Changing a site name or domain

Question: I got an active social networking site right now with about 530 members and I would like to change my site's domain name to another one.My question is how can you do this efficiently without losing my members?Do I need to create a redirect page for the old members?
Answer: I would have a redirect page that indicates the new site and after a certain amount of time redirects them. Also give them a button to transfer before the timer has elapsed.
By the time your old domain expires (or an arbitrary time period, say 90 days) everybody should be aware of your new site.
The annoyance of either having to wait for 30 seconds or having to perform an action usually makes me update my link.
Answer: Usually, one would order the new domain and map it to the existing site, running both domain names parallelly for a transition period.
I think the most user and SEO friendly thing to do would be making a  301 Moved permanently redirect for any address entered under the old domain to the same address on the new domain.
People entering the site directly through the old domain would get a prominent notice that the site's URL has changed.
That way, any previously stored links - they could be scattered all over the web for all you know - remain valid, but the browser will redirect to the new address.
Depending on what kind of content your site serves, there could also be image and other links that shouldn't break straight away. If there's the likelihood of external image links pointing to your server, a global redirect of all old addresses to an information page is not a good idea.
With popular communities, it is probably a good idea to have a really long transition period until traffic coming through the old domain begins to phase out.

Changing a site name or domain


how to save articles

Question:
Possible Duplicate:
What is a favorite question?  How do they work?

Hi everyone,
I'm new to stackoverflow and am wondering is there site tool like a "Save" or "Favorite" button for each article here, you can simply click and save it for future reference? How can I save articles? Thanks in advance.
Answer: This belongs on the meta site, but I'll answer anyway.
Click on the star next to the question, you can see the favorites in your profile.

how to save articles


Can a new domain name be easily added to an existing SAN SSL certificate?

Question: I'm looking at getting an SSL certificate and I think the SAN type is what I need. However, Can I easily add further domain names to be covered by the certficate in the future. E.g. I have www.example.com on my server.  In 6 months time I decide to build and host a new site on the same server and give it the URL www.example2.com.  Would I then be able to add the new domain to the existing certificate?
Answer: Certificates cannot be changed after they are signed, otherwise they would provide no security.
Comment: What if it was a wild card one?
Answer: Once issued, a certificate holds all SANs. This means that a certificate would have to be revoked and a new one has to be issued to add a new SAN.
You should first find out which names you want to register, because revoking and reissueing will most likely cost extra money.
Answer: Its not possible to add domain in the existing SAN SSL Certificate, you can temporarily self-signed the certificate for the other domain you are thinking for and then at the time of expiration(after 1 or 2 year validity) you have to apply a new SAN to include your new domain name.


How do you convert OSM XML to geojson?

Question: I want to take the XML output of a Xapi query and display it using leaflet or polymaps. How can I do that? Is there an easy way to convert XML to geojson
Comment: Thanks for your suggestion. I have tried the same way you guys have proposed, but unfortunately conversion failed with the following error!!! Can anyone please suggest? Thanks in advance for you time.... C:\Program Files\FWTools2.4.7\bin>ogr2ogr -f GeoJSON D:\New.geojson D:\z.pbf

FAILURE:
Unable to open datasource `z.pbf' with the following drivers. -> ESRI Shapefile -> MapInfo File -> UK .NTF -> SDTS -> TIGER -> S57 -> DGN -> VRT -> REC -> Memory -> BNA -> CSV -> NAS -> GML -> GPX -> KML -> GeoJSON -> Interlis
Comment: This appears to be a new question rather than an answer. If that is the case, post it as a new question.
Answer: You can convert OSM XML to GeoJson with ogr2ogr. To convert to GeoJSON without getting the following error:
ERROR 6: GeoJSON driver doesn't support creating more than one layer

You can use one of the following commands or all of them:
ogr2ogr -f GeoJSON points.json data.osm.pbf points
ogr2ogr -f GeoJSON lines.json data.osm.pbf lines
ogr2ogr -f GeoJSON multilinestrings.json data.osm.pbf multilinestrings
ogr2ogr -f GeoJSON multipolygons.json data.osm.pbf multipolygons
ogr2ogr -f GeoJSON other_relations.json data.osm.pbf other_relations

Answer: The development (as march 2013) version of gdal has read support for OSM, both for plain XML and PBF format.
So you can convert your OSM file with:

ogr2ogr -f GeoJSON myfile.geojson myfile.osm.pbf
Answer: osmtogeojson is yet another OSM-to-GeoJSON converter, which has a few benefits when compared to this (OSM2GEO) or osm-and-geojson:

can be used as a command line tool as well as a javascript (browser
and nodejs) library.
proper multipolygon support
sophisticated polygon detection
stable (can cope with incomplete OSM data)
well tested
faster

The library is already in use on geojson.io as well as overpass-turbo.eu.
Comment: Doesn't support historical data (.osh.pbf)
Comment: I know this comment is coming late..  this tool is amazing (it always seems to work) but it is SLOW. We are currently evaluating alternatives to osmtogeojson because even converting a ~100MB Overpass output takes about 40 seconds on a reasonably powerful machine. We are looking to see whether GDAL can be an alternative for speed reasons. If speed is not a concern, I recommend this library.
Answer: OSM2GEO - A JS Converter to convert OSM to GeoJSON
* OSM2GEO - OSM to GeoJSON converter
* OSM to GeoJSON converter takes in a .osm XML file as input and produces
* corresponding GeoJSON object.
*
* AUTHOR: P.Arunmozhi <>
* DATE : 26 / Nov / 2011
* LICENSE : WTFPL - Do What The F##% You Want To Public License
* LICENSE URL: http://sam.zoy.org/wtfpl/
*
* DEPENDENCY: OSM2GEO entirely depends on jQuery for the XML parsing and
* DOM traversing. Make sure you include  before you include osm2geo.js
*
* USAGE: This script contains a single function -> geojson osm2geo(osmXML)
* It takes in a .osm (xml) as parameter and returns the corresponding
* GeoJson object."

