Featured image, theme

Question: I would find it more interesting/organized if there was a theme to follow for the featured images each week. For example, this week post only pictures of cars, flowers, landscape or whatever and change the theme every week.
Answer: Hmmmm... It seems like that could be something to consider doing when our group is larger, but right now it's not as though we're getting so many entries that it is overwhelming. My concern in adding a theme is that we'd cut the number of entries in half if a theme were introduced.
There's also the notion of who comes up with the themes? Would the mods be in charge of coming up with something, or would someone need to maintain a weekly thread for voting on the theme like we already do for the picture? Sounds like adding quite a bit more admin work to something that really works fine as it is...
Comment: On the other hand, a theme might "level the playing field" a little.  With a wide open contest, the quality of images we are getting (often from the same group of people) are quite amazing, which may make it intimidating for other people (me, for instance) to even enter.  I submitted a few photos in the early days, one of which placed second one week, but which would probably not even be in the running any more.
Comment: I was thinking exactly the same problem as your second paragraph. Afterall, then we might have to introduce themes for the theme thread, etc.
Answer: If we ever did end up using a theme week, I'd like to suggest that we have a "un-edited" week, so the challenge would be to get the best photo out of your camera.  Many of the photos seem to have a lot of post-processing.  I'm not suggesting this is bad - the photos are stunning - but I bet there are a lot of excellent photographers out there who are not necessarily photo-editing gurus (or is that now a required skill to be a good photographer?).
Comment: I have one of those cameras which do not shoot at 210 px height :( Perhaps resizing and sharpening (unsharp mask) should be allowed?
Comment: I think RAW isn't the right idea. If you shoot RAW, yes post is required.
Comment: Sorry, I meant un-edited - ie. the challenge is trying to get the best shot out of your camera.  I will re-word my post.
Comment:  yes, you would have to resize the photo (but I'd suggest no cropping/straightening), and I guess sharpening would be OK.  I really didn't think this was a stupid idea...
Comment: I think there's reasonable rules for "un-edited" that we could come up with. In fact, we even have a question on that! http://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/9693/image-processing-editing-what-is-an-unmanipulated-image
Answer: I think this is a good idea too. I think @Jay brings up a good point about managing the which weeks have themes and what the themes are. I figure interested parties can hash out a system if we do choose to go with themes.
Here are a few random ideas (one stolen from @seanmc):

Unedited (strait from the camera, make it as perfect as you can with nothing but physical equipment)
Photomanipulated (do something unconventional, add photographic elements and blend together a new reality...or surreality, or something completely unreal!)
Brilliant Sunsets
Monstrous Mountains
Micro Macros
Pure Portraiture
Dripples (closeup water shots...ripples, drips, droplets, etc.)
Birds of a Feather (any shot of birds)
Wild Life (wildlife..duh!)
City Life
Nuanced Night (any shot from nighttime)
Astrophotography

As an added thought, from a management perspective, it might be good to have a "Theme Announcement" thread a week ahead of time to give people time to go out and get a shot for the upcoming theme (if the next week IS a theme...to @dpollitt's point it might be best not to have every single week be a theme week.)
Comment: If we are worried about it being too much work, we could make it a quarterly thing, and publish a schedule so the theme is known weeks or months ahead of time.
Comment: I personally am not really worried. It would be another thread to manage, and possibly a chat every couple weeks to determine what the next theme might be. However, I won't be a mod forever, and I am not sure who might take up the role after my term is up. It would be good to hear from others whether they think it might be too much of a management hassle. (I think PhotoSE is a breeze to moderate...this place runs like a well-oiled machine!)
Answer: Yes! This is a good idea. It would add some interest and focus to the pictures of the week contest.
Answer: The contest idea, this is similar to many photo sites I am familiar with in the past.
Personally I don't typically have time to go out and shoot the theme every week, so I would likely participate less if ever.
It does have some merit to expand your portfolio or challenge one, but it's just not my favorite way to shoot or think about shooting.
Comment: Every week wouldn't necessarily need to be a theme week. You also wouldn't necessarily be required to shoot something new...if you have an old existing photo that fit the theme, there is no reason you couldn't post that. ;)
Comment: Most contests I have read the rules for require new images, so I just figured.
Answer: Can I suggest a sports theme soon? I have not seen one yet, and have searched in the suggestiions.
I am fairly new to this site so do excuse if there has been a few already as I have searched but I do not want to manualy go through the archives of every week.

Featured image, theme


LAN to LAN (Tunnel) VPN with IPSec

Question: I'm having some issues setting up a LAN-to-LAN VPN.
Please keep in mind, that "the other side" won't change anything in their configuration.
This is my current setup:
Our side:
Router: Draytek 2820 (ADSL connected)
ADSL: Fixed IP address (using 184.108.40.206 as example here)
Draytek Primary IP: 192.168.19.254; Netmask 255.255.255.0

Internal network 1: 192.168.1.x
SMC Broadband Router: 192.168.1.2 (LAN) and 192.168.19.252 (WAN)

Internal network 2: 192.168.0.x
SBS Server with 2 NIC's. LAN on 192.168.0.x and WAN on 192.168.19.250 <- Requested by "the other side"

(There's a direct link between the Draytek router and this SBS Server on 192.168.19.x)

On the other side the information given was
(shown as received via e-mail):
Peer "Their Side": 18.104.22.168 (as example of course)
Peer "Our Side": 126.96.36.199
LAN OurSide: 192.168.19.128/25 (Between SBS Server and Router)
LAN TheirSide: 10.0.0.0/20
Preshared Key: ABCDEFGHIJ
Authentication: ESP/MD5/HMAC-128
Encryption: 3DES-168
IKE Proposal: IKE-3DES-MD5
IPSec Nat-T
Server: 192.168.19.250 (SBS Server)

Also, they've send us a printscreen where we can see:
Digital Certificate: None (Use preshared keys)
Certificate Transmission: Identity certificate only
Filter: 10.0.10.217
Local Network:
 IP: 10.0.0.0
 Wildcard Mask: 0.0.15.255
Remote Network:
 IP: 192.168.19.128
 Wildcard Mask: 0.0.0.127

I just can't get this to work. I only need the VPN to establish connection, or if this Draytek model (2820) can establish such connection, after that, the remaining configurations would be easy, don't mind the initial setup (3 different networks), that, I can take care, the VPN... not.
The old router on our side, was a CISCO, and was setted up by other people.
However, we don't have access to it. This CISCO was connected on a different ADSL line also with fixed IP.
The "other side" support guy, told me that the request was reaching their network, however, doesn't met requirements sent and as such... no access.
He won't give further help, it's like a mechanic telling you that the car doesn't work but you don't know if it is because of a empty tank or a broken motor.
Any help?
Answer: SOLVED
After all, Draytek 2820 didn't support NAT-T without making a few changes via telnet.
srv nat ipsecpass off

This, and setting my public IP in some obscure IPSEC settings.

LAN to LAN (Tunnel) VPN with IPSec


Reference for stellar figures

Question: Could anybody suggest a reference for the present stellar models? In particular, I would appreciate references containing the core temperatures and pressures of neutron stars...
Answer: I would suggest Stellar Structure and Evolution by Rudolf Kippenhahn and Alfred Weigert. It's a pretty thorough reference guide in terms of describing the processes that occur in stars and how they are used in stellar models. It's also cited quite a bit in astrophysics papers which deal with computational models of stars. It includes a brief chapter on neutron stars which gives some of what you might be seeking.
For more recent and accurate values for these core temperatures and pressures, I would search for astrophysics papers that deal with neutron star evolution. A simple keyword search for "neutron star" or "neutron star structure" in an academic journal database should return an ample amount of results from various papers including tables, graphs and other useful figures.

Reference for stellar figures


Examples of interventions that yield large long term effect sizes in psychology

Question: I was listening to a podcast entitled Very Bad Wizards, hosted by two university academics.  One of the hosts, namely David Pizarro who is a psychologist at Cornell made the claim that most psychological mechanisms have small effects.  I have heard this too mentioned by Daniel Lakens on the small likelihood of psychological effects being very large > d =1.6.  That made me curious.  What are examples of interventions in Psychology that reliably induce long and large changes (large effects that last longer than ~3 months)?  The only example that comes to mind are mood states like trait anxiety being changed nearly indefinitely through CBT with pretty big effects.  A little background, I was a Psychology major and researcher in undergrad.  Enjoy reading about meta research so I can go pretty technical.
Comment: How do you define a "large change"? Note that these Cohen's *d* effect size rules of thumb are arbitrary, and Cohen warns against cross context use.
Comment: Since you are Psychology major and researcher in undergrad your teachers should have provided you with this information at the beginning of each type of therapy. I do not know if to vote for closing this question since to elaborate an answer would have to review many subjects and the question is that it is necessary to compare the psychological interventions with placebo and non-psychological alternatives. What I can clarify is that many interventions have an effect size greater than treatment with psychopharmacology but without adverse effects.
Answer: Skill acquisition: If you take a novice on a task and get them to practice that task, performance will tend to improve. See the Power Law of Practice. In many cases that I've seen, the difference between between initial and final performance is similar to the standard deviation of individual differences at baseline. So I guess you could call that a d of around 1. Of course, the exact numbers will depend on the domain, but that is indicative.
Of course, you also get forgetting effects which in some sense reduce the effect of skill acquisition over time, but there is also an associated faster relearning effect. And the degree of forgetting is related to a range of factors. In particular, motor-learning seems to have less forgetting than learning related to declarative facts.
Answer: From my optional subject Treatment in phobias:
According to the meta-analyzes of Ruhmland and Margraf in 2001, the pre-post effects of behavioral treatment on specific phobic measures ranged from 1.42 to 2.06 for the different treatments applied.

Effektivität psychologischer Therapien von spezifischer Phobie and Zwanggsstoerung: Meta Analyze auf Stoerungsebene (Efficacy of phychological treatments for specific phobia and obsessive compulsive disorsers). Verhaltenstherapie, 11, 14-26.

