: @aymusbond It's usually not a bad idea to pop over to the [physics chat](https://chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/71/the-h-bar) and explain the situation. There'll probably be someone who's interested in the question too, and people are likely to be a bit chill if you mention that you go below the comment rep level if you place the bounty yourself (although some may suggest that you make a couple of posts to put together the remaining 21 rep).
Comment: Oh! good idea Chair. Thank you. Aur ek baar fir se sorry for using the answer section. I will definitely take care next time.
Comment: @Chair could you please help me with it (undo the cw status). Or even if anyone else could help me please?
Comment: @Chair Thank you immensely for helping me so much and cooperating with me.
Answer: It can happen many a times that there will be someone who doesn't do physics or care at all about it, but they have this website www.X.com that they want to promote, and having a bunch of links pointing from physics.se to X.com will help convince Google that their site is trustworthy (because this site is highly ranked by Google), so they will make a bunch of sockpuppet accounts and try to post a bunch of comments linking to their site.
Those comments get very annoying very fast, and they represent a huge source of wear on how this site looks and feels to search engines, casual visitors, new users, and established members. They are not something we want around. The reputation limits are there to keep them out, and they do an excellent job of keeping out the flood of harmful comments that try to get posted here. The fact that some people with worthwhile things to add are prevented from doing so by this system is unfortunate, but it's an uneasy compromise that allows us to have a high-quality site to comment on in the first place.
Generally speaking, the systems in place for protecting against spam are run by Stack Exchange itself, and not by the Physics SE site's community. This meta site is primarily for community issues and for software issues which affect this site only. Questions and proposals about features that are common to the entire Stack Exchange system should be raised on Meta Stack Exchange. (And, if you're going to post there, you should do your due diligence and search for the existing threads, like this one and the links therein, if you don't want them to close your question as an exact duplicate.)
Comment: @aymus OP is short for Original Poster (so, in this thread, you). Chair is using [singular they](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Singular_they) since we do not know your gender.
Comment: @KyleKanos Well, exposure to the site does have the side-effect that one becomes blind to how the barriers to participation look like to new users (and it becomes increasingly hard to have a clear picture of just how intimidating the site was when one first joined). That makes me (personally) reluctant to wave away e.g. the concerns of a first-year undergraduate who spotted something wrong in an answer and needs clarification with "oh, you can easily earn fifty rep", which likely means ten hard-earned question upvotes.
Comment: @aymusbond Your last comment makes extremely little sense - please rephrase it and clarify what it is you want to say. To be clear, though, the only users with the ability to unilaterally delete content are [the elected moderators](https://physics.stackexchange.com/users?tab=moderators); for everyone else, no matter how high-rep, it takes a quorum (typically three to six votes) for any content to be deleted. If you want to argue that the system be changed, this is not the venue - take it to [meta.se].
Comment: @aymus Absolutely, they do, but being able to ban users who have posted bad content is not sufficient in preventing that bad content being posted in the first place. Spam prevention is an intricate and multi-layered system. It works well, but it needs all those layers to do so. And that includes the rep requirements to comment.
Comment: The chat everywhere rep threshold isn't a terribly high bar for those with vested interest, either, so it's not like it's an insurmountable task.
Comment: @KyleKanos Few rep barriers are insurmountable, but I do think it's disingenuous to try and pretend that the 50 rep (resp. 20 rep) requirements for commenting (resp. chat) don't form a participation barrier that turns away some contributions we would quite like to have. ([Here](//physics.stackexchange.com/a/97895) is one example of a paper author getting turned away by the system's spam defences, for instance.)
Comment: I'm not trying to say it hasn't prevented legitimate comments and/or turned away people, just that if you're interested in participating in the site (beyond that one comment), it should be relatively easy to get it.
Comment: Sorry for not being clear. I wanted to know if the "elected moderators" have the power to ban the users which are misusing the site like in the case of the example you gave of promoting www.x.com. This would be a good thing as due to such anti-social elements new users are not able to make valuable contributions (in the form of comments).
Comment: But to be perfectly clear: this is an SE-wide system and we in the physics-site community have no control over it, so trying to discuss it here is completely moot. Take it to [meta.se].
Comment: Something important to note is that OP was on 70-something rep until they put a bounty on [this question](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/52631/). They then tried to use an answer to comment on other people's posts.
Comment: Could you please tell me What is op and why are you using "them"?


How to cancel hard reset?

Question: My phone started hard reset on its own, but I really want to stop it. Is it possible? Because I don't want to lose my files, and it seems there is no way to save them because I tried to connect my phone with my PC so I could save the files but it is not possible.
Answer: I highly doubt that your phone would hard reset itself. Although it is possible to reset remotely if you triggered it from your Microsoft account. For windows phones the procedure for update and hard reset is same, spinning gears. It is also possible that the OS is applying some update.
But unfortunately, if it's indeed a hard reset operation, it can not be stopped once started. Unless you have any backups of the device, you wont be able to recover any data from the phone itself, but the memory card may have its data intact.

How to cancel hard reset?


Is it better to scan negatives or prints?

Question: I've been wondering this for awhile now. Is it better to scan a 35mm negative, or a larger print from the negative? Which will provide a better scan? Does this change when moving to a larger film, like 120 or 4x5?
Answer: In theory you can get more out of a negative than a print.  However, in practice you are more likely to have access to a flat bed scanner that can give a wonderful scan from the print.  A good film scanner is much more expensive and slower.
Considerations are similar for larger format film.  But the costs go up even more, since the consumer-level film scanners tend to handle consumer formats.  A medium format or larger film scanner start getting very expensive.
So this is a case where theory says one thing, but your budget might say something else.
Comment: +1 for "theory says one thing, but your budget might say something else"
Comment: In theory?  Seems like a foregone conclusion :)
Answer: Its better to scan the original slide/negative as its better to reproduce from as close to the source as possible meaning quality of reproduction goes down in this order:

The source (whatever it was you actually were shooting)
The slide/negative or digital camera file
A print of the photograph.

It essentially comes down to every stage of recording introduces a level of interpretation by the medium, as you move away from the original source you're now reproducing all the interpretations those other mediums introduced.
Comment: There is an exception to this rule, of course, and that's when the print differs significantly from the negative (because of processing and manipulation) and is a well-known or "accidentally unique" image. In that case, oversampling and cleanup of the print scan, as tediuos and time-consuming as it is, can be easier than trying to recreate the original manipulations, no matter how good your processing notes are. It's still worth using a better scanner than the one built into your printer, though, like outsourcing to a Heidelberg drum scanner.
Comment: Another situation where a print may be better is if the color dyes in the negative were less stable than they should have been, and have consequently shifted over time.  A scan of a print which was made before the colors on the negative went wonky may be better than a scan of a degraded negative, though until one tries to clean up the latter it may be impossible to really know for sure.
Answer: As said here, the original source will always contain a better quality.
But you also have to consider that, the negative is smaller and you need better equipment in order to capture that, with better resolution and better optics.
Your scanner may be able to capture more than 2000dpi image, which will give you a lot of pixels even on a inch big negative. But a image scanned in 2000dpi will have higher noise than from a image scanned at 600dpi from a larger picture.
So what I'm saying is if you don't have a scanner good enough to take advantage of the raw negative, you may find that is more practical scanning a print. Sometimes the printed picture will be good enough.
Definitely not an exact science.
Answer: It's always better to scan the original material: the negative contains much more information than the print does. Can you capture that information? A film scanner can. My experience (5+ years ago) is that a flatbed with transparency adapter does not do anywhere near as good a job capturing detail in the negative as a film scanner can. A flatbed captures only marginally more detail from the negative than it would from a print, in fact.
But, probably the most important thing is to understand how to get a good scan. Whether you scan a negative or print, just using the automatic options will not get you the best scan you can get, and therefore is throwing away detail.
Answer: That depends on the print.
Is the print just a simple print, or has processing been applied, e.g. filters to enhance contrast, burning, dodging, etc. Then I would suggest that you scan the print, if this is the version you like and want.
Otherwise, I would scan the negative.
E.g. Had I an Ansel Adams negative, and the corresponding print, I would certainly choose to scan the print.
Answer: Assuming that there are no technical issues with the scanners I would go with the negative. Any print will have some level of interpretation in it in terms of how colors map from negative -> print. So in effect you can do negative -> scan or negative -> print -> scan the first seems better to me.
Of course if you don't have a negative scanner using a print scanner may be "Good enough"


How to convert a Microsoft Word document to Google Docs format without having to download and re-upload again?