Credit to P.Arunmozhi
https://gist.github.com/1396990
Answer: If you need library on Python: osm2geojson
Example
import codecs
import osm2geojson

with codecs.open('file.osm', 'r', encoding='utf-8') as data:
    xml = data.read()

geojson = osm2geojson.xml2geojson(xml)
# >> { "type": "FeatureCollection", "features": [ ... ] }

Answer: OpenStreetMap plugin for Leaflet is another way to do this. This way you can use your Xapi query directly in your code. Though it only makes sense for a small datasets since the request takes a while.
Answer: Use osmtogeojson like is written in this guide:
osmtogeojson Pittsburgh.xml > Pittsburgh.geojson

How do you convert OSM XML to geojson?


Are airliners' cruising altitudes we know indicated or true altitudes?

Question: Are airliners' crusing altitudes, which commonly range from 25000 to 45000 feet depending on various conditions, indicated altitudes or true altitudes? If they are indicated altitudes, what are the range of cruising true altitudes?
Comment: @kevin Although you're right in saying that the indicated altitude is the pressure altitude at crusing levels, there IS indicated altitude. It's a known concept.
Comment: What do you mean by "indicated altitude"? We have "indicated airspeed" and "true airspeed". I believe the term you're looking for is "pressure altitude".
Comment: Note that there are *3* kinds of altitude: geometric altitude (measured by GPS), indicated altitude (measured by barometric altimeter set to local reference datum) and pressure altitude (measured by barometric altimeter set to 1013 hPa (29.92 inHg)). The first two are different and the third is different unless local reference datum happens to be standard pressure.
Answer: The altitudes are "indicated." That is the altitude shown on the aircraft's altimeter.
In the U.S. at and above 18,000 feet (known as Flight Level [FL] 180) all aircraft altimeters are set to 29.92 in. Therefore the "indicated" altitude on the aircraft's altimeter (at and above FL180) is also "Pressure Altitude." In other parts of the world "Flight Levels" (where all altimeters are set at 29.92) varies.
"True Altitude" (actual altitude above mean sea level) is not, in an operational sense, used other than a reference for weather reports, terrain, obstacle clearance, etc. It is important, but when aircraft are flying (below FL 180) their altimeters are set to a "local" altimeter setting which adjusts the "indicated" altitude to correspond closely to "true altitude." This eliminates "true altitude" as being an operational consideration.
It sounds complicated, but it really is not.  Just a bit difficult to explain.
The range of cruising altitudes varies considerably for air carrier aircraft.  It would be fair to say that the range is generally between FL290 (about 29,000 ft. msl) to FL 400 (about 40,000 ft. msl).  This varies due to ATC operational considerations, wind speed and direction aloft, and aircraft weight and performance capabilities.  There are times when some aircraft will fly a bit lower or, if the capability exists, fly higher, say FL430.
Comment: I can't give you an approximate range because the altimeters (above Fl180) are set to 29.92 (so all aircraft are being separated by ATC based on the same altimeter setting) and the atmospheric conditions (e.g. temp) could vary considerably.
Comment: Thank you for your detailed reply. If the cruising altitudes (FL 290~400) are indicated altitudes, do you know what their true altitude range is? The numbers might be varied depending on the atmospheric conditions, but can you give me approximate numbers?
Answer: The delta between "indicated altitude" and "true altitude" depends on how much the actual pressure differs from the set 29.92.  If the actual pressure is 29.92, then indicated = true altitude.
For each 0.01 of altimeter setting, you change the altimeter reading by about 10 feet; for each 0.10 of altimeter setting, 100 feet, and for each 1.00, 1000 feet. So if your actual pressure is 30.92, then with 29.92 set in your altimeter, you'll be 1,000' higher than indicated, so at FL410 (read on your altimeter with 29.92 set), your "true altitude" would be about 42,000' MSL.
Anything approaching 31.00 as an altimeter setting is pretty rare, so I'd say that 42,000' is about the top end of the range for most commercial operations, although if you find a jet that can cruise above FL410 (at least some models of the 747 can, IIRC), then add 1000' to their max ceiling for your answer.
As far as the low end, anything below about 29.00 is a pretty rare altimeter setting, so subtract 1000' from whatever you want to use as your range for "indicated" altitude, and that will be the bottom of your corresponding range of "true" altitudes.
That all said, I've used altitudes below FL 180 for a cruise altitude in airline operations plenty of times, so there my indicated would essentially match my true altitude. Most often, this is on short flights where you can get more direct routing by staying low & out of more congested airspace up higher (U.S. east coast); sometimes the headwinds/tailwinds or the rides (turbulence) is enough better down low to make it worthwhile to fly below the flght levels.
So, if you want to consider what is the range of commercial operations, I'd say that FL410 is mostly a very firm upper limit, with very few airline flights above that, while the lower limit would be much less clearly demarcated. And converting to true altitude, add/subtract about 1,000' from your indicated (flight level) altitude to cover almost all of the likely variation in atmospheric pressure.
Comment: Always a Flight Level, as far as I've seen. For example, the 737 is good to FL410, which isn't changed no matter how high or low the.local pressure may be.
Comment: Thank you so much. May I ask you a follow-up question? When a jet is certified for cruising altitudes up to 45100 feet (B747), is it pressure altitude?
Comment: The difference between "indicated altitude" and "true altitude" actually depends on the actual **temperature, humidity** and bunch of other atmospheric properties that are *never* corrected for. The difference you describe is between "indicated altitude" (corrected for local pressure (but not density)) and "pressure altitude" (measured with standard setting of 1013 hPa (29.92 inHg)). "True altitude" is measured with GPS and only used for terrain proximity warning.


How to display (small) image previews at actual size?