Powers and Emmelkamp found in 2008 an effect size of 1.05 for exposure techniques compared to waiting lists.

Powers, M. and Emmelkamp, P. (2008). Virtual reality exposure therapy for anxiety disorders: The meta-analysus. Journal of Anxiety Disorders, 22, 561-569.

Regarding anxiety and dental phobia, the effect size of behavioral treatment on control groups in self-reports of dental anxiety has been 1.79 and the size of the pre-post effect 2.25; The effects of cognitive therapy have been similar. As for dental care, the size of the effect has been 1.4; On average, 80% and 77% of the patients have made at least one visit to the dentist within 6 months and 4 years, respectively (anxiety and dental phobia) (Kvale, Berggren and Milgrom, 2004).

Kvale, G., Berggren, U. and Milgrom, P. (2004). Dental fear in adults: A meta-analysis of behavioral interventions. Community Dentistry and Oral Epidemiology, 32, 250-264.


Webj3 erc20 specify nonce for token transfer

Question: How do you specify a nonce when sending erc20 tokens using web3j?
Answer: The nonce in a transaction is the number of transactions by  the sender you can not set this.
It is to prevent double spending. This is not to be confused with the proof of work nonce.
Getting and setting the nonce for a transaction
What is nonce in Ethereum? How does it prevent double spending?
Dear mod if you delete this again you really shouldn't be moderating an Ethereum stackexchange...
Comment: This doesnt explain how it differs from ERC20 Tokens? Is the nonce the same for both?


Issue with having the same color for active and hover states in a menu?

Question: Im styling a flyout menu. Im going to style the active link and the hover state, and im wondering if it could be confusing to have them styled in the same way?
Answer: For me, the logical connection between the two would justify making both :hover and :active states looking the same, since 'hover' state shows the implied look of the element once it's been clicked.
The only confusion I could think of, is when the visitor hovers an element next to an active one. But then again - hover state is attached to a mouse cursor, which is in nearly constant movement, followed by your sight, and therefore you can observe the changes it makes, making the confusion quite unlikely to happen.
Going off from the philosophical tone however, if you truly wish to distinguish somehow between the two, I'd suggest introducing a single difference in styling between 'hover' and 'active'.
As an example making hover element's background color different from :link state, while :active having both background and font color different.


How should I cut through hardwood floor?

Question: I want to install steps to my basement.  I need to saw through a hardwood floor.  Is there anything specifically I need to do to the hardwood?
Answer: If you are going to salvage your floor, that is, try to set your new stairs with its landing nosing to meet the original floor, you need to make a rough cut with a carbide saw blade say about a 24 tooth blade. This cut is to be made smaller than you need at first to find the limits the stair will fit. After the area is checked for how the framing is in the area and the place is determined where the nosing will stop against the original floor, that cut is made with a new carbide tipped blade, if the other blade found nails. If a nail is found with the new blade, cut through it, then change to a new blade and continue cutting  until another nail is found, then replace the blade again.
If you are going to do a new floor "tie in" and flooring is to be reset anyway, then the final cut does not need to be this critical. If you are getting floor installers to do the tie in, they will cut back, tooth in, all that for you.  Just make sure the landing nose is securely set at the stair.
This is a start, other will factors determine how to cut the floor to make the install of stairs simpler, that would take photos of the area in question. As in, is it a stair well closed on the sides, or a open stair well with the new stairs exposed to the room to start?
Answer: Not really. If feeling overly fussy you can knife-cut just to the outside of where you'll saw cut, or tape over the cut area (both attempting to reduce splintering) but if you use a good sharp sawblade and don't jam it, you should be able to just dive in and cut it. The structures below are of more concern (wiring, plumbing, and holding up the joists.)
Use a sharp one, but don't use your nicest sawblade - you're probably going to hit some nails.
Comment: Another thing to reduce splintering is to use a high tooth-count blade, the same as when cutting hardwood to install it. A blade made for ripping plywood is going to ruin your day.
Comment: Be aware that the floor may be held down with hardened nails that may destroy the saw blade.


What was the first book-to-film adaptation?

Question: I've been doing my research about film adaptation. The object is a novel and film of "To Kill a Mockingbird". Now, I've seen on wikipedia that the first film that ever been adapted was Greed in 1924 (novel by Frank Norris and film directed by Erich von Stroheim) but then I read it in lots of article that there were earlier adapted works before that, such as Frankenstein in 1914 and Romeo and Juliet.
Answer: Cinderella was originally adapted in 1899. Technically it was adapted from a story in an anthology, but it's pretty darn close.

There's also "Trilby and Little Billee" from 1896 and "Death of Nancy Sykes" from 1897 although both are better characterised as single staged 'moving scenes' rather than actual movies with plot lines.
For the record, Frankenstein was originally adapted in 1910 by Edison Studios
Comment: All fine and well, but can you prove that this is the first instance of a film to adapt a previous work?
Comment: @MattD - I've come up with an earlier match. There's very little film at all before 1899.
Comment: @Richard - i see, that's quite helpful. thanks for your help
Answer: There is no way to "prove" a definitive first, as 75% of silent films from before 1930 have been lost forever. Silent movies adapted hundreds of books into films. Here is an example that explicitly shows that THE SHUTTLE (1918) with Constance Talmadge was adapted from the book. The advertising flyer is in the form of a book (here shown opened so that it can be seen better).

Charles Dicken's OLIVER TWIST was the basis for the short scene film THE DEATH OF NANCY SYKES (1897).
Answer: The 1902 silent film A Trip to the Moon by Georges Méliès was inspired by Jules Verne's novels, "From the Earth to the Moon" and "Around the Moon." A Trip to the Moon is also frequently referred to as the first science fiction film.
Comment: any references? you might want to add something more than just your words on the subject to make a better answer.


If we are travelling with the speed of light, can we see what's behind us?

Question: If we are travelling with the speed of light, can we see whats behind us(like if we are moving away from earth can we able see the earth)? And how we see the things that we are approaching with speed of light? Does the things look like fast forwarding because we are moving and the source also sending photons with the same light speed.
Comment: Unfortunately the laws of physics do not allow us to reach the speed of light.  We therefore cannot use the laws of physics to predict what would occur in such a situation.
Comment: Could you clarify your question? I'll close this till you do so..
Answer: Remember that there are no preferred frames in special relativity, so your question "If we are travelling with the speed of light, can we see whats behind us?" is exactly equivalent to asking "If something is travelling away from us at the speed of light can we see it?".
We know the answer to this because Nature has kindly done the experiment for us. You probably know that the universe is expanding so galaxies distant from us are moving away, and the speed they move away is dependent on their distance from us. This means there is a distance at which the galaxies are moving away from us at the speed of light. Subject to a few assumptions about the universe, the red shift of light from those galaxies will be infinite and this means we can't see them.
So the answer to your question is no!
Comment: I think your answer could be precised to a shorter version: "The objects would be *red-shifted* to darkness" :P
Answer: I know you don't realize it, but you're actually asking the wrong question. You're making an assumption (massive objects can go at the speed of light) that is unphysical. Still, thinking about this very question (and why it is wrong) is how Einstein came up with his Theory of Special Relativity, so it is worth thinking about.
One way to think about this is to imagine that you send out two photons, say one second apart. They're separated by a distance of one light-second, and assuming they never bounce off of something, they will never collide in the history of the universe.
However, photons don't experience time the way that massive objects do. Their creation and destruction occur at the same instant (as they would experience it); for things traveling at slightly below the speed of light, their creation & destruction occur rapidly (relative to the at-rest reference frame we're using to define their speed), but never quite instantly (as they never go quite at the speed of light).
In short, in order to think about how this works, you want to think about Special Relativity. I recommend reading Mr. Tompkins in Paperback. It does a lot better than I will, at helping you to get a sense of how things work when dealing with special relativity and things that move close to the speed of light. The book imagines that the speed of light were relatively slow, a few tens of miles per hour, and what happens when you take a train trip. It's a fun read.


What makes a good floor pump?

Question: There are so many options, mainly because of the own-brand alternatives. So how do I choose a good floor pump? What should I look for?
Comment: @Criggie - Some come with a plastic clip to hold ball needles.  But I don't know how well this works -- whether the needle is apt to get knocked off.
Comment: Generally known as a "floor pump".
Comment: You need to consider the tires you will inflate and buy a pump to match.  A low-pressure pump isn't good for high-pressure tires, and vice-versa.
Comment: Not a feature, but I sometimes wish a floor pump had a small storage compartment for ball valve needles or spare valve caps.  Mine's got a small film canister taped to the upright.
Comment: I have 3 or 4 cheap floor pumps that have been broken or won't pump high pressure or otherwise have been rejected.  Now I have a full-metal body Nashbar pump with a nice wooden handle and I love it.
Answer: I'd say it must have a good sturdy build and should be stable.
It must have a good pressure control and display; it should have a proper pressure range.
It should have a good connector with detachable/replacable plugs.
It should have a long hose, so you're not too close to the bike and make full control strokes on it.
Comment: Ideally the pressure gauge should be at the top of the pump, rather than down near the floor.
Comment: I'll add that it should pump relatively quick ... I have one pump that fills the tyre after 20 pushes, other one needs 50
Comment: Sturdy build can be had with either plastic or metal, but I definitely prefer my metal pump to my sister's plastic one.
Comment: @DanielRHicks Why on top? So you can see it better?
Comment: @RobertLisaru - Yep, a lot easier to read.
Answer: A double-sided chuck for both Presta and Schrader valves, with sturdy lever
"Universal" chucks don't work as well and aren't as durable (IME, so not the most expensive), while the type that involve switching bits inside are one thing for carrying on the bike when space/weight is at a premium but another for workshop use.
Answer: When you use the pump to inflate a tire the pump body gets hot.
This heating up results in a temporary expansion of the body itself.
If the cylinder and the base are made of two different materials (cylinder made of metal, base made of plastic) this thermal cycling can lead, in the long run, to loss of air tightness and less efficient pumping. In the worst case the pump can simply break.
So I personally prefer full metal body pumps.
Additionally, it is good if it has:

versatile head to fit different valves
pressure gauge with psi and bar reading
large base to be stable during usage
fair hose length
Comment: Check that the head fits the type of wheel. I had to get a new pump when the wife bought a Brompton. The pump-head worked well with a standard 700C-rim and spoke spacing but did not fit into the much narrower space between the Brompton's spokes.
Answer: The ability to shove pressurized air into a tire :-)
Seriously, it is very hard to discern minor quality difference between pumps. Best advice is:

Look for and read reviews.
Get one that looks and feels sturdy and relatively heavy.
Avoid the cheapest 1/3 of the available models.
Answer: It may be a long way down the road, but look for a pump who manufacturer offers rebuild kits for their older models.
Park pumps definitely have rebuild / service kits, as do Zefal and Silca.
However the extra cost of the premium brand might be weighed up against the value.
Answer: A Stable Base
Floor pumps stand on the floor and you hold your foot on one side for stability.  So a base that allows the pump to tip over is less useful.
A falling pump could smash the pressure gauge, or worse, subtly uncalibrate it)  This is more likely if the gauge is up the top.
Answer: Don't fuss over this.  No-one makes a floor pump that only does low or high-pressure tyres.  I've never seen one that didn't have adapters for both types of valve, and YOUR bicycle only has one type, so you won't be constantly changing over.   Yes, a floor pump is less work than the type you clip to your bike frame, but isn't part of the reason you cycle to get exercise?  Sure, treat yourself to a floor pump.  No need to go mad though.
Comment: I just saw one low pressure pump. Gauge went only up to 60 psi or so ??? It was an otherwise good looking pump, gauge was up instead of floor, arrow easily seen, sturdy, a tripod base...
Answer: It must have a valve between the cylinder and the hose, or else you will never build up a high pressure like 5 bar. The pumps that are also suitable for car tires have such valve, because the valve on the tire is opened by the chuck. Cheap bicycle pumps that depend on the tire's own valve are useless, you are just pumping up the dead volume of the hose. Unless you add a second valve..

What makes a good floor pump?


Get Web Part name from GUID

Question: We're migrating from SP2007 to SP2010 and are seeing some error messages about missing web parts during the upgrade, but the error messages only list the GUID and not the web part name. Is there a way to easily get the web part name from a GUID? Maybe a PowerShell command?
Comment: Did you run the pre-upgradescan before you migrated? This should've shown you if there are any orphaned Features in your farm.
Comment: James meant stsadm -o preupgradecheck
Comment: Yes I did, cheers. Those admin tasks evade me sometimes... *puts head back into sea of C# code*
Comment: Yes, we did run the pre-upgradecheck. There were some missing features, but some of the other problems were web parts that we carried over from SP2003 in the database, but those web parts don't exist in the file system. We're doing some major clean-up now.
Answer: Run the Get-SPFeature Powershell against your 2007 environment and it'll kick out a list of all of your features resolving the GUIDs to the names.
Powershell Commands to List SharePoint Features
To James' point, it sounds like you missed a step or two in your upgrade planning. Make sure you're running Test-SPContentDatabase before you kick off the actual upgrade to avoid those "oh by the way's" along the upgrade process.

Run stsadm -o preupgrade check from 2007 farm
Run Test-SPContentDatabase against the 2007 DB(s) from the new 2010 farm (this will show you what's missing; until this is clean don't proceed with the actual upgrade)
Kick off database attach/upgrade

Test-SPContentDatabase information
Comment: If the GUIDs that Get-SPFeature return do not match those in your errors, it could be that the GUIDs are actually the web part instance IDs. I'm not sure if there's an easy way to resolve this, but I do have a solution (that I'm not keen on publishing) if you're still stuck, even after trying Mike's solution here.
Comment: This is all good information! However, I'm looking to identify particular Web Parts from the GUID not lists. Any advice?
Comment: Try this post over on Phil's blog. You can use PowerShell to execute a SQL query to resolve the GUID against a particular feature or page. I've used this approach to identify the pages where the web parts were referenced so they could be removed. http://get-spscripts.com/2011/08/diagnose-missingwebpart-and.html. The other thing you should check is if the incompatible web parts are still in the web part gallery of any site; that can also throw an error. If you remove them, you must also clear the recycle bin or the references will remain in SQL and still throw the error.
Answer: One quick trick (which doesn't quite get you what you want, but will be helpful) is to add "?Contents=1" to the end of the URL for any page. This will show you the /_layouts/spcontnt.aspx page which displays all of the Web Parts which are on the page, including those which are closed. It's often the case that the issues are with closed Web Parts, and you can remove them from this page. (Always a good practice in any case.)
If the issue persists, then you can see the GUIDs for some of the open Web Parts using the Developer Tools in IE7+ or Firebug in Firefox. You can use either tool to inspect the DON and search for the GUID.
Answer: Then I've got some bad news for you as the only way to find out the answers for many of these issues is to dive into the content database directly via SQL Server Management Studio.  I know, I know, according to MS, you aren't supposed to ever go into the SQL database.  Unfortunately, they provide horribly inadequate tools when it comes to the 2007-2010 upgrade which leaves people with very few other options.  In order to answer your specific question, you will need to run SQL like this:
<code>SELECT WebParts.tp_SiteId, WebParts.tp_ID, WebParts.tp_ListId, WebParts.tp_Type, WebParts.tp_Flags, WebParts.tp_BaseViewID,
    WebParts.tp_DisplayName, WebParts.tp_Version, WebParts.tp_PageUrlID, WebParts.tp_PartOrder, WebParts.tp_ZoneID, WebParts.tp_IsIncluded,
    WebParts.tp_FrameState, WebParts.tp_View, WebParts.tp_WebPartTypeId, WebParts.tp_AllUsersProperties, WebParts.tp_PerUserProperties,
    WebParts.tp_Cache, WebParts.tp_UserID, WebParts.tp_Source, WebParts.tp_CreationTime, WebParts.tp_Size, WebParts.tp_Level,
    WebParts.tp_Deleted, WebParts.tp_HasFGP, WebParts.tp_ContentTypeId, AllDocs.DirName, AllDocs.LeafName
FROM WebParts INNER JOIN
    AllDocs ON WebParts.tp_PageUrlID = AllDocs.Id
WHERE (WebParts.tp_WebPartTypeId = 'c167c821-8b7a-598e-f56d-d94ba6459613')
</code>
(replacing the GUID with the web part type GUID you are looking for of course)
That isn't the exact SQL you will need but should get you started toward finding those missing pieces.  A large number of the issues you will hit in the pre-upgrade check can be identified by querying the WebParts and/or the AllDocs tables in some way.
Note: this is just to help you identify the specifics of the issue - do not modify the data in any way.
Comment: Per Dave Wise's answer above: Thanks, that worked great. However, even though my SQL Query returned 9000 results, about 18 of the 50 GUIDs are still not in the list. What does that mean? Also, how do I go about identifying features and eventhandlers? Also, a number fo the GUIDs are specified for search, do I have to activiate these in SP2010 or do they come standard with Search Services?

Get Web Part name from GUID


Magazine not delivered - what are they responsible for?

Question: If someone has a subscription to a Jewish weekly or magazine or newspaper (for example: Mishpacha, Binah, Ami, Jewish Press, Yated, Hamodia, etc.) and they are supposed to deliver on a specific day of the week. For some reason it was not delivered (not a situation beyond their control) what is the magazine or papers responsibility? My question is that usually a subscription is cheaper than the store price. Can they just tell you we will extend your subscription for a week and pick it up in the store this week, or should they really reimburse you your extra cost and time of purchase?
Comment: indeed. I also want to know. They all use the same delivery service.... They once upon a time had re-delivery but now do not....
Comment: This sort of situation is probably dealt with in their Terms of Service or something that the recipient agreed to when s/he signed up for a subscription.
Comment: I have never seen a term of service by any of these magazines or papers.
Comment: It's possible that "what can I as the customer demand?" and "what do I as the publisher owe?" have different answers.  You're asking the first, or both?
Comment: @Monica Cellio: I think that it would be the same answer. The customer can not ask for more than what the publisher owes in Halacha.
Comment: I was wondering about the other direction; it seems plausible that halacha might require the publisher to do more than the customer could directly ask for (out of derech eretz or the like).  Or not -- I don't know, which is why brought it up in comments.
Answer: The following is a restating of an article originally published in Hamodia and reprinted at businesshalacha.com.
Lets break this question down:

If someone has a subscription to a Jewish weekly or magazine or newspaper (for example: Mishpacha, Binah, Ami, Jewish Press, Yated, Hamodia, etc.) and they are supposed to deliver on a specific day of the week.

A subscription is not necessarily a contract between a buyer and seller, because under halacha, you cannot own something that has yet to exist (חושן משפט, ס' ר"ט, סע' ד).  Therefore, when one purchases a newspaper or magazine subscription, one does not actually attain any ownership of the yet to be published papers/magazines. Rather, a newspaper or magazine subscription is a commitment made by the publisher to provide to the customer the newspapers that will be published in the future in return for a fee. Commitments to provide future goods are not always legally enforceable, but if the subscriber and publisher continue with this unwritten agreement, then the advanced payment made by the subscriber constitutes payment for the purchase of the goods as well as their delivery.

For some reason it was not delivered...what is the magazine or papers responsibility?