Question: I currently have several Microsoft Word documents that are sitting on my Google Drive and were uploaded over the past few months. I understand that it is possible to convert Microsoft Word documents to Google Docs format during file upload time, but is it possible to convert documents after uploading them to Google Drive without having to download and re-upload the same document again?
Comment: Unfortunately, the conversion is not perfect. If you use special software like Mathtype which makes special characters like radical signs and such. The conversion process does not work. Plan text works OK. So technical papers with special characters used in Word Documents does convert.
Answer: To convert a document, right click on it inside Google Drive. Choose Open with → Google Docs. A new window will be opened with the document in Google Docs format and it is saved inside the same folder in your Google Drive.
Comment: Wow, not intuitive.
Comment: In addition to not intuitive, it does not always keep the formatting you would expect. But can be a time saver!. This also works with other Google file formats such as Excel to Sheets.
Comment: When you open a doc this way, the fonts menu is very limited.
Answer: You can use Google Drive add-ons such as:

DriveConverter (Website)

Convert Word and Excel files to PDF and more.
Convert files from your browser without downloading any conversion software.

Save Cloud files to Google Drive

This app allows you to save Dropbox, OneDrive, Box, Flickr files to Google Drive directly.
Supports convert docx, pptx, xlsx, pdf, odt, jpg... formats to Google Document Formats.

and other.

For Google format to PDF, check: How do I convert a Google doc to PDF without downloading it?


Literature review in thesis and research paper

Question: What are the major differences between a thesis and research paper literature review? Despite the volume of literature citations between thesis and research article what are the  other major differences?
Answer: A literature review in a thesis is there to put your own work into context. It should make it clear that you are familiar with what has been done in the field before, that there is a gap that your work will address, and that you have chosen your approach to the problem carefully in light of previous work.
A literature review section in an original research paper has a similar purpose, but should be much shorter. It should focus on making clear why your work is needed.
A stand-alone review paper has a very different purpose. A review paper should help readers to understand the state of the art in the field with respect to the review topic. It should cover important recent contributions to the field (and make clear why they are important). It should document recent trends and changes (for instance, if one theory or method seems to be falling out of favour while others are emerging). It should document important open challenges and problems.
In all types of literature review, it is important to show critical thinking: not just covering what has been done before, but thinking about how appropriate or successful that work was, or how relevant to current circumstances.
Answer: A thesis generally grants a diploma. Its literature review possesses a part narrowed down to the part where the (junior) researcher is supposed to bring "novelty" or "innovation".
An overview paper generally has at least a more senior author, since more experience is required to compare approaches. There, the authors may credit less known  sources, the ones a junior may have overlooked, or spot the major paths. Since they will not be awarded a diploma, wisdom is what readers will look at. However, such a paper may attract more citations than a thesis.
Finally, PhD or MSc students should be advised that a thesis is a good place to learn and prepare for a review paper, later. In some fields (I think about bioinformatics) brand new "doctors" sometimes publish survey papers comparing the most recent works, in short-time frame reviews.
Answer: Let me first help you reframe the question slightly: What kind of literature review is necessary to support a thesis, what kind of literature review is necessary to support a research article, and how are these two types of literature review different?
It is hard to give a general answer, because there are many different kinds of theses (and thus different kinds of literature reviews to support them) and different kinds of research articles (and thus different kinds of literature reviews to support them, too). However, in general, I could say:

The purpose of a thesis is to partially demonstrate your qualification to receive an academic degree, usually a graduate degree. From this perspective, the best answer concerning what is expected in the literature review is: Ask your supervisor! Different supervisors have different expectations, and so no matter what kinds of general answers you might find here on Stack Exchange, what your supervisor thinks is what really matters. You wouldn't want to spend a lot of time doing work based on what you've read on the Internet, only to find that your supervisor in fact has very different ideas on this point. That said, I would say that in general that a doctoral thesis literature review should serve three main purposes:

Prove that your thesis contribution is original: Show that in spite of all the related and similar work that you are presenting in the literature review, what you are offering as your main research in the thesis is original and different from what anyone has ever done.
Demonstrate your knowledge of relevant literature: Prove that you have read very broadly and are a general expert in the topic of your thesis and in related work.
Contribute to the scholarly conversation: By reviewing related work, you can present how your thesis fits in the ongoing research stream and adds to what is already known, and establishes a platform upon which other researchers can further build.

The purpose of a research article is to make a concise original contribution to knowledge. In general, you should write everything you need to present the new knowledge, but you should not waste your readers' time by writing any more than is necessary. Thus, the literature review here is the minimum needed to help present the new knowledge. From that perspective, while all the three points above for a thesis are still relevant, points #1 and #2 (prove originality and demonstrate your knowledge of the literature, respectively) should be heavily abbreviated and are less important. #3 (contribute to the scholarly conversation) is probably the most important aspect for a research article literature review: you need to explain what the related work is, where it has gone so far, where your new contribution fits, and where you or others can go on in the future. (Strictly speaking, the last aspect on where to go in the future usually goes in the conclusion section, but you should have this in mind as you prepare the literature review section.)


Running the bases during a ground rule double

Question: I'm umping in a slow pitch softball league and we had something I've never seen in all my years umping or playing, there's a runner on 1st only and the hitter at bat hits a ground rule double. The runner on 1st sees this going to be a ground rule double and slows down, and while I'm calling the ground rule double the hitter passes the runner. I tell the hitter to go to 2nd and the runner to go to 3rd. The team in the field was furious that I didn't call the hitter out for passing the runner on the base path. I felt very confident about my call since the ball was dead as soon as the ball was out of play but I was hoping that there is a rule to help back me up after this strange situation.
Answer: You were correct. The specific rule depends on the exact rulebook your league uses, which you did not state. I'll show the rules from the (international) WSBC Slow Pitch Softball Playing Rules (2018–2021):

5.10.3 a)
A runner is out and the ball remains live when:
[…]
vi.      they physically pass a preceding runner before that runner has been called out. The ball remains live.  The runner is not out if the ball becomes a foul ball or an uncaught fly foul ball or if a runner passes a preceding runner on a dead ball play. The ball remains dead;

which states you can pass the preceding runner in a dead-ball situation. And:

5.11 b)
i) The batter-runner and runner(s) are awarded two bases from the time of pitch in the following circumstances and the ball is dead:
[…]
1) when a fair batted ball passes out of the playing field at a distance less than the dimensions of a regulation field.

(emphasis mine)
Answer: This is an interesting scenario, but I believe you were correct in your ruling.  Referencing the official MLB rules, any runner may advance without liability
to be put out in the case of a ground rule double.
Here is the relevant rule (5.06(b)(4))

(4) Each runner including the batter-runner may, without liability
  to be put out, advance:
...
...
(F) Two bases, if a fair ball bounces or is deflected
  into the stands outside the first or third base foul
  lines; or if it goes through or under a field fence, or
  through or under a scoreboard, or through or under
  shrubbery or vines on the fence; or if it sticks in
  such fence, scoreboard, shrubbery or vines;

In this ruling, the ball is dead as soon as the ball leaves the field of play or otherwise becomes unplayable.  So long as the runner maintained his position in front of the other runner prior to the ball entering an unplayable state, he is entitled to advance.


Two signals with the same frequency in the same area can interfere?

Question: If one signal is transmitting form transmitter $TX_1$ with some frequency $X$ and some other transmitter $TX_2$ is sending some other signal with same frequency $X$ will there be any clash or interference between these two signals since these two transmitters $TX_1$ and $TX_2$ are located in the same area?
Answer: The signals won't necessarily interfere with each other. It depends on the properties of the signals and what you're trying to achieve.

Time-division multiplexing can be used to transmit multiple signals over the same frequency. In TDM each transmitter uses the channel for just a fraction of the time.
Quadrature modulation essentially means transmitting two signals over the same frequency at the same time.
Code-division multiple access allows multiple transmitters to share the same frequency; each transmitter multiplies its signal with a sequence that is orthogonal to those used by the remaining transmitters.
Space-time coding: by using multiple antennas in the receiver, it is possible to recover signals transmitted over the same frequency and at the same time, while also fighting the effects of multipath fading.