Question: After upgrading to Lion, I'm finding that Finder is stretching the preview of smaller images (~100 pixels), which is making them look terrible.
Is there a setting somewhere I can check to have small images show at actual size?
Answer: You can press the space bar to open Quicklook; it opens quite fast, and you can still use the arrow buttons to navigate through your images.
Comment: This answer isn't useful in the context of the question, as the OP is asking about previews shown in the Finder, not a method of subsequently viewing the images shown.
Comment: +1 @vrwim While not directly answering the question at hand, I think this information was useful as I didn't know about this preview window. In the absence of a real answer this has been a useful workaround for me.
Answer: In the Preview bar, click 'Enter Full Screen' which is underneath slideshow.This will let you view the images in their actual size with the nice black background. It's basically the 'Slideshow' function from OSX Snow Leopard.


How can I remove DRM from my iTunes music without transcoding?

Question: I have some iTunes files with the file type AAC audio (protected) on Windows 7. The problem is that these songs only work with Apple software, and I want to remove the DRM.
Comment: Innocent readers of this thread should be aware that removing DRM from files (via cracking, not iTunes Match or CD burning or other first-party-supported methods) may be illegal in your jurisdiction (eg., the Digital Millenium Copyright Act in the USA, other countries may have similar laws). The morality of circumventing DRM aside, you may want to contact a local lawyer if you are worried about the possibility of breaking laws.
Answer: Apple offers a feature called iTunes Plus to upgrade most purchases to a DRM-free version for a small fee. This link will bring you directly to the appropriate section in iTunes to do this.
Comment: A lot of songs aren't available in iTunes Plus.
Comment: I thought their entire library was iTunes Plus for quite a while now? Perhaps you have some songs that aren't available at all anymore, though.
Comment: @75thTrombone yes, music from the US store isn't giving me any trouble. Stuff from the Japanese store is hit or miss, either Plus or 128-kbps protected. The bitrate is already low, which is why I really want to avoid transcoding.
Answer: With iTunes Match you can re-download them in iTunes Plus quality without DRM protection. And it's just $25 a year, definitely worth if you have more than an album with DRM. http://www.apple.com/icloud/features/
Answer: Here's an article that lists three ways to do it. The first way involves burning audio to CD and re-importing, which would be lossy/transcoding. The second and third methods appear to be software-based techniques to remove the DRM from the files without transcoding. I have not tried any of these methods.
Comment: QTFairUse looks perfect, but it requires iTunes 6-7.
Answer: Burning to Audio CD and re-ripping is not 'lossy' - yes you change codecs - however, you aren't losing quality going up to Audio CD from your 128 bit files.
When you come back down from Audio CD quality - you could lose quality, however, you could use 'Apple Lossless' or just keep them as AIFF or WAV if you'd prefer. Then you haven't lost any quality from your original files - they are just LOTS bigger :)
Comment: @Louis it's essentially an 'up conversion' - it won't GAIN any quality - but the AIFF/WAV/CD won't lose any compared to the original file. (I have to do similar things w/ video daily... H.264 to DPX/Cineon etc.)
Comment: Amusing solution, but I don't know if it's true that burning an AAC file to a CD is lossless.
Comment: In support of @Louis comment, if the CD recording of the AAC file is in the form of ordinary CD Audio -- that would play on a basic CD audio player, then it would not be lossless, with the following assumption.  Assuming that iTunes does not 'enhance' or otherwise adjust the audio coming from the AAC file before outputting it as CD Audio to the CD. In the playback section of preferences, check that all the options are switched off. If no alteration is occuring, then the audio played from the resultant CD should have be identical to the audio coming from the protected aac played by iTunes.
Comment: ...the assumption being that, internally, iTunes has to first remove the DRM to send to the AAC codec that decodes the content of the AAC file into a standard 16bit 44.1KHz stereo signal (the standard of CD Audio) which would be sent the the computer's DAC circuitry (digital to analogue converter) which outputs to your headphones or internal/external speakers or sound system. The crucial assumption is that the stage at which the AAC data is decoded into 16 bit 44.1KHz stereo, is also the same stage used in the CD ripping. i.e. the audio played from iTunes is the same as the audio it rips to CD
Comment: So the net effect is that the resultant CD Audio CD (Red book) with the music from the iTunes playlist burnt to it, would play the same audio as if the playlist was being played by iTunes, because both used the same process within iTunes to decode the audio. If, when burning, you use Virtual CD-RW mentioned in another answer, you can avoid requiring a CD writer all together if your end goal is to personally listen to your music without requiring iTunes. The result here would be one or more CD Audio images created depending on the size of your playlist.
Comment: You can then use an extractor tool to extract the audio from the CD image to say FLAC, which is a lossless format. The result would be you would have each tune as a FLAC, which although (if the assumptions made here are correct) would have identical playback as the aac, but the FLAC would be around 6-7 times larger in filesize than the aac. Which is no big deal as storage is cheap.
Answer: This answer only applies to someone with a Mac. I don't believe in paying iTunes again for something I already bought once. So, in case it helps someone else:
I've been having success with the program Virtual CD-RW for Mac... there's a 15 day fully functional demo period. (http://www.macupdate.com/app/mac/33355/virtual-cd-rw)
Basically, it tricks your computer into thinking you've mounted a blank CD. So I just filtered out all my iTunes music whose Kind is Protected AAC (bought before they removed DRM), split it up into CD-sized playlists, and burn and import playlists one by one. Just a modification of burning all your songs to an audio CD and then importing.


What should I look for in a budget macro lens for a Nikon DX camera?