Ordinarily, when one has a contract to purchase an item, the contract is completed when there is a kinyan -- an exchange of the purchased property (חושן משפט, ס' קפ"ט). But lets say that Homodia typically comes to you by a delivery boy who throws a copy onto your driveway.  Does that complete the transaction?  Is the seller's responsibility over, no matter what happens to the paper thereafter? If the paper is thrown into a guarded area, say within a fenced yard watched over by my fearless cocker spaniel, then a kinyan would have occurred and the paper has met its responsibility (חושן משפט, ס' ר', סע' א).  But if the paper was just left on the driveway, there has been no kinyan.  Arguably, the paper would be responsibile to replace the paper if it was stolen from your driveway.  However, it can also be argued that the paper, acting upon custom, made a delivery after throwing the paper on your driveway and had no further interest in the paper, making the paper ownerless (and by implication, fair game for anyone to pick up).  As a matter of maintaining good will, the publisher should replace the missing paper, but whether it has an obligation to, is the subject of an ongoing dispute among halachic authorities. (הגות רע"א חושן משפט, ס' ק"כ, סע' א', וע' באמרי בינה הנ"ל , ןבנתיבות המשפט ס' קצ"ד, ס"ק ד)

My question is that usually a subscription is cheaper than the store price. Can they just tell you we will extend your subscription for a week and pick it up in the store this week, or should they really reimburse you your extra cost and time of purchase?

As noted above, one cannot purchase something that doesn't yet exist, and the purchase isn't completed until delivery is properly made.  Based on that, the money you fronted to the magazine/newspaper is essentially a loan for which the publisher can either repay through a refund or by giving you the magazine or newspaper you subscribed to receive.  Since your contract was that payment (ie the magazine) on the loan was due as of a certain day, you can demand that you get a full refund or immediate delivery (see Rabbi Joseph Stern, "Ribis: A Halachic Anthology," § 1(F) (discussion of prepayment for services)); therefore an extension of the subscription is at your discretion, not the publisher's.  I think that if they tell you to go to the store, then they have done nothing to satisfy their obligation.
Comment: The question is about lack of delivery, not delivered and stolen. Should they be responsible to either redeliver or credit my account for my cost of purchasing the same magazine in a store?
Comment: @GershonGold Does my edit help?
Comment: Your edit helps, although it seems to be your own conjecture, which may or may not be correct.
Comment: @GershonGold added source


NLP to detect duplicates for very technical language

Question: I have the following scenario, to detect duplicate products based on the description fields. The Description Field contains product technical name, dimensions, characteristics. My model needs to consider that different annotation and abbreviations might have been used for technical names, text errors in data entries,  similar/different dimensions or characteristics might still point to the same product. Therefore, I think that applying a normal fuzzy matching or other NLP text matching will not perform well in my case. I trying to approach this problem as a learning/supervised model, but still not sure how so any suggestion/idea is very appreciated.
Answer: If you think fuzzy matching does not work, you basically have two options:
Unsupervised: Try topic modeling to find "similar" products. The problem is that you will need to pre-define the number of products (groups, aka "topics"), which can be a problem. Also topic modeling will only work well if there are sufficient differences in the descriptions. https://github.com/Bixi81/R-ml/blob/master/NLP_topic_modelling.R
An unsupervised approach seems to be a good option for you, judging from what you wrote about your problem.
Supervised: If you have a good set of descriptions with a label (e.g. product 1, product 2, etc), you can use some NLP model to predict which text belongs to which product. Not sure how much you know about it: You could start with a "Bag of Words" and try things like Lasso, Boosting, or even Neural Nets on this.
Here is an example on how to apply Neural Nets to text classification. But be aware: in real world applications, text classification can be very tricky, especially if you have many classes (products in your case) and not so many observations per class (descriptions in your case).
Answer: Perhaps this approach can work with you:

Separate each description by sentence.
Topic Modeling. Retrieve the best 'n' topics, perhaps some Topics should be removed because they are not relevant to the product comparison (price, stock location)...
Recalculate new descriptions once removed sentences with useless topics
Do a similarity cosine using for example tfIdf, LSTM..., and remove items that are very near.

This is an example of this approach with accommodation descriptions: https://medium.com/@actsusanli/when-topic-modeling-is-part-of-the-text-pre-processing-294b58d35514
Comment: Thank you for your recommendations! I am currently trying to find the similarities between descriptions by using word2vec and finding average sentence vectors. Further, I plan to try the results also with autoencoders.
Answer: I am using now Tidytext, dplyer and widyr packages to find duplicates
I have a data frame contains product description named short_text, the column name is header, I add an index column, then tokenize the data with feature = sentences.
I calculated the Term Frequency and Inverse Document Frequency TF-IDF.
I calculated the cosine similarity using pairwise_similar function.
<code>st_sentences_weights <- short_text %>% mutate(text_ID = row_number()) %>%
  unnest_tokens(input = header,
                output = "sentences",
                token = "sentences") %>%
  count(text_ID, sentences, sort = TRUE) %>%
  bind_tf_idf(text_ID, sentences, n)