Much recent research on efficient spectrum utilization is based on ways to "pack" signals both in time and frequency, to achieve the highest data rate over the smallest possible bandwidth.
Note also that, unless the transmitter, receiver and signaling are designed with this purpose, the signals will interfere as @PhilPotter1987 suggests. For example, if a TV broadcaster experiences a malfunction and starts transmitting over another TV channel's bandwidth, there is nothing your TV set can do to fix it.
Comment: Hi @MBaz Thanks for the explanation it helpful me a lot  and also can u please suggest me any book that give the detail explanation that tells about space time coding,code division multiple access,QAM techniques
Comment: @rajee, Almost any book on digital and wireless systems will help you. In particular, Haykin's books on analog and digital communications are beginner-friendly. The books by Sklar and Couch are good introductions too.
Comment: why i was asking bcoz i have read some books which they explained QAM,DPSK etc  by formulas i understand the formulas but i am facing difficulty in relating that to the Real world applications.Any way thanks u for Ur suggestion i will try these books .THAnk u so much
Comment: @rajee, in that case, a couple more suggestions: Telecommunications Breakdown, a pre-print of which is linked at the bottom of this page: http://sethares.engr.wisc.edu/telebreak.html. There is a second edition of this book which is very good too. Also, RF and Baseband Techniques for Software Defined Radio, by Peter Kenington, Artech House. Also, Communication System Design Using DSP Algorithms, by S. Tretter, Springer. These books are more practical -- you still need to understand the equations, though :)
Answer: I would say yes almost certainly - it would depend on transmit power but if they are simultaneously broadcasting on the same frequency then there will be interference as they are in the same area. This is the reason valuable parts of the spectrum must be licensed by government agencies, to prevent multiple people using them at the same time without multiplexing etc.
Comment: My pleasure :-)
Comment: Hi @Philplotter i need one more clarification,suppose 4 persons are there in same area, if p1 person want to call person p2, and p3 person want to call person p4 will they be using same frequency to establish the calls?
Comment: It depends on how they 'call' each other. I am no expert on exactly what techniques various telephony technologies use, but I can say that if all phones were transmitting on exactly the same frequency at exactly the same time, there would be problems. The way cell phones/mobiles get around this for example, is to each use different frequencies in the same general 'band' in order to talk to the local cell tower. This is how you can have four mobiles all working in the same room at the same time, on the same provider.
Comment: Hi @PhilPotter Thanks for the explanation it helpful me a lot
Answer: If the two signals are just sine waves generated from point sources, with no modulation scheme, then yes they will interfere with each other.
To visualize this, suppose there are two such sources, one at $(10,10)$ and the other at $(90,90)$. The images below show 1) The waves just from the first source, 2) the waves from the second source, and 3) the overall effect when both sources are active.
As you can see, there is quite a bit of interference.

R Code Below
<code>#28211

x1 <- 10
y1 <- 10

x2 <- 90
y2 <- 90

z1 <- matrix(0,100,100)
z2 <- z1
ztot <- z1

for (x in 1:100)
{
  for (y in 1:100)
  {
    z1[x,y] <- sin(sqrt(((x-x1)^2 + (y-y1)^2)))
    z2[x,y] <- sin(sqrt(((x-x2)^2 + (y-y2)^2)))
    ztot[x,y] <- z1[x,y] + z2[x,y]
  }
}

par(pty="s", mfrow=c(3,1))
image(1:100,1:100,z1)
points(x1,y1,lwd=10,col="green")
points(x2,y2,lwd=10,col="blue")
image(1:100,1:100,z2)
points(x1,y1,lwd=10,col="green")
points(x2,y2,lwd=10,col="blue")
image(1:100,1:100,ztot)
points(x1,y1,lwd=10,col="green")
points(x2,y2,lwd=10,col="blue")
</code>
Comment: Hi @Peter K Thanks for the explanation it helpful me a lot


Is it safe to drink tap water in Seoul?

Question: I've been hearing conflicting views. The government assures everyone that it's okay but the locals don't seem to trust the government, at least in this issue. Does anybody know any conclusive reference that states that the drinking water in Seoul is potable?
Comment: My moms parents live in seoul, and my mom was born and raised there. She went to visit a while back and got sick from drinking the water. She was hospitalized for 2 weeks.. I don't care what anyone says, I WILL not drink it.
Comment: This is just personal experience but I just spent a week in Seoul drinking the tap water primarily and I have had no issues.
Comment: @user19121: Which disease specifically were they diagnosed with that was traced to tapwater?
Answer: Historically Seoul has had a number of issues with drinking water.  Most recently the issue wasn't the water itself, but the pipes that delivered it, which many people claimed introduced contaminates.  I can still remember being told by someone I was working with there about 10 years ago that the water was safe to drink in my hotel, but not in their office block located a few blocks away - I'm still not sure exactly how he came to that conclusion!
Over recent years the local government-run water supplier has made significant efforts to replace all of the "old" pipes, and has taken additional measures around treatment of water.
The water is considered safe and drinkable under UN criteria, and although many locals still do not trust it, there's little doubt that it's as safe as tap water in any other major first-world city.
There's numerous more information available on The Office of Waterworks, Seoul Metropolitan Government website.
Note that all of the above comments relate to the water in Seoul.  If you're heading outside of the main metropolitan area then things could be very different and I would suggest only drinking bottled water in those areas.
Comment: Followup question: What about Busan?  Are its drinking water standards as good as Seoul's?
Comment: I'm at the Dongdaemun area. I seem to be inside the "safe area". Thanks a lot :) Will be waiting for other answers for a while if you don't mind.
Comment: Link is now broken, I tried to find the correct link but my Korean skills are non-existent.
Comment: @AdityaSomani No need to know Korean; just follow the "English" link :).

Is it safe to drink tap water in Seoul?


Error Running command shell :TimeoutError Operation Time out

Question: I am Testing a Payload linux/x86/meterpreter/reverse_tcp in my Test Linux network to Exploit, I got a Meterpreter Session by Metasploit using it, I tried several commands like getuid, cat and all those are working fine, But the command shell is not working, it means i am Unable to create a shell session from that, I am getting an Error which says
[-] Error running command shell: Rex:: TimeoutError Operation Timed Out
My Server is Running Architecture is x86_64 Which means a 64 bit OS, And i am using a x86 payload . So does it caused problem in shell command? And i am unable to Find a Reverse_TCP 64 Bit payload in Linux Modules , Can anyone help me out, or give exact reasons why the error is outputting ?
Moreover while Pivoting the Reverse_tcp Should run command ifconfig but in x86 OS System, the shell gives Channel of
sh-4.2$ ifconfig command not found
Comment: yes, using the wrong architecture will cause problems - did you know about https://www.rapid7.com/db/modules/payload/generic/shell_reverse_tcp ?
Comment: if python is installed, try:
Answer: You can try using the following to spawn a bash shell:
execute -i -f /bin/bash


How can I create synthetic imagery (rendering) of LEGO models?

Question: I'd like to know how I can create computer imagery of my own models or existing models.
How can we do photographic quality or cartoon like images?
Comment: Zhaph, digital imagery isn`t covered with plan making.
Comment: possible duplicate of [Do any programs exist that allow you to build own LEGO plans?](http://bricks.stackexchange.com/questions/12/do-any-programs-exist-that-allow-you-to-build-own-lego-plans)
Comment: Both Lego digital designer and Ldraw allow for the creation of CGI LEGO models. Additional software may be required for photo-real rendering
Answer: You need:
Digital Designer (Or anything that can produce Ldraw files, there are some listed in this question)
Blender (Or another renderer that supports Ldraw)
Blender Script (This is necessary for Blender to read you Ldraw models)

Recreate your creation in Lego Digital Designer.
Export as Ldraw format
Import in Blender
Create & render Blender scene

(I haven't tried but it should work)
Comment: While the blender script sometimes works, the technique of importing an LDraw file into LeoCAD, then exporting it as either an obj or 3ds file and importing it into Blender has been MUCH more reliable from my experience. In the python script, bricks often get left behind, lack all of their verticies, or simply don't get imported. A massive contrast from the LEOCAD technique provided by PeterDC.
Comment: @dannystaple LDD has an extended mode that you can turn on using a config setting to access a much wider range of elements: http://www.eurobricks.com/forum/index.php?showtopic=53760
Comment: I'd tend to replace the first requirement by "a LDraw file, created either with your favorite LDraw editor, or exported straight from LDD". Pov-Ray works too.
Comment: I am surprised by the recommendation of LDD. LDD has a very limited part library, which shifts every few months. Surely LeoCAD, MLCad or the other myriad of real LDraw tools should be the starting point.
Comment: Since the "Design by me" product is to be removed by Lego, it makes a lot of sense to switch the config as the upload/pricing will be of little/no use again.
Answer: In addition to the other answers, the oldschool way using POV (in use before there even WAS a LEGO Digital Designer) still works.