Question: I'm looking to buy a macro lense for my wife, who is an enthusiast/hobby photographer. Her camera body is a D7000, and she has a full suite of lenses other than a dedicated macro. I know nothing about photography, not even what an f stop is, so was wondering if someone could advise me on what I should look for, either a specific model, or specs in general. She'll probably shoot flowers and plants, along with small reptiles and amphibians around the garden (she hates bugs). My budget is about $500 Cdn (so currently under $9.99 US ). Seriously, about $400 US max.
Comment: This does seem like a production recommendation thread that could be closed quickly, but I think it would be interesting to perhaps rephrase it as a "how do I choose a macro lens" question.
Comment: Thanks everyone for your help on this, and sorry again for tramping on the forum rules.
Answer: At US$400, your options are pretty limited.

The Nikon 40mm macro lens is the cheapest option (about $275) and from all reports it's a solid lens. It'll autofocus and meter with the D7000 and any other modern Nikon body. But... you have to get thisclose to your subject to use it. So close that you are practically touching the subject. The minimum focus distance is 6.4" from the sensor plane so that's about two inches from the front of the lens to take a photo of something at a 1:1 aspect ratio. There's literally no room to light your subject.
The Tokina 100mm macro lens is right at your budget ($400). It's an older lens but an advantage of the D7000 is that it will let you use autofocus with this kind of lens. Working distance will be good and results will be pretty good. All around, a solid buy.
The Nikon 55mm macro lens is right at your budget ($400). A very old lens, your wife will need to manually focus and meter with the lens. It only focuses down to half life size, a 1:2 ratio, but that's often still plenty to take photos of things like flowers. A great lens, if you know what you're getting in to.

Push the budget up to $500 and several really good options become available. Nikon's older 60mm, Nikon's 85mm, Tamron's 90mm, and Sigma's 70mm.
Another direction, as rob describes, is some extension tubes. You won't get near as close as with a true macro lens, but maybe that's not necessary. Reversing rings might also work well, if you've got a slew of lenses to work with.
Answer: The main things to consider when researching what macro lens to buy, are the magnification of the lens, and what the focal length will yield as a working distance and whether that working distance is appropriate for the subject matter you got the lens to shoot.
A number of 3rd-party lenses are labelled as 'macro' (or in Nikon terminology MICRO) but that magnify at less than 1:1.  When a lens's magnification spec is given as a ratio, that ratio is the size of the image on the sensor to the size of the actual object. 1:1, means that with an APS-C sensor, you can fill the frame with a subject that's the same size as the sensor: in the case of the D7000, that means 23.6mm x 15.6mm.  Most folks consider 1:1 magnification the requirement for a "true" macro lens.  All "true" macro lenses are prime lenses--lenses that don't zoom.
The other factor to consider is how close you have to be to your subject while shooting macro. The shorter the lens, the smaller this distance tends to be. With flowers or table-top arrangements, or product photography, this may not matter. With subjects that can crawl, hop, or fly away if you loom too closely over them, it may.  So, for example, a 60mm lens is probably better for still life photos, while a 90mm or 100mm macro might be better for bugs.
In addition to macro lenses, you can also increase magnification with "poor man's macro" methods, such as reversal rings (putting a lens on the camera backwards, or attached backwards to another lens with a coupling ring where the filters go), close-up filters (like putting a magnifying glass in front of a lens), or extension tubes (which increase the space between the camera body and the lens). But all three of these techniques remove the lens's ability to focus past a certain distance, and will focus strictly by adjusting the lens-to-subject distance, so you don't get to choose your framing as freely as a macro lens lets you do. And all of these techniques also can work in conjunction with a macro lens.
Answer: This sounds like a product recommendation which I think is off topic. If I were you I would look into some auto focus extension tubes. I have a set for around 50$ that I through on a telephoto lens that does a great job. You could even buy a couple of sets and stack them to get some pretty high magnification.
Comment: Thanks. Sorry if my question wasn't a proper question for this forum, difference in context didn't occur to me at the time.


How to unset node form select list element_validate?

Question: I added a built-in select list field to a content type but left the allowed values field setting empty, since I'ld like to get the possible options to choose from dynamically.
To be precise I'ld like to offer the editors a list of files inside a certain directory to choose from. This list can grow and I don't like to touch the content type and adjust the allowed values field setting every time a new file gets added to that directory. (Editing it afterwards may even not be possible since after having values for that field in the database when nodes got added you are not allowed to change field settings anymore.)
So here I am, having the list of files added to the form widget's options array, but now I'm unable to save the selected value as it's not in the list of allowed values.

The value you selected is not a valid choice.

OK I thought, let's simply uncheck the element validation: unset($form['field_MYFIELD']['widget']['#element_validate']). As far as I can remember this worked in D7. Makes the problem even bigger.

TypeError: Argument 1 passed to
  Drupal\Core\Field\WidgetBase::massageFormValues() must be of the type
  array, string given, called in
  /Users/Shared/www/Documents/MYREPO/web/core/lib/Drupal/Core/Field/WidgetBase.php
  on line 370 in Drupal\Core\Field\WidgetBase->massageFormValues() (line
  505 of core/lib/Drupal/Core/Field/WidgetBase.php).

Is there a simple way to unset this element validation here? Or should I introduce another custom select list field and save the chosen value into a hidden textfield, simply?
Answer: The solution is here:
https://chromatichq.com/blog/dynamic-default-and-allowed-values-list-fields-drupal-8
the discussion is here:
https://tutel.me/c/drupal/questions/242006/how+do+i+programmatically+update+the+allowed+values+of+a+list+field


Differences between KANBAN and SCRUM with respect to testing?