sentences_similarity <- st_sentences_weights %>%
  pairwise_similarity(text_ID, sentences, tf_idf) %>%
  arrange(desc(similarity))
```
</code>


Do you bold punctuation directly after bold text?

Question: Do you bold punctuation directly after bold, linked or italic text?
Answer: Germany
Typographic rules (e.g. Forssman/de Jong, Detailtypographie), the most prominent, quasi-official orthographic authority (Duden), and Wikipedia all say:

A punctuation mark following emphasized text (in italics, boldface, small caps, caps, letter spacing, etc.) is also emphasized.

Exceptions are quotation marks and brackets, especially if only one of the pair would be emphasized.
US
The Chicago Manual of Style changed its recommendations from the fourteenth to the fifteenth edition. Where the older rule said that

Generally, punctuation marks are printed in the same style or font of type as the word, letter, character, or symbol immediately preceding them. (14th ed.)

it now says that

All punctuation marks should appear in the same font – roman or italic – as the main or surrounding text, except for punctuation that belongs to a title or an exclamation in a different font. This departure from Chicago's former usage serves both simplicity and logic. (15th ed.)

I cannot find any recommendation on the matter in the APA or MLA style manuals, both of which I have at hand and consulted, although there is at least one book that claims that "[punctuation] following italicized text is also italicized in APA style". I don't trust that unsubstantiated claim, but maybe someone else can find an official (i.e. APA or MLA published) opinion on the matter.
House styles may differ, as the accepted answer to the same question on English.SE states.
Comment: @NeilFein Indeed... but its better than none.
Comment: @GiantCowFilms The great thing about standards is that there are so many of them.
Comment: So there **is** a standard :).
Answer: As a quick reference, if you would underline it (example a title Dr. John Doe, or John Doe, M.D.)  then you would format it to match the text.  If it is sentence punctuation then it is not formatted. Example: We went to New York and saw Oklahoma! on Broadway.; Send this to Dr. John Doe.; Send this to John Doe, M.D.; Send this to Mary.
.
Answer: This is a matter of style and totally up to you. In most cases (period, comma) people will not see the difference. For exclamation marks and question marks it is more obvious.
For me it looks better when these marks are italicized:

Do you really want to eat this?

On the other hand, I would never make them bold or include them into the link formatting.
But that's me. You can find a different approach on commnet.edu. (← see, period not included :))
Comment: @GiantCowFilms https://xkcd.com/927/
Comment: I was hoping for a standard. I would note that it also changes from font to font, since sometimes with thin font a period can "*disappear*" after bold letters
Comment: @NeilFein He he, that is funny. clearly we need to make our own new all encompassing standard. We can call it the GCF English guide or something.


How do I access Sitecore.Context.Item in normal MVC Controller

Question: I have a normal MVC Controller (not a Sitecore Rendering) which I am calling in an AJAX request (from a Sitecore page). I need the current Sitecore item there. How can I access it there?
Answer: If it's an ajax call you just did from javascript to a normal MVC controller, there is no Sitecore.Context.Item there.
What you can do is in your original Sitecore rendering write the id of your item to the generated html (e.g. as a data-itemid attribute) and then pass it with your ajax call back to the server. Thanks to that you will know which item you want to use.
In your cshtml file just use code like:

    Your rendering content

And in you javascript:
var data = {
     ItemId = itemId,
     OtherData = "foo",
     OneMore = "bar"
};

$.ajax({
  type: "POST",
  url: url,
  data: data
});

create class:
public class PostData
{
    public string ItemId {get;set;}
    OtherData {get;set;}
    OneMore {get;set;}
}

and in your controller:
public ActionResult AcceptPost(PostData data){
     var item = Sitecore.Context.Database.GetItem(data.ItemId);
}

This is just a sample - you should adapt this code to your scenario.
Answer: In Ajax requests the Sitecore.Context.Item object is NULL. So you can't use it to get the current page.
To work around this, you will need to tell the MVC action what the current context item is using its ID. So you will need to pass this ID from the HTML into your MVC action.
public ActionResult SubmitForm(string firstName, string lastName, string pageId){
    var page = Sitecore.Context.Database.GetItem(pageId);

    // `page` variable now has a reference to your current page (Context Item)
}

The ID in the HTML is usually stored in a hidden input element or a data-attribute on some element.
e.g.
<input type="hidden" name="pageId" value="@Sitecore.Context.Item.ID.ToString()" />

OR

Finally in your ajax request function, you will have to get the value of the pageID and pass it into your ajax request


How to lay of underlayment for a cedar shingle roof

Question: I am planning on re-rroofing a tool shed with cedar shingles. I always thought it would be a simple job of laying the #15 underlayment (tar paper) over the sheathing (or 1 x 3s) in overlapping layers and then simply nailing the cedar shingles in courses over the previously laid underlayment. After watching several youtube videos, it appears that a 3ft wide course of underlayment should be laid down at the roof edge and then the first course of shingles should be laid on top of that followed by a narrower course of underlayment that covers the top 4 inches, or so, of the shingles. Courses of shingle and underlayment are subsequently alternated in this manner up to the ridge of the roof.
What is the correct way to apply cedar shingles (not shakes) for a roof with respect to the use of #15 underlayment (tar paper)? Your help appreciated.
Dave,
British Columbia, Canada
Answer: For an unheated tool shed, you don't need the 3ft wide course of underlayment. Over a heated house, that 3ft course should be a rubbery waterproof ice barrier that seals around nails, so if an ice dam forms, water will not back up and leak through. Just run one course of the narrow paper, sticking out so that it will hang into the gutter a bit, then a starter course of shingles. If your shingles are 18" and exposure is 7", then run your next strip of paper 7.5" to 8" up from the bottom, then add your 2nd layer of shingles for the double starter course, then paper/shingles/paper/shingles to the top, ensuring that the paper never shows. That would be 14.5 to 15" up from the butt of each shingle course.
This article covers the subject quite well, and I even learned the term "interlayment" for those 18" strips of tar paper:
http://www.nachi.org/wood-shakes-shingles-part3-135.htm
(I'm in Vancouver, and just re-did my tool shed roof the same way.)
Comment: A quote from the linked article: *Interlayment is acceptable on a shake roof, but never on a wood shingle roof.*
Comment: Different installation for shingles vs shakes: http://www.cedarbureau.org/installation-and-maintenance/roof-manual/
Comment: Cedar shake and shingle specifications and labeling: http://www.cedarbureau.org/pdf2015/CSSB-Specsheets-015.pdf
Answer: We always treated the two layers as separate waterproofing systems.

Drip edge, if any (if none, leave felts out an inch or so for a crude
one, or make one from asphalt shingles)

double layer of 3 foot felt,

then 3 foot felt overlapped 19" (so there is always a double layer -
tripled for an inch at the ends of overlaps) - there should be a guideline for this on the felt.

Battens at shingle exposure spacing. If you are not going to do this, skip the felt entirely, or use non-wood shingles (some of which mimic wood pretty well, these days.)

Double layer of shingles extending a bit past the drip edge or felts.

Shingles overlapped normally
Economizing on metal drip edge worked fine for us on shed-class buildings, but we never went to wide exposure / small overlap of felts (resulting in areas of single layer.)

This process also has the benefit that the roof is dry as soon as you put the felt on; if you are only felting as you shingle you are subject to rain until the whole job is done.


iPod touch 4th gen dead

Question: I got this iPod touch 4th gen today. It worked initially but in between it showed a few weird screens and turned off and it would start again immediately. I thought if I would update this from iOS 5 to iOS 6 that would solve the problem. So I plugged it into my computer (Windows 7) and tried to update it from iOS 5 to iOS 6. Everything went well but at the end it returned error 1600 due to which the update was unsuccessful. Since then, the iPod has not started, nor is it charging. It just gets heated up when I plug it into the charger. It doesn't show any sign of charging. If I hold the sleep/wake button and home button together even for 60s it won't respond. It only gets recognized by iTunes that too with the same message "iTunes has detected an iPod in recovery mode. You must restore this iPod before it can be used with iTunes". I try to restore iPod and it shows error 1600 and I again get into the same cycle.
Any help will be appreciated. I have wasted the past 5 hours over this.
Comment: It's well worth asking here. Just if you show your google research, others can know what specifically you tried. Looks like someone dug up Apple's article for you as an answer.
Comment: Welcome to Ask Different. Apple has an article on how to work around restore errors. Why not start with https://support.apple.com/en-us/HT201444 and then list where your troubleshooting stops? Hopefully it's not a hardware problem on the iPod.
Comment: I tried all that. I even tried googling it. But everywhere else the condition was that iPod was not getting recognized even by iTunes. In my case iPod is getting recognized ONLY by iTunes and it does not show any other response. I thought this must be a peculiar problem so I posted it on Ask Different
Answer: Error 1600 would appear to be a USB connectivity error
From Get help with iOS update and restore errors

Check your USB connections
Errors: 13, 14, 1600, 1601, 1602, 1603, 1604, 1611, 1643-1650, 2000,
  2001, 2002, 2005, 2006, 2009, 4005, 4013, 4014. You might also see a
  message that includes "invalid response."
If the USB connection between your device and computer is interrupted,
  you might not be able to update or restore.
To narrow down the issue, try different equipment:

Use the USB cable that came with your device, or a different Apple USB cable.
Plug your cable into a different USB port directly on your computer. Don't plug it into your keyboard.
Try a different computer.
Solve other issues with the USB connection, then with your security software.

If you still see the error message, check for hardware issues.

Also, you might need to troubleshoot your hardware. Try different cable, a different port, a different computer....
Comment: Beat me by 6 seconds!
Comment: I will try with my friend's 30 pin connector and see if it works although the 30 pin connector I am using came packed with the iPod touch

iPod touch 4th gen dead


closed keg fermentation - is it taking place?

Question: long story short - primed the keg with sugar, let it raise up to temperature, can't hear any gargling. IS my sugar carbonation taking place or all the old yeasts have died ?
Answer: Yes in theory it is. but no real way to tell, until serving time.
one way to tell is either hook up a regulator to it and get the pressure, or press the gas in valve without anything hooked up to see if its building up pressure.
Comment: Looks like you might have a leaky keg
Comment: any hints / procedure on properly hooking up and checking with a regulator ? thanks
Comment: On my regulator, it tells me the pressure when I hook up the gas line to the keg. My regulator is a cheapest you can get. similar to https://eckraus.com/economy-co2-regulator-double-gauge/
Comment: looks like the regulator method is not working. 3 days ago it read 1.5 bar, today it reads 0. Checked the regulator, it has not broken, it still operates.  :-|
Answer: I wouldn't expect to hear anything.  It's a closed system, the CO2 is dissolving into the beer, not bubbling to the top - as there is no pressure difference for the bubbles to "gurgle-into" (your bottles don't gurgle right!?)
It would be absolutely normal for this to work fine.  Even clear beers can have ~100 ppm of yeast cells.  So unless this beer was super-high gravity, and the yeast were at their alcohol limit, everything will be OK.  Even if it's at super high gravity, it will probably still work, just take a little longer.
Answer: There won't be any gargling. You can always pull the PRV quickly to see if there is any pressure building up... but then you are losing CO2 that isn't going to make it into the beer.