Model your creation in a LDraw compatible modelling tool of your choice (such as MLCad) but there are other choices
Use one of several export programs (such as L3P) to create a POVRay compatible file
Add a few commands to move the camera to taste and run a render in POVRay.

All of the renders on my site, http://miltontrainworks.com, such as this one:

Taken from the MTW-5001-yg listing, were done this way.
You can read more about all the tools mentioned at the LDraw website.
Answer: The Studio tool from BrickLink uses the LDraw Parts library and has both the POV-Ray renderer as well as a "Photo Real" renderer baked in for some fairly realistic renderings of your models.
For example:
A selection of wheels and axles. You can see the logos on the studs of the modified 1x2:

Apple Macintosh Sample Model:

Apple Macintosh Sample Model with "UV Degradation" and "Scratches" enabled in Material Effects:
Answer: Here's a method you'll be able to use with the latest stable version of Blender, without any extra plugins or addons.

Build your model in LEGO Digital Designer and export as an LDraw file.
Import into LeoCAD, then export as a .obj file.
Import into Blender with the built-in .obj importer.
You can then setup the scene how you want.

Also, if you're just starting out with Blender, you may want to try an under-development, photorealistic renderer called Cycles, as you'll be able to get nice-looking images much more quickly than if you were to use Blender's default internal renderer. From 2.61 onward, Cycles is now another render engine option in all official Blender builds.
You may want to check out this superb introduction to Cycles.
Comment: Also, some beginner tutorials: http://www.blender.org/education-help/tutorials/getting-started/
Answer: Let me suggest Autodesk 3ds Max software or Autodesk Maya software for achieving this. You can find free bricks and models meshes right here. Additional information on lego visualization can be found on Okino's website.
Here is the example of a rendered still. Doing a manual simply involve making parts of the model visible/invisible and positioning the camera appropriately.

This model was rendered by flickr user bloggerknight using 3ds Max and the VRay renderer
Comment: While I like the render, there's only a limited set of parts compared to LDraw lists, and things like MLCad/LeoCad etc. really help with lining up the parts properly, but I've yet to find a decent workflow that results in sensibly sized models in 3DS Max - the imports from LPub for example were always rather tiny :(
Comment: you're supposed to model the missing parts yourself :) That make it a workflow that isn`t meant for all.
Comment: heh. True, but I'd rather spend the time working on my shaders and getting it to sit right on a photo background if I know others have produced a full set of models in something else ;)
Comment: with the peeron measured colors and the "Arch and design" materials, you can get photorealistic plastics that are perfectly matching reality. with a calibrated background, you could get a an image that no one could tell it`s 3D. (I am assuming you have all the lego parts properly modeled, with the studs and lego embossing)
Comment: Yep, I was using the Arch and Design materials, and the rest, but had had some difficulty getting the model to a decent scale if I recall correctly.
Comment: I believe LEGO does their boxes and manuals using Maya. I wanted to write about that but couldn`t find any publicly available information. Someone, somewhere has all the bits it takes :)
Comment: Yes, lots of references to it on EuroBricks, not much else. Although I think I could just make it out in one of the "behind the scenes" videos recently.


Tonality of modes?

Question: With the basic modes like phrygian, Lydian etc, the modes with the same notes as C major ( so no flats or sharps) how do they sound different from a major or minor scale.( this is like E phrygian).
Comment: Have you tried listening to them?
Answer: You can rank modes in order of most sharpened to most flattened (or brightest to darkest or most major to most minor). This create a series that follows the circle of fourths. ie:
Mode Name -> Difference from Major Scale
F Lydian -> 4th is sharpened
C Ionian -> nothing sharpened or flattened; this is the major scale
G Mixolydian -> flat 7
D Dorian -> flat 7 and 3
A Aeolian -> flat 7, 3 and 6 ; this is the natural minor scale
E Phrygian - flat 7, 3, 6 and 2
B Locrian -> flat 7, 3, 6, 2 and 5
As you can see each mode varies from the preceding one by adding one flat (or removing one sharp) in the order 4th 7th 3rd 6th 2nd 5th.
This way of looking at the modes creates a kind of tonal ranking which can help you to understand the way the modes sound relative to each other.
Answer: Each mode has a different sound. They have some specific notes that add the color in each of them.

Ionian mode is like the major scale
Dorian mode is like the natural minor scale, with a major sixth.
Phrygian mode is like the natural minor scale, with b2.
Lydian mode is like the major scale, with #4.
Myxolydian mode is like the major scale, with b7.
Aeloian mode is like the natural minor scale.
Locrian mode is like the natural minor scale, with b2 and b5.

So, if you listen to them, you'll see that each one sounds different than the other; also, it will sound different from the major and minor scales (except for Ionian and Aeolian).
If you want to listen to the difference, play a natural minor scale and then play a Dorian or Phrygian or Locrian mode. You'll see that there is something different.
The same experiment you can use for the major scale (Ionian). First play a major scale scale and then play a Lydian or Myxolydian mode.
Comment: There is also modes of the 'jazz minor' scale, which are based off modes of an ascending melodic minor scale. More info: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Jazz_scale#Modes_of_the_melodic_minor_scale
Answer: The reason a mode sounds different is simple: which note is targeted as the base. which means which note is emphasized more than others. really it's a combination of the base note and the fifth above it. emphasizing these two notes more than the others give a different sort of tonality than a home base of "C and G".
Answer: Different unterlying harmonies, tonal focus, chord sequences and cadenze.  You seem to have no problem with A minor having the same notes as C major and still sounding different, so how is that different from other modes?
Answer: As in Matt L's comment, listening to pieces in different modes will help clarify them. For example, out of the 7, Ionian is the main (major) one used in so many pieces now. It centres around note 1, and 'feels right'. Aeolian, our go to minor, obviously uses the same notes, but centres around note 6. Often, to make it work better with its centre, the v chord is changed into a V. This gives a more definitive leading note.
Dorian (centred around note 2) sounds minor, as it has a b3. The big difference between this and Aeolian is that the effective iv that is associated with minor keys is now a IV - major , not minor.
Mixolydian sounds major, with its major 3, but it has no leading note as such - there's a b7 instead which gives it a blues feel, particularly on the '1' chord.
Phrygian sounds maybe Spanish, with the second note of that mode being oddly a semitone up from the root, not found in the 'normal' Western sounds.
Locrian sounds weird to many, as it gives an unstable feel to a piece, it being difficult to make a convincing way back to 'home'.
That just leaves Lydian !

Tonality of modes?


Find the image set of function $\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{x(1-x)}$

Question: The function $\displaystyle \frac{\sin(\pi x)}{x(1-x)}$ and $x \in (0, 1)$.
What is the image set for this one?
I thinking about finding the min and the max for this function. But it is not easy.
Comment: Note that the function is invariant under the transformation $x\to1-x$. Since the numerator and denominator both tend to $0$ for $x\to0$ and $x\to1$, you'll need to apply L'Hôpital's rule at one of these points.
Answer: Your idea of finding the minimum and maximum values is correct. To find the minimum and maximum values, we set the derivative equal to $0$:
$$0=\frac{d}{dx}\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{x(1-x)}=\frac{\pi x(1-x)\cos(\pi x)-(1-2x)\sin(\pi x)}{x^2(1-x)^2}$$
which simplifies to $\pi x(1-x)\cos(\pi x)=(1-2x)\sin(\pi x)$. By inspection, we see that $\cos(\pi\frac{1}{2})=0$ and $(1-2\frac{1}{2})=0$, so this holds when $x=\frac{1}{2}$. Can you show that this is the only point at which these are equal? If so, you get three critical points for the function: $0,\frac{1}{2},1$. All points in the image will lie between the values $\frac{\sin(\pi x)}{x(1-x)}$ takes at these points, and the image will be the set of values between these three, minus the images of $0$ and $1$.
EDIT: The function is not defined at $0,1$, but the limit as it goes to these points is (use L'Hôpital's rule to evaluate it) and this should be used instead.
Comment: In a similar vein, it's slightly inaccurate to speak of the minimum and maximum values, since the function as stated has no minimum value, only an infimum. Again, not to nitpick, just to avoid confusion in case the OP isn't already secure in using these concepts.
Comment: @joriki True, and thanks for pointing that out.
Answer: The function is symmetric about $x=1/2$, since $\sin z$ is symmetric about $z=\pi/2$, and $x(1-x)$ is symmetric about $x=1/2$. By looking at the derivative, you can fairly easily show that the function is increasing on $(0,1/2)$ and decreasing on $(1/2,1)$. The maximum value is therefore reached at $x=1/2$. There, the value is $4$.
Now you need to find the number that our function approaches as $x$ approaches $0$ from the right, or equivalently by symmetry as $x$ approaches $1$ from the left. For this, we can use L'Hospital's Rule, and find that this limit is $\pi$.
Or else we can use the fact that as $x$ approaches $0$, $\dfrac{\sin(\pi x)}{\pi x}$ approaches $1$, and that $1-x$ approaches $1$, to conclude that the limit is $\pi$.
We conclude that as $x$ ranges over the interval $(0,1)$, our function ranges over the interval $(\pi,4)$.
Remark: It is lucky that the interval we are asked about is so small, since  finding a closed form expression for the absolute minimum is probably not possible. It is not hard to see that the function function reaches an absolute  absolute maximum at $x=1/2$.