Question: Could anyone please give some important differences between KANBAN and SCRUM with respect to testing?
Any examples are most welcome.
Answer: With respect to testing they are the same.
Kanban and Scrum are both iterative Agile development models, the goal is to get the most important tasks fully done (including testing) as soon as possible. The product should be potentially shippable at the end of the iteration. The difference is with Scrum the end is a set date, with Kanban it could be anytime the features that need releasing are done. In Scrum you plan a fixed period of time and with Kanban you plan just in time.
As there is no testing phase after a Scrum or Kanban iteration, the testing must be completed during the iteration, preferably during the story/task scope. It is therefore very important to automate all possible test work, because during the next iterations there won't be time to do a full manual regression (unless you scale-up your test efforts over-time accordingly). Often teams use XP practices to asure continuous quality. In order to find automation candidates apply time boxed manual exploratory testing methods. The automation is there to ensure old features keep working and the team can keep delivering new features in a sustainable pace.
Suggested books to reads are:

Agile testing
Lean from the trenches
Kanban and Scrum, making the best of both (free e-book)
Answer: Kanban is not a software development methodology. It does not prescribe any method of development or testing.  You use Kanban for visualizing - and improving - what you are already doing.
So, if you are currently a Scrum team, and have specific testing/ test automation practices, you can continue to use the same with Kanban as well.  If you are using other methods, including iterative or waterfall, you can use the test processes that you use there.
Having said that, what @Niels has said makes perfect sense.  We ourselves are a product development shop and use Kanban to build a Kanban product.  When a developer picks a user story, they not only write the code for that, they also write the test case(s) to test them and automate them at the same time. Like @Niels said, we usually make a release when we have 20 items in our Done column!  Usually, that works out to about 3 weeks cadence - which works perfectly for our SaaS customers.
What makes Kanban interesting is this aspect of it - that you could be continuously developing, integrating, testing and releasing at a cadence that you feel comfortable with - and so the whole concept of Continuous Delivery becomes much more 'natural' with Kanban.
If you haven't read it yet, I'd highly recommend reading David Anderson's book that is generally considered the Bible of Kanban - "Kanban: Successful Evolutionary Change for Your Technology Business". If you are interested in using Scrum with Kanban, you should read "Scrumban - Essays on Kanban Systems for Lean Software Development" by Corey Ladas. Finally, you may also find this blog post interesting - "The NextGen (Agile) Tester".
Cheers!
Comment: Well, as I understand it, Scrum was specifically developed for software development (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Scrum_%28software_development%29) while Kanban for software was developed as a "method for improvement" - David Anderson, widely acknowledged as the guy who started it all, explicitly states in his book referenced above that it is not a software methodology.  But, I'd rather not argue that - it is true that most people adopting Kanban for software or product development treat it as a methodology.
Comment: Although you are right its not a software development methodology, I think with in the scope of softdev and testing it is. Both Scrum and Kanban do not originate from softdev, but are used as a planning, process and workflow management system.
Comment: I think your totally right, I made a wrong assumption and probably confused with some other LEAN like model. :)
Answer: Few definitions to focus on before jumping onto the differences:
Agile – A structured and iterative framework to track and manage projects. This approach is used in managing software development projects. It allows cross-functional teams to collaborate on users expectations.
Kanban – A framework which utilizes visualization technique, limiting the number of tasks to be taken in "Work in Progress" column. The segregation of a similar type of tasks can be done here. To simplify it, allocate colours to tasks using the swimlanes.
Scrum – The approach followed here is breaking down a complex task into simpler smaller manageable pieces which are easy to collaborate upon by the respective owners of the scrum.

Similarities between Kanban and Scrum
Frameworks of agile methodologies
Used to track the progress of the project
Provide the team transparency in tracking the work progress
Make use of visualization

Differences between Kanban and Scrum
Roles – Scrum is dependent on the scrum owners and is worked upon by them respectively. Kanban is independent of cross-functional team members and parallel roles.
Release cycle – Scrum makes use of sprints whose duration varies from one week to two weeks. The user stories are then taken up for development, testing and bug fixes. Kanban does not follow any cycle and the process is continuous in nature.
Tracking parameters – Scrum makes use of velocity in planning upcoming sprints taking into account the complexity and number of user stories completed in the previous sprint. Kanban ensures limiting of user stories in "Work in Progress" column to avoid bottlenecks. It tracks the time taken to finish a task from the starting to the end.
The scope of improvement – Scrum does not encourage changes in ongoing sprints. Kanban is open to any changes before the completion of the project. It is flexible in nature.
Fit factor – Scrum is suitable for projects with clearly defined user stories. Acknowledgement on the same by the client for timely completion of the project makes it a fit. Kanban being flexible in nature allows variations in priorities on the basis of the current scenario.
Pick process – Scrum picks the entire batch of user stories from the product backlog for development. Kanban follows the maximum number of tasks allowed in the columns to maintain the sanity of the framework and to avoid bottlenecks.
Delivery – Scrum follows delivery based on sprint planning and prioritize based on the specifications given by the client.Kanban follows the continuous delivery model based on business needs.
The above points are easy to remember if you are able to visualize working on them. Ideally where the scrum follows a rather predefined set of principles. Kanban is backed up by the principle of flexibility. It allows you to track tasks that are of utmost importance for delivery.


Did Kurama become a whole after the last war?

Question: Did Kurama get his half from Minato and become a whole after the war? Thus, in Boruto, is Kurama composed of yin and yang already?
Answer: Yes.
During the war, Black Zetsu absorbs Minato's half of Kurama -- Minato tries to revive Naruto (from whom the other half was just extracted by Madara), but Zetsu steals it, and that is how the Gedo Statue becomes complete. Here is that particular scene on YouTube.
After the war, the "whole" Kurama goes back inside Naruto.
Comment: Obito took control after Black Zetsu stole Minato's half, stole part of 1 and 8 tails from Madara, and then with help from Kakashi warped to his dimension with Naruto and injected them back in. Recall right before the final battle, Kurama was free and then sealed into a planetary devistation, AND Naruto used Kurama during that very battle.


What's a standard productive vs total office hours ratio?