Most kegs still need a blast of CO2 to properly seat the lid.  The slow rise in pressure while naturally carbonating often isn't enough to seat and seal the lid.  At this point it is possible that your CO2 has been escaping the keg.
I assume you have a CO2 tank and regulator based on your comments on a different answer.  Looks like you're going to have to naturally carbonate anyway, so why not pull on the PRV to see if there is any pressure.  Hook up your CO2 tank and blast in 20PSI of pressure to determine if the lid seals.  Then crank it back to your intended carbonation/serving pressure, chill the keg and wait a few days before checking again.  JUST MAKE SURE THE LID IS SEALED.  Otherwise you'll just bleed out all the CO2 from your tank.
Comment: alright, thanks. It has been sitting at 1.85 bar for some days now... or maybe the regulator needs some tapping for the clock to take fresh measurement.  Anyway, pressure has only gone up, not down.
Comment: Good to hear.  Good luck
Comment: here is some news: theregulator's regulation valve has become hard to turn by hand. So hard that a wrench was needed to budge it. And the reading is still the same since last week. Any clues to that ?
Comment: The knob should be unaffected by pressure settings.  I fear your regulator is faulty.


What is the difference between Prime Rib and a Standing Rib Roast?

Question: What is the difference between Prime Rib and a Standing Rib Roast? (and a "rib eye roast" while you're at it)
Answer: I just happened across this older question and found the answers provided, including the information in the link to wikipedia to be incorrect.
All Prime Ribs are Standing Rib Roasts, not all Standing Rib Roasts are Prime Rib.

[see edit below] A "Prime Rib" is a standing rib roast, from a beef that has
achieved a USDA Grade of "Prime".
Bone-In or Bone-out are separate distinctions the can be applied to
any standing rib roast, regardless of grade.

U.S. Prime – This is the highest grade of beef with the most fat
  marbling. This meat is very tender and only accounts for about 2.9% of
  all graded beef. U.S. Prime is usually reserved for high end dining
  establishments. Because this beef has such a high level of fat
  marbling, it is excellent for dry heat cooking methods. from: http://foodreference.about.com/od/Meat/a/Usda-Beef-Grades.htm

Also, technically a Prime Rib is not a 'steak' but rather a 'slice of roast'. If one takes a slice from a raw rib primal and grills or broils it as a steak it is a "Rib Eye", and can also be either "bone-in" or "bone-out". (the use of the word 'primal' refers to a primary cut of beef, the first cuts a butcher will use to section a beef beyond quartering, it is utterly unrelated to the word "prime" in "Prime Rib" )

[Edit 12-21-17: Additional research indicates I had causality inverted. The USDA choose the term "Prime" because of the popularity of "Prime Rib", a term that apparently existed before the USDA grading system. More importantly the 'Prime Rib' is cut from between the #6 and #12 ribs, but may be of a grade other than 'Prime'. However, the initial point remains true that "All Prime Ribs are standing Rib Roasts, but not all Standing Rib Roasts are Prime Ribs". The 'Standing Rib Roast' may include (or be exclusively) from outside the 6-12 range. The potential difference being from where within the rib primal the roast is cut.]
Comment: Actually....Prime Rib roast was called Prime Rib before grading beef as Prime, Choice, Select,etc. ever began. Prime Rib roast can still be called Prime Rib roast whether it's "Prime" or "Choice". This is because it is the most prime cut of the beef. You can have a "Choice" Prime Rib, or a "Prime" Prime Rib. Get it?
Comment: To reiterate what @user42275 said, "prime rib" does NOT mean it's prime grade meat. It's the name of the cut of meat.
Comment: I worked at a butcher shop for several years - everything stated here is 100% legit. Great answer. So many people don't understand that there are many, many cuts of beef which come from "the rib" - rib eye roast \ steak, delmonico, standing rib roast \ prime rib...
Answer: Prime rib can be either a steak sliced from the roast or the entire roast.  In other words, it isn't a precise term.
The standing rib roast is more precise.  You can get more than one prime rib steak from the standing rib roast.  The standing rib roast must have come from at least 2 of the ribs.
A rib eye roast is a standing rib roast with the ribs removed.
The prime rib (standing rib roast or steak cut from that area) is actually not required to be USDA prime beef.
Comment: Did you mean to say "a stead sliced from the roast or the entire roast"?
Comment: I disagree that 'rib eye roast' and 'standing rib roast' are synonymous -- 'rib eye roast' might just be the eye (no rib bones), while 'standing' always includes ribs.
Comment: it seems that 'rib eye roast' also goes by the name 'delmonico roast' : http://www.recipetips.com/glossary-term/t--35218/rib-eye-roast-beef.asp ; http://www.foodsubs.com/MeatBeefRibs.html ; http://missvickie.com/howto/meat/meatbeefnames.html ; and a picture, sans-bones : http://www.newbrunswicksteakco.com/usda-rer.html
Answer: The primal is called the 7 bone rib, the 4 long bones from the loin end are called the prime rib, typically used for bone in steaks and ribeye steaks because the muscle, along with the bone is longer. The 3 shorter bone section from the chuck end is the standing rib, more suited for premium oven roasts as it is more heavily marbled. That said the meat is equally tender throughout with heavier pockets of fat developing towards the standing rib section, so the whole seven bone section can be cut for either steaks or roasts with fat content being the only difference.
Answer: Rib roast is a cut of beef including bones (unless it is boneless or Eye of Rib).
Prime is a grade of beef, with high amounts of marbling and fat so as to achieve optimal tenderness and flavor.
The description "Prime Rib" was in use before the FDA started using "Prime" as a grade of beef, therefore some roasts called "Prime Rib" might be from non-Prime-graded beef.
You can get a rib roast in any grade or breed of beef (grade descriptions from USDA.gov, specifically: [https://www.fsis.usda.gov/wps/portal/fsis/topics/food-safety-education/get-answers/food-safety-fact-sheets/production-and-inspection/inspection-and-grading-of-meat-and-poultry-what-are-the-differences_/inspection-and-grading-differences/!ut/p/a1/jZFRT4MwEMc_DY9di8yF-UZIzIYOXBYd42Xp4FpIoCVtkcxPb8EHnRm69qV39_tf2__hDKc4E_S94tRUUtB6iLPFkWzJwl2GJEqW7iNZx2_b5CkMib-7t8DhDyD2btRPrID8p49uuOBObcINx1lLTYkqwSROORhEhe5BaZwyKQukKQNzRozmBukSwNhCq2TR5YMVFi6sVLcwhjj9Po8lrmhRCY4kQw1QM-Za2dVGnVFfDgkFyJSAiooxUCBy0MfJLj8gvMfZ5ReJa_c69nbzVRR7JJn_Bq7M4AuYNtm6yGt5Ggd-CMTJ861dCoZHqFmnbLo0ptUPDnFI3_czLiWvYZbLxiHXJKXUBqeXJG6b1_TjOViR6qXZ-zr4BEpuht4!/#5)][1]
Prime:
"is produced from young, well-fed beef cattle. It has abundant marbling and is generally sold in restaurants and hotels. Prime roasts and steaks are excellent for dry-heat cooking (broiling, roasting, or grilling)."
Choice
"is high quality, but has less marbling than Prime. Choice roasts and steaks from the loin and rib will be very tender, juicy, and flavorful and are, like Prime, suited to dry-heat cooking. Many of the less tender cuts, such as those from the rump, round, and blade chuck, can also be cooked with dry heat if not overcooked. Such cuts will be most tender if "braised" — roasted, or simmered with a small amount of liquid in a tightly covered pan."
Select
"is very uniform in quality and normally leaner than the higher grades. It is fairly tender, but, because it has less marbling, it may lack some of the juiciness and flavor of the higher grades. Only the tender cuts (loin, rib, sirloin) should be cooked with dry heat. Other cuts should be marinated before cooking or braised to obtain maximum tenderness and flavor."
Standard and Commercial
"frequently sold as ungraded or as "store brand" meat."
Utility, Cutter, and Canner
"seldom, if ever, sold at retail but are used instead to make ground beef and processed products."
Certified Angus Brand
"Choice or Prime graded beef from black-hided cattle (typical of the Angus breed), evaluated for marbling, size and uniformity. " (https://www.certifiedangusbeef.com/cuts/grades.aspx)
My recent comparison of Standing Rib Roasts at a large grocery showed that the Prime graded beef had thick marbling and large pockets or globs of fat; the roasts labeled Angus had very fine threads of marbling throughout, and the Choice had no marbling at all. I got Choice, and though the rare was acceptably flavorful and tender, it was by no means comparable to the juicy tender Prime and Angus I've gotten previously.


Wired network connection drops frequently

Question: Network connection being dropped even after updating the driver to the latest realtek one r8168-8.037.00. I am running Ubuntu 13.04.
I need to usually reboot my router to fix and or the cable modem also. Other systems connected don't have this problem.
LINUX driver for kernel 3.x and 2.6.x and 2.4.x
Also I added the following as well.
ctrl+alt+T
echo on | sudo tee /sys/class/net/eth0/device/power/control
Below shows my lspci -v output I put in bold the Ethernet item in question
 03:00.0 Ethernet controller: Realtek Semiconductor Co., Ltd. RTL8111/8168 PCI Express Gigabit Ethernet controller (rev 03)
        Subsystem: Hewlett-Packard Company Device 1449
        Flags: bus master, fast devsel, latency 0, IRQ 45
        I/O ports at 2000 [size=256]
        Memory at d1004000 (64-bit, prefetchable) [size=4K]
        Memory at d1000000 (64-bit, prefetchable) [size=16K]
        Expansion ROM at d1010000 [disabled] [size=64K]
        Capabilities: <access denied>
        Kernel driver in use: r8169**

Comment: Does disabling IPv6 help?
Answer: This may be an unexpected solution, but are there any other 2.4GHz devices, such as cordless landline phones, baby monitors or wireless headsets in the vicinity? Your particular computer could have a weak signal, and when combined with the interference, that could cause the problem.
Oftentimes those are using the same ISM band http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ISM_band frequencies, but since they are not WiFi devices they can jam the WiFi band and break your connection. Folks who do wireless consumer support often call those frequencies the 'junk' band because some consumer devices do pretty horrible things to WiFi signals.


Assumptions in Bell's Theorem

Question: It is often Stated that Bell's Theorem is equivalent to the statement: No theory of Local Hidden Variables can reproduce all of the predictions of quantum mechanics. I see nowhere in Bell's Theorem the assumption of hidden variables. As far as I can tell, there is one assumption: locality, which is shown to conflict with quantum mechanics. If I am wrong on this, could someone demonstrate exactly how Bell failed to demonstrate that quantum mechanics is non-local by showing how the assumption of hidden variables is used in his theorem? To me -- and by the way Bell -- the problem is locality.
Comment: It's not an Answer, but you might find the following paper relevant:  de Muynck, W. M. 1986 "The Bell inequalities and their irrelevance to the problem of locality in quantum mechanics", *Phys. Lett.* **A 114**, 65-67 (doi:10.1016/0375-9601(86)90480-9). Accessible from the author's web-site through the page http://www.phys.tue.nl/ktn/Wim/publications.htm#main. "Exactly" would be a neat trick for a 50-year-old conundrum.
Comment: Quite a careful laying out of *the assumptions* that you wouldn't come across in the ordinary way of things is http://arxiv.org/abs/quant-ph/0208161, published in *Eur.J.Phys*. Anything that is carefully done will need careful reading unless you have already been through the process of reading papers on Bell inequalities many times. It's partly a matter of finding a paper or a book that suits your way of thinking.
Comment: Slightly OT, but there is another assumption in addition to locality. It's so intuitively obvious that Bell didn't state it, and it's rarely commented on, but it's an assumption nevertheless. That assumption is forward  causality: events can have effects in their future light cone but not in their past one. You can relax that assumption while keeping locality, and thus obtain a consistent local hidden variable theory. See, for example, the book *Time's Arrow and Archimedies' Point* by Huw Price.
Comment: Another good book by David Mermin "Boojums All The Way Through" Explains and discusses Bell's theorem very clearly and in more than one way. Part four of chapter 12 brings up an interesting point. Detecting single photons is not that easy to do and more often than not they fail to register on a detector. Experiments only count data from those runs in which both detectors actually flash Or flash close enough together to assume they were correlated . This is cherry picking and actually skews the results. In reality true results could agree with quantum mechanics predictions.