What is the difference between a Functor and the Command pattern?

Question: I am very familiar with the Command pattern, but I don't yet understand the difference in theory between a Functor and a command. In particular, I am thinking of Java implementations. Both are basically programming "verbs" represented as objects. However, in the case of functors, as I have seen from some examples anonymous inner class implementations seem common. Can anyone out there clear this up for me nicely?
Answer: A functor is an implementation, a way of making an object behave like a function.
The 'Command Pattern' is a design pattern.
The functor is one way to implement the 'Command Pattern'.
Comment: @Martin York: You might want to add "Marketing" -- Command has better marketing than 'Functor'.
Answer: A functor is a 'syntax level' concept - it packages up code in an object that can be treated syntactically like a function pointer - i.e. it can be 'called' by putting parameter list in brackets after it. In C++ you could make a class a functor by overriding operator().
A Command in the command pattern is an object that packages up some runnable functionality, but there's no requirement for it to be a functor. For example, it could be a class that implements an interface ICommand, allowing its command to be run by calling Do().
Comment: It is worth noting that a functor could be used to implement the command pattern.  Most object oriented programers would choose an object implementing a command interface, however.
Answer: Here comes the answer from the GOF:

Coplien describes how to implement
  functors, objects that are functions,
  in C++ [Cop92]. He achieves a degree
  of transparency in their use by
  overloading the function call operator
  (operator()). The Command pattern is
  different; its focus is on maintaining
  a binding between a receiver and a
  function (i.e., action), not just
  maintaining a function.
Answer: From the description of the Apache Commons Functor page:

A functor is a function that can be manipulated as an object, or an object representing a single, generic function.
Functors support and encourage a number of powerful programming techniques including:

programming in a functional style
higher order functions
internal iterators
reuse and specialization through composition rather than inheritance and overloading
generic "callback" or "extension point" APIs
generic "filters" or predicate APIs
many "behavioral" design patterns, such as Visitor, Strategy, Chain of Responsibility, etc.
Answer: The Command pattern is used in Java because we don't have closures in Java. Functors is an attempt to implement closures.
A language with closures doesn't need the Command pattern.
Comment: It would probably be more fair to say that (some forms of) the command pattern can be implemented much easier using closures. (And if the command supports undo for example, you need more than just a closure to implement it.)
Answer: According to GOF (Gang of Four) cited definition (by Comptrol), Functor and Command are two different Patterns.
As already stated, Functor represents a Class containing a service method, in other terms: the main responsibility for the functor class is to store the specific logic implemented in its own method. Hence, we can think at the functor how a container for its own method's inner logic. Historically, Functor borns because in the Java specification is not present the implementation and/or concept of 'function pointer', which is very useful in the context of registered callbacks (specific implementation for the observer pattern).
The Command Pattern represents a Design pattern aimed to decouple an Invoker entity from a Receiver one. It is mainly used when it is needed to decuple the actions (generating the events) from the action listeners (think to GUIs). It has a method responsible for the excecution of a specific operation (depending on the particular command implementation from its own superclass) referring to a specific Object Receiver; in the stated definition, the execution method can be defined as "not smart", in fact with a smart implementation could be itself to implement operative logic instead of delegating it to a third object.
When we have a smart execution method, we are implementing a functor, and we are putting the functor (specific command subpart implementation) in the context of command pattern.
I hope this will be helpful for you.
Answer: I think of a functor as being a component of the command pattern, which also involves other infrastructure such as the invoker and command recipients.


Will the scriptural statements about continuous creation be falsified upon liberation of all as per Advaita?

Question: According to Advaita Vedanta, this world is just an illusory perception because of avidya of jiva. When jiva realizes that he is brahman, then nothing else exists for him. If all the jivas in the world attain mukti, then does the scripture statements about creation again after pralaya have any meaning. Is there anyone to perceive this illusory creation? Does some other portion of brahman fall under avidya keeping the statements valid?
Comment: there are an infinite number of jivas. infinity minus infinity equals infinity. There will always be jivas, always be a new creation...
Comment: @SwamiVishwananda it is very difficult to comprehend how at all times infinite jivas exist in the creation.
Answer: This question is more or less duplicate of What will happen if all souls inhabiting Earth attain Moksha? , However as the question deals with interpreting scriptural statements about creation according to Advaita, answering the question:
According to Ajatavada (This is Absolute Truth as per Paramarthika level, not Vyavharika level. So, I suggest to read about Vivartavada also), there is no real process like creation, delusion etc.
According to Mandukya Karika of Gaudapada (verse 2.32) :

न निरोधो न चोत्पत्तिर्न बद्धो न च साधकः ।
  न मुमुक्षुर्न वै मुक्त इत्येषा परमार्थता ॥ ३२ ॥
na nirodho na cotpattirna baddho na ca sādhakaḥ |
  na mumukṣurna vai mukta ityeṣā paramārthatā || 32 ||
32. There is no dissolution, no birth, none in bondage, none aspiring for wisdom, no seeker of liberation and none liberated. This is the absolute truth.

Touching to the real question: What abot scriptural statements that talk about creation and dissolution if that's not reality. The answer is: Those statements are purposed to explain the non-duality of Brahman with Jiva and Jagat.
Verse 3.15:

मृल्लोहविस्फुलिङ्गाद्यैः सृष्टिर्या चोदितान्यथा ।
  उपायः सोऽवताराय नास्ति भेदः कथंचन ॥ १५ ॥
mṛllohavisphuliṅgādyaiḥ sṛṣṭiryā coditānyathā |
  upāyaḥ so'vatārāya nāsti bhedaḥ kathaṃcana || 15 ||
15. (The scriptural statements regarding) creation as illustrated by examples of earth, iron, sparks, etc., or otherwise, (only) serve the purpose of (ultimately) explaining the unity (of Jīva and Brahman). (Really speaking) multiplicity does not exist in any manner.

I suggest to go through Adi Shankaracharyas Bashya (on these verse) also which raise some objections and answeres them.
Closely related post: Is Moksha a permanent state?
Answer:
"All the jivas attain mukti" and " creation again after pralaya" together seem to ask that if all the jivas attain mukti, pralaya will come and after that how can we explain creation? First, creation and Liberation has no realmeaning in Advaitavaada and so we have to understand it in Dvaitabhava.
All jivas do not attain mukti simultaneuslly. Sri Krishna says in Gita:

7.3 Among thousands of men a rare one endeavours for perfection. Even of the perfected ones who are diligent, one perchance knows Me in truth.
18.61 O Arjuna, the Lord resides in the region of the heart of all creatures, revolving through Maya all the creatures (as though) mounted on a machine!

So its clear that God, who can alone grant Mukti, goes on getting the people revolving by Maya and so does not want to give Mukti to all. He gives the mukti to only a few people.So long we are in this world with the senses of "I" and "Me", there is no Advaita for us!
Sri Ramakrishna puts it beautifully in Kathamrita (24 May 1884):

This world is Her play..She sants it to continue for some time.
one of a million kites (Ghuri) get cut.(gets liberated).