Question: So it goes like this: we are keeping track of tasks using Redmine. We log time spent doing tasks, but at the end of the week if we add up all the time spent at those tasks there is no way a person has spent 40hs working. I think that's correct because offices have overhead (reading emails, politics, coffee, distractions).
What would be a normal productive time vs total time spent ratio?
Other areas in the organization just measure time spent in the office (with the rfid badges that open the door) but we don't like that approach and we are trying to convince Auditing to measure us using redmine instead.
Comment: Solutions to complex problems pop up in my head often while I'm commuting from work to home, in the supermarket or sometimes even when I'm in bed trying to catch sleep. Where should I write those productive hours (moments)?
Comment: ((office hours) - (15 minutes) x (number of interruptions)) / (office hours)
Comment: Be careful what you wish for. Logging time spent in office is not so invasive-- kind of like a head count. Tools like redmine give very fine-grained information. Do you _really_ want to trust the judgement of an auditor to evaluate every little thing you spend time on? These tools are great for nitty-gritty project management. In the hands of an auditor,  it could get very onerous.
Comment: What's the audit for and what is the outcome of reviewing the metrics?  I understand your desire to avoid RFID tracking, but you could be out of the frying pan into the fire if you offer a tool used for task productivity to auditors with a simplistic conversion metric - given how auditors use numbers like this, it could go very, very wrong.
Comment: sane people realize 75% productivity rate is usually about max. Many manager believe 100% is real. But even at 75% keep in mind that a lot of tasks one does aren't really productive to begin with (such as filling out time sheets)
Comment: When I did manpower studies we assumed that direct work was no more than 6 hours per day (well it was 6.2something I think, I can't remeber the exact number anymore, but this figure was based on many years of industrial engineering studies of virtually all professions). This includes time excluded for PTO, indirect meetings (such as an HR meeting on the new health insurance plan or the dailly standup meeting in an agile shop), unavoidable delay (the server is down), bathroom breaks, smoke breaks, filling in timesheets and other administrative tasks, reading emails, etc.
Comment: @PieterB - Exactly my ah-ha moments tend to happen in the shower.
Answer: On most project management courses I have been on there's a general assumption of a ~6 hour "productive" day for operational purposes, with the rest being classed as overhead and general administration.
A large part of our organisation time-writes for billing purposes, and has a target "chargable time" utilisation rate of 80%;  we operate a standard 7.6 hour working day this is measured against which gives a similar figure.
This figure is about average for a technical consultancy role - I have seen some professions like lawyers quoted as being higher, and others like engineers a bit lower.
The overhead involved in "switching" tasks is quite high, and so while 80% is an average, someone with a highly "fragemented" role would be less if measured accurately, perhaps 60%;  this generally applies to anyone with a management role who has to interact with staff above and below, or clients.
Answer: At my last job we scheduled work based on an "ideal hours" concept; hours spent heads-down, flat-out coding new parts of the project (which from an external viewpoint is "forward progress" aka productivity). An 8-hour day has 5 to 6 ideal hours; the rest of this time is spent in meetings, on phone calls, dealing with technical problems, fixing bugs in previous development, refactoring code and paying off other technical debt, etc. All of it's necessary, none of it moves the project forward. In practice, one calendar day may be spent completely heads-down coding and thus may have 8 ideal hours, while the next day may be spent primarily in client meetings and may have zero ideal hours spent coding. It averages out.
I will echo other answers and say that your company is unique even among others in the same industry or niche, and thus the ratio of "ideal" to working hours is going to be different. It's usually better to estimate in terms of "programmer-days". Whatever the ideal-to-working ratio is, how many calendar days should a developer be expected to take to finish a work item, given past performance and the estimated complexity of the task? The overwhelming majority of schedulable work items will take more than one programmer-day to complete. Anything smaller than about half a programmer-day can usually be shoehorned in wherever it fits, provided it doesn't turn into the following:
Comment: Automatic +1 for Dilbert...
Answer: I honestly don't know if you'll find a standard that fits your workplace and culture. No two departments are identical even if they are both the same (i.e. IT, HR, ...) across different companies/locations.
Use your tool to learn your baseline. From that you can make informed decisions on what you can do to improve the ratio in your situation.
Comment: @RhysW I wouldn't be surprised at all, I often wake up during the middle of the night with a solution to complex problem. My point is that you don't have any information without the baseline so can't say if you're overall productive or not.
Answer: It's totally wrong to start with some ideal ratio and try getting people to do that ratio. The amount of politics, distractions and the efficiency in meetings varies widely. I've been in assignments with say 30min productive work a day (because of excessive politics and multiple involved teams) - to perhaps 7-8h/ day.
Some people in offices tend to get more (task related or not) questions and might be a lot more distracted - but it can be productive for team as a whole.
Why not turn this up side down instead? Enhance the ratio instead, remove distractions etc.
Like other people said, the best productivity might not even come at work - solutions to hard solved problems may well come during vacation at a relaxed beach or when driving to work. The real "Aha" experience. Actually, today I "solved" a critical concurrency issue my client have been struggling for a long time with while snowboarding.
If you intend to use these figures for something - people will probably put up some overhead time on "productive tasks" anyway - because it is expected.
Answer: According to recent studies, an average worker is productive only 3 hours a day This time may vary according to your expertise.
Comment: @SolarMike Not sure why for journalists but another topic claim that developers have 3.5 - 4h maximum productive work per day.


Disciplinary action for nasty behaviour

Question: A couple of hours ago I reviewed  a proposal to edit a post. The suggested edit was nasty, irrelevant and of pornographic nature. I rejected the edit choosing the reason for rejection as "harmful". I added a comment saying I recommend the user who suggested the edit be expelled.  Will this get escalated and such an action be taken on that user?
Comment: The edit in question was proposed anonymously (you can propose edits without being logged in), so I'm not sure much can be done in this case...
Comment: Pics or it didn't happen xD
Comment: Seriously though, if the perpetrator is a repeat offender, the moderators or the staff themselves can take action against the perpetrator's network (by banning them or something similar).
Answer: As it stands, having merely rejected the edit and given a custom reason won't draw the moderator's attention. For that, the appropriate course of action would be to flag the post to which the edit was suggested for moderator attention, and explain the problem and ideally provide a link to the suggested edit (which you can find under the "activity" tab of your profile under "all actions" under "reviews").
Comment: I think it is highly desirable to flag the post in question (and not something else), as then the flag takes the mod to the right place. (For example the post history will contain [a link to] the suggested edit, and there might be more than one etc.)
Comment: @quid Do mods see rejected suggestions in post history? In any case, you're right that the post itself is the most relevant thing to flag and would be of use to the moderators in locating the edit, so I edited my answer here.
Comment: Yes, moderators have such information at hand on the post. (But my choice of word "post history" was poor, as it suggests it is under /revisions, like the approved one for everybody, which is not the case.)
Comment: Thanks for the info about "Activity" tab. I took a screenshot. As Eric has commented it would be futile as the mischief was  done anonymously.