Comment: @PeterMorgan that paper starts off assuming that you need to be able to represent the probability of all four possible measurements, together as a joint probability distribution , even the measurements not being done in the experiment. Bell's argument doesn't need to assume this — doesn't that mean that paper isn't addressing Bell's argument?
Comment: Never mind, turns out the assumption Bell makes of factorability implies being able to represent it as a JPD. Great paper!
Answer: The issue is locality of what? Which quantities are assumed to be local?
If you say the reults of all experiments, hypothetical as well as actual, and say that these must be assignable definite values, then this is in conflict with quantum mechanics. But this is the assumption that is called "hidden variables", the reason is that this is the assumption Einstein made in the EPR paper. This is the assumption that if you could perform an experiment to determine a quantity, then it is legitimate to give this quantity a definite value, even if you didn't do the experiment. The hidden variables are just the names of the extra quantities that determine the outcome of those hypothetical experiments.
The results of the quantum experiments themselves are only obviously nonlocal if their results are assumed to be definite things, even in those cases where you didn't actually go on to perform the experiment. This is not accepted in the standard interpretations, although for slightly different reasons in different philosophies.
Suppose you have three polarization settings, A,B,C such that the measurement of A,B,C is always the same between the two distant spins, A and B are 99% correlated, B and C are 99% correlated, and A and C are 96% correlated. This is the starkest violation of Bell's inequality that I know. In this case, you can see the violation without a calculation--- if A and B are the same except for 1 time in a hundred, and B and C are the same except for one time in a hundred, how can A and C be different more than 2 times in a hundred? Obviously they can't, and that's Bell's inequality. But obviously they are, in quantum mechanics, because the probability difference between polarization settings goes as the square of 1 minus the (small) angle squared, so that doubling the (small) angle increases the discrepancy in the measurements by a factor of 4, not by a factor of 2.
In order to argue that this is a locality violation, when you are measuring A on particle 1 and B on particle 2, you have to assume that were you to measure A on particle 2, the result would have been the same. The only locality violations are regarding the answers to these hypothetical questions. But you aren't measuring A on particle 2, so that this is a counterfactual statement. You don't have to believe that counterfactual statements of this sort are meaningful. If you believe that the results of experiments come out of thin air, that they don't come from the laws of physics, but of an irreducible interaction between the particles and the measuring device, which is called an observation.
This is Bohr's language, so I am just stating Bohr's position that the results of experiments come out of thin air. They aren't determined by anything previous. So it makes no sense to say "were you to measure A, the result would have been such and so", because you aren't measuring A. The assumption of "counterfactual definiteness" is the central thing, that it makes sense to talk about the answers to experiments you haven't done. I don't like Bohr's way of stating it, I prefer Everett's, but the two answers are exactly the same when push comes to shove.
The assumption of hidden variables is only used to allow you to talk about what the outcome of the A measurement on particle 1 would have been for those instances where you are doing a B measurement on particle 1. You can determine what they answer would have been using the hidden variables, assuming that the hidden variables determine the outcome of the experiments. You don't have to use the hidden variables if you are willing to assume that it is ok to talk about the value you would have gotten in experiments you haven't done.
Since it is only through considering couterfactual experiments that you get a contradiction, if you don't have counterfactuals, you don't have contradictions. The contradiction is that there is no way to assign consistent definite results to all the possible counterfactuals. You could just refuse to assign answers to hypothetical measurements. Equivalently, you could assign amplitudes with those answers, not definite results. Its only when you try to assign definite results that you get a contradiction.
This argument of Bohr's is very difficult to understand, and, like everything else, it is entirely cleared up by switching to Everett's many-worlds philosophy. This explains exactly what is going on, in a detailed mechanistic way that is equivalent to Bohr except for philosophical mumbo-jumbo. Since it is equivalent to Bohr, modulo philosophy, I don't see any point in retaining Bohr's harder to understand language, except to the extent that it is interesting that you can state things this way too.
In the many-worlds point of view, the A measurement splits the observer, and it splits the observer in a different direction than the B measurement does, it entangles the observer with a different property of the particle. The relative statistics that the two observers see are only determined when the two observers come to talk, and then which copy of the observer over here meets which copy of the other observer over there is always a matter of how they are tilted relative to each other in wavefunction space. The tilt between the copies of the observers is entirely determined by which quantity they chose to measure. It is now obvious that there is no reason that Bell's inequality has to hold in this sort of thing, because the results not only of counterfactual experiments are undertermined, but even the results of actual experiments are undetermined! There is still another copy of you which got the opposite results!
Bohr's philosophy is obtained by focusing on one branch, and rejecting the other counterfactual branches as non-existing.
I suppose you could see even the Everett version as violating locality, because the world-label (and the wavefunction) are global constructs. But I don't think this is the best practice. If the world is quantum mechanical, those experiments which split observers will always be indefinite.
Semi-local classical illustration
Since many-worlds requires some slightly nonobvious philosophy, it is best to make the argument in a purely classical universe, where there are no philosophical headaches. You can violate Bell's inequality inside a semi-local classical theory, with world-splitting. The theory will be a classical analog to the Many-Worlds quantum theory, but no philosophical headaches, because the splitting will be built into the theory, and not emerge from philosophical contortions.
The theory will be local in that it will obey the principle:

No nonlocal communication: the complete description of the behavior in a given region will not require knowledge of the state of stuff outside the region

It will not be local in this sense:

There are nonlocal entanglements: When stuff in a given region A meets with stuff in region B, the complete description of the interaction of the two regions will require extra variables, beyond those required to specify the complete state of region A and the complete state of region B.

These variables describe the analog of the entanglement between A and B.
Assume a classical Newtonian world, particles interacting by a retarded potential (so that you have relativistic locality), but with a secret world integer W. The world variable is just a stupid parameter that tells you which world you are on.
Two particles only interact with each other when they have the exact same value of the variable "W" (so that W is not a position, exactly, but a sheet-number), and initially, there is one copy of the particles on world 0.
The particles can, in addition to the Newtonian stuff, also do a "fork", which adds a new world to the list of all existing worlds (a new integer label), and copies all the particles nonlocally at their current positions into the new world, and the particle which is forked is altered in a subtle way--- it has a coupling to a forking-detector material (this can all be done explicitly in a computer model).
The copying of particles to the new world doesn't have to happen right away--- since the new world is identical to one of the old worlds, you can use the old world variables right up to the moment of first altered interaction, which propagates outward from the fork position at the speed of light.
Further, the forks have internal variables, the phases. Any two forks have a relative phase, which is a variable on the unit circle. When you fork A and fork B at angle $\theta$, you make worlds in the proportion: $cos^2(\theta)$ AB's and A'B' , $sin^2(\theta)$ AB' and A'B's. In the preceding, A and A' are the two splits descended from A, and B and B' are the two splits descended from B, and the relative angle only tells you how correlated the two splits are with each other, by arranging more copies at the point of collision (when an A split meets a B split) in the proportion determined by their relative angle.
This world-splitting classical model reproduces the quantum situation. This is not a surprise, because it is just made up to do so.
The point of this is that the quantum mechanics is only as nonlocal as this classical model. It is not clear whether the splitting and the angles are to be considered nonlocal, since they are only nonlocal in the sense of extra data, not nonlocal in the sense of influence. All the influences travel strictly at less than the speed of light.
Comment: I've been thinking about this more and more lately. I gave you +1 because you are an outstanding contributor. However, I think you are missing the point. To argue that there is non-locality, I simply need to ask the following, "How do the electrons know what to do"? Perhaps, they pre-determine their behavior, but this is exactly what Bell showed fails. But, then how can they know what to do in a standard quantum mechanical picture (e.g. not many worlds)? They make decisions at an instant in time, and the other electron instantly knows what the other is doing. Telepathy?
Comment: The question of "nonlocality" depends on what you mean--- if you accept many worlds, the electrons don't decide what to do, the measuring equipement gets split in both places, and then the only question is which copy of Alice meets which copy of Bob when they come to compare notes, and this is where the nonlocal statistics comes in. So at each point, the splitting and so on is independent of the other place, only the note-comparison has strange statistics, because the coming together to talk is not a local process, and it reveals which Alice branch is co-existing with which Bob branch.
Comment: " The results of the quantum experiments themselves are only obviously nonlocal if their results are assumed to be definite things, even in those cases where you didn't actually go on to perform the experiment." But Bell's argument doesn't presume this. It allows for measurements to only be probable, not determined. And it doesn't require any treatment of experiments that weren't performed
Answer: There are two proofs:
One is the short proof that QM/QFT is not locally causal theories. You'll find that under the sections with titles like "Ordinary QM is not locally causal" in Bell's "The theory of local beables" and "La Nouvelle Cuisine". This proof does not assume hidden variables and only makes use of the local beables already present in, and indeed fundamental to, ordinary QM and QFT. Bohr called these the "classical terms".
The second proof shows that it is not possible to "complete" QM or QFT (or change it altogether) with additional hidden variables to avoid the conclusion of non-locality. This proof is where the Bell inequalities are derived and has one additional assumption often referred to as called "statistical independence". It states that it is possible by suitable experimental design to approximately satisfy $\{\lambda|a,b,c\} = \{\lambda|c\}$, i.e. the hidden variables $\lambda$ relevant for the outcomes does not depend on how the future angles are set. For example, we could use a pseudo-number generator, binary digits of pi, or cosmic radiation, ... to set the angles.
The assumption of statistical independence appears implicitly and ubiquitously throughout scientific experiments. For example, it is assumed in every medical drug test with a placebo control group: the details of a patients medical condition (the equivalent of the $\lambda$'s) is  assumed not to depend on whether he/she got randomly picked (perhaps using a random number generator) for being part of the placebo control group.
Comment: Congratulations! It is hard to find somebody having a clear understanding of the rather simple facts that Bell tried to explain.