So all the jivas will never attain mukti simultaneously. Pralaya will come at the point of time determined by God.
After each pralaya, God projects this world out from within by His maya. He is infinite and so is His maya (Gita):

9.7 O son Kunti, all the beings go back at the end of a cycle to My Prakrti. I project them forth again at the beginning of a cycle.
9.8 Keeping My own prakrti under control, I project forth again and again the whole of this multitude of beings which are powerless owing to the influence of (their own) nature. (tr. by #w. Gambhirananda)

In Sri Ramakrishna's words (8 April 1883):

At the time of pralaya,nothing will remain. The Mother Goddess will pick up the seeds of creation and keep with Her. She will take these seeds out again at the time of next creation.

So to be precise, all are controlled by God, Who wants this creation to continue as He gets joy out of it and so He would never grant Mukti to all simultaneously. At the time of Pralaya.He retains the seeds of creation and sows them again as the new world is projected by Him.
As mentioned earlier, according to Advaitavaada, there is no paramarthika existence of Sristi and so of Mukti.So Advaitavad has nothing to do with it.


How do I get my graphic card to work properly?

Question: I been having some problems with my graphic card for a time now. But I had enough when I didn't get Oil Rush to work on my HP Pavilion g6. The system has suggested hardware drivers for me, but the first time I installed them they pretty much ruined the graphics. After some time I managed to get the computers to work properly (I thought) again. When the game didn't work I tried to the hardware drivers for the graphic card anyway. First of all there was to possible choices instead of one, as the last time I installed the drivers (when it didn't work out so good). The choices are:

ATI/AMDs proprietary video drivers FGLRX (update for edition)
Proprietary FGLRX-video drivers for ATI/AMD

I realized the drivers probably are pretty much the same, so I tried the first one. But this didn't work. Instead I was asked to "Look in to <code>/usr/var/log/jockey.log</code>". This didn't helped me much. Instead I chose the other one, which was installed and after reboot there where some changes. First of all there was a lot more details for Unity that wasn't there before and some shortcut keys are now working that didn't before (like Ctrl + T and the Prt Sc-button). But overall everything doesn't work as it used to. Like when you browse between the work-spaces it doesn't look the same. To get to the point:
  it doesn't work well right now even if I got some things better and now will not Oil Rush (as I mentioned in the beginning) even start.
Can someone give me any advice with this? I'm stuck. Can't manage to see whats wrong right now.
My graphic card is AMD Radeon HD 6470M.
Comment: This question appears to be abandoned. Unaccepted answer or unanswered, could you perhaps add more detail to your question? If this question no longer applies then you can either delete it or answer it yourself if you've solved the problem. Flagged for deletion. Thanks!
Comment: Possible duplicate? This thread might help you. Even i have faced same problem but i have followed the below steps which has neatly explained http://askubuntu.com/questions/205112/ubuntu-12-10-amd-intel-hybrid-graphics-not-working
Comment: AMD and linux is a no-go in my expirience.
Answer: I've also faced this kind of problem, I've uninstalled amd drivers removing all fglrx related in synaptic package manager and installed the brand new amd driver released on january 25th 2012 and everything works perfectly now, you should try:
http://support.amd.com/fr/gpudownload/linux/Pages/radeon_linux.aspx
regards
Comment: I'm not getting the file to work actually. It just stops in a working process opening Gedit.
Comment: No, it's just me who is impatient. Will return with an answer about the effect of this solution on my laptop.
Comment: Yeah, finally got the point where it was done. But it did'nt work. I got an error saying that the file could'nt be open because there were unknown symbols in the file. Do you have any suggestions?
Answer: Also this thread is very helpful: http://ubuntuforums.org/showthread.php?t=1930450


How do the Seventh Day Adventist approach Old Testament laws?

Question: I know the Seventh Day Adventist church is known for following certain Old Testament laws found in Leviticus such as the food/dietary laws. However I'm also under the impression that they don't follow all 600+ Levitical laws either. Is there a reason why they follow certain Levitical laws like food/dietary but don't follow others, such as wearing clothing made of two different materials (Lev 19:19) or cutting the hair at the sides (Lev 19:17)? To what extent do they keep the laws?
Comment: I'm not an SDA*, but I know most wouldn't consider themselves to be following "Levitical law."  The SDA church promotes many health/diet practices based on their traditions, the Bible, and the teachings of Ellen G. White.  With respect, I will say the question has a hidden bias.  Most modern Christians follow some of the teachings of the OT.  Most Protestant denominations will affirm at least 9 of the 10 commandments.  Most will discourage incest and bestiality.  The implication of contradiction or inconsistency is a common  (but misguided) criticism of Christians, and is not unique to SDA.
Comment: They follow the noahide laws. I'll answer later if I have time.
Comment: Yes I'd agree there are commandments/laws that carry though to the NT, as affirmed by Christ and even Paul, but there are things like food laws that I don't see affirmed into the new covenant, therefore leaving us free from it, as far as I can read anyway, which is why I seek clarification. I know there are other groups that carry through other laws too, but  I guess SDA seemed to be most renown
Answer: We Seventh Day Adventists distinguish between three different kinds of laws in the Bible:

Moral laws.
Ceremonial laws.
We also believe that there were laws in the OT specific to Israel as a nation. Something like their "civil code".

(Strictly speaking, there are also a few descriptions of other nations' laws in some books, like Persian laws in Daniel, or Roman laws in the NT; but these have nothing to do with theology or with laws given by God to His people.)
First, let me say that for us, the only laws that apply today are the Moral laws. But this poses at least two more questions:

How do we distinguish between the three types of laws?
Why, if the ceremonial laws do not apply anymore, are we still not eating some meals?

I will do my best to briefly answer these questions:
1. Distinction
The moral laws are the Ten Commandments (Exodus 20 and Deuteronomy 5). They are different from any other laws in the OT in at least the following aspects:

Although beautifully synthesized in the Ten Commandments, all of them are supported by the Bible as a whole. For example, Adventists believe that the Sabbath of the Fourth Commandment started with the Creation (Genesis 2:1-3), and thus it was given to mankind and not just to Israel. I mention the Sabbath because most Christians will probably agree on the other nine as perfectly valid today (probably with some different points of views, mainly from the Roman Catholic Church regarding the Second Commandment). There is a lot to write about the Sabbath and why it's still important today, but that's better for a different, new question.
They were written by God Himself in stone and given to Moses (Exodus 31:18 and 32:16).
Those were the only laws in the Ark of the Covenant (2 Chronicles 5:10, Hebrews 9:4). That's in relation with Adventists' unique fundamental belief of the Sanctuary, which is probably the most distinctive doctrine in Adventism.
They will apply after the Second Coming of Jesus, as they are the base of God's government (Revelation 22:14, Isaiah 66:22-23).
The Law of God is of such importance that it required Jesus to die for us, as the Only Means of Salvation. In other words, His law is absolutely immutable, so not even God will change it, giving his only Son instead (John 3:16).

On the other hand, the ceremonial laws were only of importance in the context of giving the OT people the best possible understanding of God's plan of salvation. This is also better understood (in an Adventist context) through the belief of the Sanctuary. These, and only these laws, according to Adventism, were abolished in the cross.
Finally, regarding the laws that were only regulating OT Israel's life as a nation under the theocracy (although were applied too under certain kings—not all—during the Monarchy), probably most Christians will agree that those were given only for that context and that they are easy to distinguish even from ceremonial laws. Jesus even mentioned that some of them were given to Israel "because of the hardness of your hearts" (Mathew 19:8). For most Adventists interpreters, these laws have a relation with our fundamental belief of the Present Truth (a topic that would  exceed this question).
2. Health and OT laws:
The idea that we extract our health practices (barely the only practices in relation with the OT laws that aren't part of the moral law) from the OT ceremonial or "civil" laws is a misunderstanding of Adventism. In fact, a lot of Adventists are vegetarians simply because our idea is that God created us (and the animals—yes, our view of Creation is a bit different too) as vegetarians (Genesis 1:29-30, 2:9). That's present in other portions of the Bible, in relation with health (see Daniel 1:8-20). For example, Ellen White wrote about the people living before the Flood:

"They loved to destroy the lives of animals. They used them for food,
  and this increased their ferocity and violence, and caused them to
  look upon the blood of human beings with astonishing indifference."
  (Spirit of Prophecy, p. 69)

There are plenty of other White's statements about food and health (see Ellen G. White's Message on Health)
So for us, God authorized at some point to eat some meats, but that does not mean that that was His original plan at all. And the "authorized" meat was, in our view, the "less unhealthy". Also, it's worth noting that the distinction between clean and unclean animals appears much earlier in the Bible than when Israel's laws were given, as the clean animals are in the Flood story, supernaturally selected by God in bigger quantity to enter the Ark, as stated in Genesis 7:2:

Of every clean beast thou shalt take to thee by sevens, the male and his female: and of beasts that are not clean by two, the male and his female.