Disciplinary action for nasty behaviour


Facebook Like Button Added to My Site Not Showing Up in FB when clicked

Question: I added the following to my website:

Every thing seems to be working with one exception.  I am allowed to add comments, but when the Post to Facebook button is clicked, nothing is showing up in Recent Activity or Likes on Facebook itself.  Is there an issue with FB?  Other things I like from other sites are appearing in Recent Activity and Likes.
Answer: Your app id is missing in
  js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js#xfbml=1&appId=xxxxxxxx";


Should a Project Manager be Directive or Supportive?

Question: For me, being directive is saying "do the things that I have told you to do" and supportive is "do what is best for the company, and if you have problem I will support you." To be an effective project manager, which is more important, to be directive or supportive?
Comment: Hi Sonam, welcome to PMSE! I believe that will be hard to find a canonical answer for your question. Without more details, I'd consider your question too broad and prone to closure. Could you please be more specific, adding more details to it?
Comment: The answer is yes, but unfortunately, the answer is also opinion based.
Comment: "To be an effective project manager, which is more important..." insert anything after that and the answer is always the same: whichever one works.
Answer: Both. Team maturity, process maturity, experience, risk, stakeholder support, and many other variables dictate the type of leadership and management approach you need to deploy. And you can expect to change your approach as things change.
Generally, avoid trying to find a single answer comparing two extremes. Our world is way more dynamic and random than that.
Answer: Actually, the most effective leadership style is the one adapted to the level of competence that a group or individual has regarding a specific task.
Hersey and Blanchard have described this in their "Situational Leadership Theory".
Competence is a combination of having sufficient knowledge or expertise as well as the motivation to do the job. For instance, a highly skilled programmer will not be very happy if he has to spend many hours doing helpdesk.
So, depending upon the 'situation' (skilled or unskilled vs motivated or not), a leader should adapt his management style accordingly. Hersey and Blanchard identified four styles:

Telling: the most directive
Selling: while still directive, there is more effort in convincing the employee
Participating: both leader and direct work together to find the best approach
Delegating: this gives the highest autonomy to the employee

Your approach towards a specific employee (or team) can change over time depending on the employee acquiring more knowledge about the task, or switching to a task he is already confident with.
There is a well known chart (an example can be found here) that summarizes the relationship between the styles and how you can move from one style to the other.
Good luck
Answer: Cultural Expectations vs. Role Effectiveness
Whether a project manager is expected to be a command-and-control authority figure or a servant-leader, coach, or referee is largely a matter of organizational culture. The expectation the role is generally set by the executives to whom the project manager reports; you can often be guided by their management style in determining the cultural expectations, but it's generally better to have it spelled out explicitly.
Of course, a better question would be: "Which style of management is more effective?" Unfortunately, there's no canonical answer to this question. Agile methodologies like Scrum typically require servant-leader, coaching, or referee-style management to fully enable the self-organizing principles of the Agile Manifesto. Other methodologies may lean towards other management styles.
I'm unaware of any canonical research that makes one type of management better than the other under all circumstances. Therefore, it is up to you (and your development and management teams) to determine what works best in your specific organization. The important thing is to make sure everyone in the organization is on the same page, and that everyone agrees on the nature of the project management role.
Answer: As some of the other responses state, the answer is "both".  Keep in mind that your job as a Project Manager is to maximize the effectiveness of everyone on the team.
The stronger team members will know what they're doing and you probably should stay out of their way.  Encouraging them and praising them for their accomplishments is the correct approach.
You will have other team members who are challenged, whether it be because they are new to the organization, new to the technology, or perhaps not a good fit for the role.  For these folks, you should be directive -- provide them with a detailed set of instructions for the work they do.
I'm of the opinion that as long as someone has a positive attitude, its up to his or her manager to come up with an environment that maximizes his or her contribution.  In some cases this means you should be "supportive" while in others it means you should be "directive".
Good Luck


Move /home to new partition on CentOS

Question: I have a new partition which is called /dev/DTX and I would like to move /home to it. /home contains all users websites. Is there any way to do it via SSH?
Thanks
Answer: Why use ssh for this? You have new partition on the same machine that actual /home (am I right?). So all you have to do is mount new partition copy all files from /home. Then umount /home and remount new partition as /home. (Maybe I mis understood your question and you dont want to copy files via ssh only do all tasks remotly via ssh then  yes you can do it via ssh).

Move /home to new partition on CentOS


As Heavy, should I be aiming for the body or the head?