Answer: First of all, the assumption of hidden variable is very explicit in Bell's paper, since he even gives a name to the hidden variable: $\lambda$.
However, I agree with you with the fact that it is difficult to imagine a theory without such hidden variable, so his assumption can bee seen as reducing to locality. More explicitly, a physical theory is almost by definition something which predicts the probability of obtaining some measurement results. This definition, is nothing else than the definition of a hidden variable describing the state of the system. In Bell's paper, the state is given by the Local hidden variable $\lambda$, in quantum mechanics, the hidden variable is nothing else than the (global) ket $\left|\psi\right\rangle$ or the density matrix $\rho$ and in classical physics, the hidden variable is the position in phase-space.
Comment: Just one question: why -1 ?
Comment: @LubošMotl: Quantum Mechanics can be seen as a *nonlocal* hidden variable theory (HVT). Bell's theorem excludes *local* HVTs. Let me be more precise, probably by stating the obvious. Any physical (probabilistic or deterministic) theory one can imagine would describe a physical system has having a state $\sigma$. The theory then give the probability  $P(r|\sigma,0)$ of observing the result $r$ when one performs the measurement $O$ on the system in the state $\sigma$. $\sigma$ can always be seen as a hidden variable. For QM, $\sigma$ is the global $|\psi\rangle$ and $P$'s computation is ...
Comment: ... obviously nonlocal. For *local* HVTs, Bell has shown that $P$ obeyed some constraints incompatible with QM, (and, as shown later, with experiments.) .
Comment: @LubošMotl : I made a similar answer at http://physics.stackexchange.com/a/3433/373 to which you said "exactly +1 ;-)". I guess I was more clear in this other case...
Comment: @Claudiu yeah and to be complete, you can "fix" it even while retaining (some) locality, if you invoke conspiracy / super-determinism, i.e. that the experimental setup enough time into the past has conspired (within light-cones) to chose the polarizer angles and entanglement pairs in the way required for us to believe there is a loss of locality and randomness. but to me that is kind of useless physics..
Comment: I added a -1 vote here because your answer is fundamentally wrong. There are no hidden variables in Nature around us, something that the probabilistic predictions of QM could be reduced to. That's what Bell's theorem itself, and many other arguments, really proves because if the assumption were right, Bell's inequalities would have to be obeyed in the experiments but they're not. Quantum mechanics, the right description of the experiments, doesn't obey them, either. It's irrelevant whether you hard quantum mechanics hard to imagine, many people do: but it's right and admits no hidden variables
Comment: It's the other way around - Bell starts only assuming locality. Then if things are only local, we need a way to possibly explain the correlations of distant measurements. EPR paper posited that hidden variables explain them. Bell showed they cannot. Hidden variables don't rescue locality, therefore locality must fall (as it was the only assumption). Hidden variables were not the starting point.
Comment: @Claudiu Alain Aspects talk from 2002 about this summarizes the assumptions pretty clearly. Bell's Theorem rests on two - that there are Supplementary Parameters carried by the particles (separated entities have separated physical realities), and that results are local and depend on these Parameters and the local experiment (and not on BOTH separated polarizers). The resulting theorem is then in conflict with the QM predictions (and experiments). You can fix by keeping the Parameters but let the experiment depend on the other polarizer, as Frédéric says ("global" HVT), but this is just QM.
Comment: @BjornW all true , but you can't also fix it by keeping locality and discarding the parameters. either way to fix it you have to discard locality. that's the point of bell's theorem!! but 'locality' here means "depends on other polarizer" (ie 'just QM'), not 'faster than light information exchange'. i think the latter conflation of terms is the only thing causing any controversy.
Answer: No need to complicate Bell's insight more than one should. The assumptions made by Bell in order to derive a measurable quantity, through which to check the existence of hidden variables, are laid quite clearly in his book "Speakable and Unspeakable in Quantum Mechanics," pages: 36, 55, 81-87. Also in the book by Bohm and Hilley "The Undivided Universe" pages: 140-145.  The idea is quite simple but very powerful in its scope.  In the context of the EPR argument involving two spatially separated particles A and B, the spin of which are to be  measured, Bell made the assumption that the outcome of the spin measurements is determined by a set of hidden variables lamda_a, mu_a and. lamda_b, mu_b.  The hidden variable mu_a is associated with the apparatus measuring the spin of particle A, while lamda_a is associated with the particle A itself, similarly for particle B. These variables have probability distributions r_a(lamda_a), p_a(mu_a) and similarly for the spin measurement of particle B. The rest is 'simple' mathematical trickery through which Bell derives his famous inequality. The general way in which Bell developed his argument, based on well known statistical correlation theory, does not require any knowledge of the actual distributions r_a(lamda_a), p_a(mu_a) etc. The clever trick on Bell's part is that, he worked out testable consequences of general simple assumptions! The nature of the argument is such that, if the experimental correlations verify Bell's inequality, then hidden variables exist and bear an effect on these testable correlations. If however the correlations violate Bell's inequalities, then hidden variables do not bear any observable effects. Violation of Bell's inequality also reveals the non-local nature of quantum mechanics. As far as I am aware all Aspect type experiments, and versions of it, violate Bell's inequality, so one may argue what is the point in insisting that they exist?  Hence until a set of experiments are found to agree with Bell's theorem, hidden variables do not seem to exist.  I hope this clarifies Bell's strategy somewhat.

Assumptions in Bell's Theorem


Avraham drove away the birds

Question: At the time of the brit bein habetarim it is stated, that after Avraham took the animals which HaShem commanded and divides them, drove away the birds that came after these carcasses. (Bereshit/Genesis 15:12). What's the importance or meaning behind this verse? After this Avraham slept, couldn't the birds or other animals could have took the meat?
Comment: @mevaqesh Bereshit/Genesis 15:12
Comment: I edited it in. For future reference, sources should generally be included in the post itself; not just in comments.
Answer: There are two answers to the significance of these birds provided by http://southbrunswickchabad.com/page.asp?pageID=%7B15FCE0CB-8E74-4A3D-8D82-A001D9B6AB87%7D&displayAll=1
1) "Rashi explains that the cut animals represent the non-Jewish nations that keep the Jewish people in Galus. The bird that tried to eat them represents King David, who tried to destroy these nations. The bird was chased away because Hashem didn't allow King David to destroy them. The same applies to other tzadikim throughout the ages who detect a slight weakening in the strength of the non-Jewish nations. When they see this, they try to hasten the coming of Mashiach (symbolized by trying to "eat the pieces").   But they didn't succeed because the time for Redemption had not yet come; they were therefore "chased away." The final success will come with the revelation of Melech HaMashiach."
2) "The bird refers not to King David, but to Mashiach himself. When Melech HaMashiach is revealed, he will "fly down" upon the nations of the world.   At that time, Avraham will come to make all the nations do teshuvah and serve Hashem. This is another explanation of the phrase, "Avraham chased them away." The word vayasheiv can be translated "chased away," but can also be translated, "made them do teshuvah." According to this, the phrase is translated, "And Avraham made them do teshuvah."   Therefore, when "Mashiach flies down upon the nations," Avraham will make the nations do teshuvah. At that time the prophecy of Tzefaniah (3:9) will be fulfilled: "Then all the nations will be transformed to speak clearly and all call out in the name of Hashem and serve Him together." "
It seems according to both understandings these birds were more symbolic of a future time. Therefore, after the maaseh avos siman l'banim was finished, there would be no need to have the birds return again.

Avraham drove away the birds


why doesn't every country scale up the prices to the international level?

Question: I live in an Asian country in which the average monthly salary is maybe 300-400 dollars but things (apart from exported goods like laptops or smartphones) are reasonably cheap compared to their price in the US for instance.
One pizza is around 3 dollars, you can rent a decent hotel room with less than 20 dollars and average monthly rent for apartments in our capital city is around 150 dollars.
my question is why doesn't our government scale up everything like 5 times so the pizza would cost 15$ but at the same time salary is 2000 dollars?
That wouldn't make any difference for us but now our country seems to be a heaven for foreign tourists and I think this can make things better.
I know I'm not the first person that this idea has crossed his mind but can't figure it out what are the technical issues which prevent this idea from happening.
Comment: Perhaps attracting tourists (an export of services) helps the economy.  In addition the low wages may make labour-intensive industries such as agriculture or clothing more competitive
Comment: How should they do that? The government does not choose the exchange rate; the exchange rate is whatever people can manage to trade for.
Comment: What you could do is get a computer science degree and work in Silicon Valley (just an example) for a while and then come back and you would be rich. By doing that, you bring prices down slightly in the US, and up slightly in your country. If everyone does that, the prices balance out, until the point where nobody wants to work in America because they make the same money working in your country.
Comment: Are you talking local dollars (your country's money) or foreign dollars (e.g. US dollars)? Because your government can change their own currency, but they can't magically increase the US dollars (only the US government can do that)
Answer: For simplicity suppose the local currency exchange rate is 1 LOC = 1 USD.
Suppose that the central bank simply print out 5 times the paper money in circulation, creating inflation. Pizza would then cost 15 LOC instead of 3 LOC. But then if the exchange rate regime is floating (majority of countries now use this), then the inflated money would be worth less, causing the exchange rate to fall to 5 LOC = 1 USD. That is, you need less USDs to exchange for 1 LOC. In essence, tourists would be paying the same (3 USD, which is now equal to 15 LOC).
So the next question is, why don't the central bank make their local currency appreciate (make 1 LOC = 5 USD, so that the pizza that cost 3 LOC would now be equal to 15 USD.)
Well, the demand and supply for money is what determines the exchange rate. If you want to know more about this I'd suggest you read more on exchange rate intervention here.


Import jar to lucene ant build script

Question: I'm having trouble including the guava (http://code.google.com/p/guava-libraries/) library in my ant build script for lucene (lucene-3.5.0/build.xml). I'm trying to build the demo with the addition specified in the answer to this question: Detect duplicate English names

I have been able to successfully include the library in a standalone project

I get the error:

common.compile-core:
      [javac] Compiling 2 source files to /Users/seb/lucene-3.5.0/build/contrib/demo/classes/java
      [javac] /Users/seb/lucene-3.5.0/contrib/demo/src/java/org/apache/lucene/demo/NameDuplicateTests.java:17:
  package com.google.common.collect does not exist
  [javac] import com.google.common.collect.HashMultimap;

I have added the jar file to my classpath via

export CLASSPATH=$CLASSPATH:/$HOME/guava-10.0.1.jar

and made a similar change to /System/Library/Java/JavaConfig.plist
I have added the following to lucene-3.5.0/build.xml
   <path id="classpath">
<pathelement location="${build.dir}/classes/java"/>
<pathelement location="$HOME/guava-10.0.1.jar"/>   </path>

I have the correct include statements in my java file, eg.
import com.google.common.collect.HashMultimap;

Thanks!
Answer: Check out the Ant docs.
You can access environment variables by passing them in using -D or the property task.
You may also define the full path to the library in the build file itself.
As it stands, your script has no idea what $HOME is.

Import jar to lucene ant build script