So for Adventists who are not vegetarians, the OT food laws act as the guide, although a lot of us do understand that our duty is to become vegetarians. But please note that this is not the understanding of all Adventists, so our consensus is to at least, follow OT rules regarding food.
Finally, this page may be of help describing our 6 Doctrines and our 28 Fundamental Beliefs, including taking care of our bodies as a Temple for the Holy Spirit (1 Corinthians 6:19-20): www.adventist.org -> Beliefs.
Comment: Welcome to Christianity.SE, and thanks for taking the site tour. Thanks also for providing a good, solid answer to this question. For more on what this site is all about, see: [How we are different than other sites](http://meta.christianity.stackexchange.com/q/1808/20394). I hope you will also browse some of the other questions and answers here.
Comment: Thank you! And thanks for editing, and for the link. Blessings!
Answer: Seventh Day Adventists's do not base their teachings on health on OT laws. They do, however, generally follow the concept of clean and unclean meat found in Leviticus, if they are Omnivores.  Those who follow the health guidelines are Vegetarians, this comes from the original creation diet and also the diet of Daniel.  This is also endorsed be Ellen White, who had the gift of prophecy.
It is also important to note that being a vegetarian is not a requirement or belief. Adventists believe that they ought to look after their body to better serve God and the community.  It is also a useful tool to engage people who are looking for a healthy lifestyle to enable them than to share Christ and how he works on hearts as well.This is stated in the fundamental belief on Christian behaviour. https://www.adventist.org/en/beliefs/living/christian-behavior/

It also means that because our bodies are the temples of the Holy
  Spirit, we are to care for them intelligently. Along with adequate
  exercise and rest, we are to adopt the most healthful diet possible
  and abstain from the unclean foods identified in the Scriptures. Since
  alcoholic beverages, tobacco, and the irresponsible use of drugs and
  narcotics are harmful to our bodies, we are to abstain from them as
  well. Instead, we are to engage in whatever brings our thoughts and
  bodies into the discipline of Christ, who desires our wholesomeness,
  joy, and goodness.

Regarding other laws in the old testament, Adventists would subscribe to the idea that they persist through the death of Christ. That Christ did not abolish the law but came as a perfect sacrifice. Therefore fulfilling the sacrificial laws, but not abolishing Gods laws.  The most notable are the ten commandments, which includes remembering the Sabbath as the fourth commandment, which is where the Seventh Day Adventists get their name. Once again this is articulated in the belief statements. https://www.adventist.org/en/beliefs/living/the-law-of-god/

The great principles of God's law are embodied in the Ten Commandments
  and exemplified in the life of Christ. They express God's love, will,
  and purposes concerning human conduct and relationships and are
  binding upon all people in every age. These precepts are the basis of
  God's covenant with His people and the standard in God's judgment

As a seventh day Adventist, I find confidence in this idea when Jesus says. "For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished." Matthew 5:18
Comment: Welcome! Thanks for contributing.  If you'd like to strengthen your answer, I'd recommend adding sources from official SDA sources to supplement your experience.  I hope you'll take a minute to review [how this site is different from others](http://meta.christianity.stackexchange.com/a/1809/21576), and better understand how [your answer can be supported](http://meta.christianity.stackexchange.com/q/692/21576).
Comment: I appreciate the answer, but what I'm trying to understand is how do you distinguish between following something like clean and unclean food (which was given as a law, which SDA follow still) as apposed to wearing clothing made of two different fabric (also given as a law but the SDA don't follow). How do you decide?
Comment: I believe it is the intention of the original command.  For instance, with unclean meat, you will not be kicked out of the church. However, culture and the teachings will encourage you to pursue a healthy lifestyle.  It is understood that God had a reason to make those particular animals unclean and that we can know that today.  For instance, most unclean animals are scavengers and eat food that would be undesirable.
Comment: Another example could be the idea of burning a tent with mildew.  We do not burn down houses with mildew because we can treat it with chemicals that kill the underlying issue. We also know more about the health impact of mould and mildew.

The only commandments that Adventist believe are immutable are the ten commandments which were placed in the ark of the covenant.
Answer: First, about the dietary guidelines: they are based on Genesis, not Leviticus; in other words, they don't stop at Moses, but rather go all the way back to Eden.
Adventists don't follow any of the Levitical laws as such (though there is a small group that believes we should). We sometimes refer to portions of Leviticus because the founders of the denomination convinced the church, through reason and scripture, that specific portions of it are still relevant.
In my own words: when the Israelites were given the Ten Commandments, they said "do not let God speak to us" and "Everything the Lord has said we will do", instead of a simple "thank you". Essentially, they misunderstood "you shall" as "you must", causing Moses to write down the law in more detail (in Leviticus), and were later given 490 years to make an end of transgressions, which, being mere humans, they were unable to do: we need God to accomplish that within us.
Adventists, on the other hand, do not consider these laws (even the ones we like to quote, such as the clean/unclean animals) to be binding in every detail. They were an application of the law to their culture, their needs, and their level of knowledge.
As for the Ten Commandments, the Adventist Church definitely considers them to be more holy than the lesser laws; they were written in stone by the finger of God and are a transcript of His character (p.434). They are timeless, they cross the cultural boundaries; we believe it is the Ten Commandments which Paul says are "written in the hearts" of those who "do instinctively the things of the Law" (Romans 2:14, 15).
Comment: Welcome to Christianity.SE. For a quick overview, please take the [Site Tour](http://christianity.stackexchange.com/tour). Thanks for offering an answer here. For more on writing good answers on this site, please see: [What makes a good supported answer?](http://meta.christianity.stackexchange.com/q/692/20394)


What happens to the GPIO voltage after shutdown?

Question: I don't have a Raspberry Pi laying around at the moment and I would like to detect if my Raspberry Pi is shuted down. My Idea is that maybe after the Pi shutted down the Voltage at the 3V3 pin will drop and I can detect this. And if this still works when the Pi is getting powered via the 5V Pin.
Unfortunatly the Raspberry Pi Schematic is not completly available so I am not able to check this right now.
Comment: It will consume less power, at the same voltage, so no.  It doesn't have much in the way of power management, it is either plugged in or not.  "Shutdown" is mostly about the state of the operating system.
Comment: Ook sad to hear but hey thanks man :)
Comment: @Freygeist you could make a very simple script with the `gpio` utility that sets a pin high at boot and low on shutdown based on different run levels
Answer: The Pi has 3 "components" the CPU, GPIO and Video Core which are relatively independent.
Even when the Pi is shutdown the Video Core continues to run, and the GPIO pins retain their state; only the CPU is not running.
The 3.3V is supplied by separate circuitry and will be present while ever the Pi is connected to a 5V supply.
The best way to reliably detect Pi shutdown is to use the gpio-poweroff service built into recent firmware which "Drives a GPIO high or low on poweroff" - this was included to control power circuitry. NOTE read the instructions carefully as there is some interaction with other services. You MUST remove power if this is used.
Name:   gpio-poweroff

Info:   Drives a GPIO high or low on poweroff (including halt). Using this
        overlay interferes with the normal power-down sequence, preventing the
        kernel from resetting the SoC (a necessary step in a normal power-off
        or reboot). This also disables the ability to trigger a boot by driving
        GPIO3 low.

        The GPIO starts in an inactive state. At poweroff time it is driven
        active for 100ms, then inactive for 100ms, then active again. It is
        safe to remove the power at any point after the initial activation of
        the GPIO.

        Users of this overlay are required to provide an external mechanism to
        switch off the power supply when signalled - failure to do so results
        in a kernel BUG, increased power consumption and undefined behaviour.

Usage:  dtoverlay=gpio-poweroff,<param>=<val>

Params: gpiopin                 GPIO for signalling (default 26)

        active_low              Set if the power control device requires a
                                high->low transition to trigger a power-down.
                                Note that this will require the support of a
                                custom dt-blob.bin to prevent a power-down
                                during the boot process, and that a reboot
                                will also cause the pin to go low.
        input                   Set if the gpio pin should be configured as
                                an input.
        export                  Set to export the configured pin to sysfs
        active_delay_ms         Initial GPIO active period (default 100)
        inactive_delay_ms       Subsequent GPIO inactive period (default 100)
        timeout_ms              Specify (in ms) how long the kernel waits for
                                power-down before issuing a WARN (default 3000).

As GPIO retain their state, other methods of detecting state are unpredictable - the Pi sets the state of the poweroff pin before finally shutting down (and flashes the ACT LED 10 times).

The Pi4 puts the power management chip into a low power state when off - turning off the 3.3V supply and effectively totally shutting down the SoC.
This low power on the Pi4 can be disabled e.g. to use the soft reboot option, but requires modified firmware.
Comment: This would have been a great way to deal with the poweroff detection. But why, oh why it must "prevent the ability to boot by driving GPIO3 low"? So this makes it impossible to use in parallel with the simple power-on pushbutton connecting GPIO3 and GND pins.
Answer: This howchoo post shows how to connect an LED to show the status of the Pi. The LED is steady on when the Pi is running, and off after shutdown.
Briefly:
Add this line to /boot/config.txt, and reboot

enable_uart=1
Connect the TxD pin (GPIO pin 8) to the positive lead of a 2 or 3 volt LED.

Connect a ground pin (e.g. GPIO pin 6) to a 330 ohm resistor, then to the negative lead of the LED.

Copied from https://raspberrypi.stackexchange.com/a/99366/101680


Can I use Arduino to generate a 0 to 15V analog output?

Question: Is it possible to use the analog output pin with some circuit to generate a 0 to 15V analog output?
Comment: Yes, _if_ you use an amplifier.
Answer: The Arduino cannot directly produce anything more than 5V.
You can use PWM and a Low-Pass Filter to produce an analog waveform between 0 and 5V, which you can then amplify using a suitable non-inverting buffer with 3x gain (op-amp), which will boost the voltage to 15V. Whether that is suitable for your needs, though, since the current will generally be quite low (most op-amps have a high output impedance) is unknown.
If you want a cleaner waveform you can attach or create a DAC which produces discrete output voltages (again between 0 and 5V) which you then amplify similarly.

simulate this circuit – Schematic created using CircuitLab
R3 and C1 form the low-pass filter and should be sized according to the frequency ranges you want to filter and keep. Note that many op-amps that can cope with the higher voltages you need aren't rail-to-rail which means you will have to use a higher power supply voltage than you want to output to leave some headroom. Similarly the 0V will be clipped and will never go below a certain voltage. If you want to get right down to 0V you will need a negative power supply to feed the V- supply of the op-amp (which is currently connected to ground in this schematic). That would allow the output to drop right down to 0V.
Comment: Thank you very much. Your explanation is really helpful. I don't need a high current output. What op-amp do you suggest me to use? What is the triangle at the bottom of the figure? Is that the ground?
Comment: Yes, that is ground. I suggest a parametric search on your favourite electronics supplier. You are looking for one that works at a high enough voltage and, if you don't want a negative supply, then one that works on a single supply rail.
Comment: The supplier in my region is quite hard to work with. Do you mind suggest a model no. for me? I think the minimum voltage output I need is 0.3V. Do I need a negative supply?
Comment: You could try the TL072, though I can't see in the datasheet how well it works with a single supply.
Comment: finally, I have tried the circuit, but I found that the voltage output is 5-17V.
Comment: I connect the arduino board to my macbook air without charging, the circuit ground is connected to the arduino ground pin. Any idea?
Answer: The Arduino does not have any "analog output pin". There are analog inputs, and you can generate a variable output with PWM pins.
Whether the latter meets your needs depends on your (unstated) requirements.


When do I have to use 午{ご}前{せん}中{ちゅう} and 朝{あさ}?

Question: I am confused with the usage of 午前中 and あさ. When should they be used properly?
明日のあさに銀行で口座を開きます。
明日の午前中に銀行で口座を開きます。
Answer: If you mean "morning", I think they're often interchangeable.  The native Japanese 朝 is more common, and if I search the Balanced Corpus of Contemporary Written Japanese (BCCWJ) for your particular phrase, we find about a five-to-one ratio in favor of 朝:
<code>   明日の朝に     50 results
   明日の午前中に   10 results
</code>
In general, I would say there's no difference in meaning.  Both typically refer to "morning", which is most commonly the period of time after the sun rises.  When I look up 朝 in dictionaries, they're ambiguous about when it ends—for example, 明鏡国語辞典 says it can refer to either a short while after the sun rises, or it can extend all the way to roughly noon:

夜が明けてからしばらくの間。また、夜が明けてから正午ごろまでの間。

Literally speaking, you might expect 午前中 to refer more properly to the twelve hours from midnight to noon, so that would be a difference in meaning.  And in certain contexts such as weather forecasts, it has exactly that meaning, while 朝 is more restricted, so they aren't always strict synonyms.  But in many contexts, I think 午前中 refers to roughly the same span of time as 朝.
Sometimes 朝 might be conceptualized more like a point in time, while 午前中 is always a span of time thanks to 中.  So 朝ずっと is a little unusual, but 朝からずっと "ever since this morning" is fine; and 午前中ずっと "all morning" is fine, while 午前中からずっと is silly:
<code>   朝ずっと      1 result
   午前中ずっと    11 results
   朝からずっと    28 results
   午前中からずっと  0 results
</code>
I think Eiríkr Útlendi is correct that the Sino-Japanese 午前中 belongs to a slightly more formal register, but it's a common phrase and I think you can use it in casual conversation if you like.
Comment: Yes~ if you say 明日の朝に銀行で口座を開きます I'll think you'll go to the bank by around 10am or maybe by 10:30am, and if you say 明日の午前中に銀行で口座を開きます then I'll think you'll go by noon.
Answer: They mean more or less the same thing.  In terms of more subtle nuances, note that 朝【あさ】 is the native Japanese word, while 午前中【ごぜんちゅう】 is derived from Chinese.  The Japanese language has many of these native / Sinic pairs that mean mostly the same thing, a bit like how English has many pairs of terms that mean mostly the same thing, where one term in the pair originally came from Anglo-Saxon or other Germanic roots, while the other term in the pair originally came from Latin or Greek roots.  Just as in English, where the term that was originally from Latin or Greek often comes across as slightly "fancier" or more formal, it's usually the same in Japanese, where the Sinic term is often considered to be a higher register.
So whether to say 朝に or 午前中に in your sample sentence is really a matter of social context and stylistic word choice.


What happens when a vampire cast Mirror Image?

Question: According to the Monster Manual a variant Vampire spell caster can cast the Mirror Image spell. If vampires aren't reflected in mirrors and other reflective surfaces how would the vampire know how his or her mirror image should look?
Comment: Would a mirror image of a vampire cast a reflection in a normal mirror?
Comment: If you have further questions about this, you should ask a new question, rather than commenting on this one.
Answer: Mirror image doesn't have anything to do with mirrors.
A vampire can cast mirror image just fine, despite not reflecting in mirrors. Nothing in the spell description of mirror image says that you need to be able to see your reflection to cast the spell. There is no requirement to know what you look like to cast the spell.
Comment: Absolutely. Otherwise short-sighted spell casters would cast blurry self-images and colorblind spell casters might not be able to get their skin tones right.
Answer: The description of Mirror Image doesn't say you have to know what you look like. The text says "Three illusory duplicates of yourself appear," with no qualifications.
This means that a blind creature could cast the spell just as easily.* Or, if you have a smear of chocolate on your cheek that nobody told you about, the illusory duplicates would have identical smears of chocolates on their cheeks, even though you didn't know they should be there. A vampire with no reflection can benefit from the effects of the spell in the same way, because the spell just magically knows how the duplicates should look.
*The spell description says "A creature is unaffected by this spell if it can't see," but this refers to creatures that are trying to attack the caster of the spell.


Error code 805a0193 when using Store

Question: My Lumia 535 is failing to download apps or even install them, instead it gives me an error code 805a0193. I have been trying for the past 2 days now. How can I fix this?
Answer: This appears to be a server-side issue, apparently many people are reporting the same error on both Windows Phone 8.1 and Windows 8.1. Nothing to do but wait for it to be resolved.
More information here: https://www.windowslatest.com/2018/12/10/the-windows-phone-8-1-store-is-broken-with-error-805a0193/
Comment: I thought the servers have slowly been shut down.

Error code 805a0193 when using Store