Question: When playing as Heavy in TF2 and using the minigun, should I be going for body shots or head shots? Does the distance matter?
Answer: The minigun does constant damage regardless of location hit.  In fact, most weapons work this way.  The notable exceptions are most sniper primary-slot weapons and the Spy's Ambassador - these weapons can deal additional damage if you hit your enemy's head.
The damage dealt depends on the range - the further the range, the less damage per bullet that hits.  This wiki page gives the damage per shot as 50-54 at point blank, versus 5-10 at long range.  (The definition of the various ranges is given on the page, in terms of "real" map distances.)
There's also the concept of bullet spread, which means that at longer ranges less of your shots will be within the "crosshair" of the minigun.  It's a bit harder to find sources to quantify this effect, but the hitscan article contains at least a partial description.
The conclusion that you should draw from this (as Kevin correctly points out in the comments) is that you should be pointing at your target's center if you want more of your shots to land.  Aiming at the head simply limits the number of bullets that land, and gives you no additional damage to offset this.
Comment: I would add: Since the damage is independent of location, you should therefore fire at the center of your target's body (so as to have the greatest overlap of their body and your cone of fire).
Comment: welp, I've been wasting bullets! :-/ Will adjust my aim accordingly. Thanks!


How to update the ARP table of a router or switch? could it be possible through broadcasting?

Question: I have mac table list of router, now I am trying to get a Ip address for each mac address in mac table list. So i tried to use ARP, unfortunately ARP is missing some of the mac addresses mapping which are listed under mac table. How to get all mac-IP address mappings. Is there any way to get these mappings? Will it be possible by updating ARP table, if so how to update it?
Comment: FYI, when I pull ARP tables from production routers, I ping scan the entire subnet before polling the router with SNMP.
Comment: What model and manufacturer of router?   Are you going to use snmp?
Comment: Its a cisco router model is 3640. Yes i am trying through SNMP.
Comment: Please review the last part of [this question](http://networkengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/2900/using-snmp-to-retrieve-the-arp-and-mac-address-tables-from-a-switch/2904#2904)  and let me know if you still need help
Comment: @user3571448 Why do you think there will necessarily be an IP address/ARP Table entry associated with every MAC in the MAC Address Table?
Comment: Did any answer help you? if so, you should accept the answer so that the question doesn't keep popping up forever, looking for an answer. Alternatively, you could provide and accept your own answer.
Answer: Use a tool like NMAP with the -sP option (ping scan) against all subnets configured on interfaces:
nmap -sP [subnet IP]/[bitmask]

[repeat as needed for all connected subnets on router]
Then collect your SNMP information prior to the ARP timeout.   If you still have MAC addresses in your CAM table that you can't correlate to an IP, they don't have one configured.
Answer: There isn't any good way to do this other than a crude nmap ping sweep of the entire subnet. You'll at least be able to resolve all of the addresses on the subnet to usable hardware addresses.
Below is the commonly used verbiage.
nmap -sn -n 10.0.0.0/24

-sn (No port scan) .
This option tells Nmap not to do a port scan after host discovery, and
  only print out the available hosts that responded to the scan. This is
  often known as a "ping scan", but you can also request that traceroute
  and NSE host scripts be run. This is by default one step more
  intrusive than the list scan, and can often be used for the same
  purposes. It allows light reconnaissance of a target network without
  attracting much attention. Knowing how many hosts are up is more
  valuable to attackers than the list provided by list scan of every
  single IP and host name.
Systems administrators often find this option valuable as well. It can
  easily be used to count available machines on a network or monitor
  server availability. This is often called a ping sweep, and is more
  reliable than pinging the broadcast address because many hosts do not
  reply to broadcast queries.
-n/-R: Never do DNS resolution/Always resolve [default: sometimes]

nmap(1) - Linux man page


Pyrolysis of canola oil

Question: This is a topic that I cannot find much information about. I would like to know what compounds are in the products formed from pyrolysis of canola oil. I found out by accident that when trying to ignite some used canola oil in an aluminum can without a cover, the oil had become a mix of black solids and black liquid. I have not tried heating the oil in a container that has no exposure to oxygen. I could probably get better results by limiting all exposure to oxygen. I recently tried this experiment again and the oil is slowly turning black and looking like crude oil. I did find one article on this subject that says there are alkenes in the oil. Does anyone have more information on this?
Answer: Basically canola oil is obtained from a cultivated form of Rapeseed. Canola oil is just what rapeseed oil is called in North America.  From a marketing perspective it was thought that having the term "rape" in the product name would not help sales.
If you look for articles on rapeseed oil pyrolysis you'll find a lot of information since rapeseed (canola) oil is used in biodiesel production.
This article states that the major products produced from pyrolysis in a reactor include

gases: $\ce{CO2, CO, CH4}$ and $\ce{H2S}$
oils: oleic acid, 1H-indole, 2,3,5-trimethoxy toluene, toluene, (Z)-9-octadecanamide, psoralene, phenol and phenol derivatives

I didn't know what "psoralene" was, so here is a picture and a link

Pyrolysis of canola oil


Windows XP clients strange message in event log

Question: I am getting the following error message in the event log of many of my windows XP clients
The COM+ Event System failed to create an instance of the subscriber partition:{41E90F3E-56C1-4633-81C3-6E8BAC8BDD70}!new:{6295DF2D-35EE-11D1-8707-00C04FD93327}. CoGetObject returned HRESULT 8000401A.
Does anyone know what it means or how to cure it? Our network has been having a few issues recently with logon scripts not running and users not being able to access network shares could this error have something to do with it?
HRESULT 8000401A - I read somewhere that this result means unable to contact domain controller, is this right?
Thanks
Answer: It looks like this might be something to do with Synchronization Manager.
http://www.eventid.net/display.asp?eventid=4356&eventno=1035&source=EventSystem&phase=1


Can I run two different secure sites using the port 443 on the same server?

Question: Let's say I want two secure sites running from the same machine using the Apache server:
 1. https://example.com
 2. https://example.ca

Is it possible to use port 443 for both of the above sites?
Answer: As already explained, the SSL connection is created before any actual data is sent over the connection so Apache can not provide different SSL certificates for each of your virtual sites since it has no idea which server name is being requested. What this means is that regardless of what server name is actually requested (In this case "mysite.com" or "mysite.ca"), Apache will respond with the default SSL certificate it has been configured to use. This might be declared inside of the "default" 443 VirtualHost or in the global Apache configuration.
What this means from a usability standpoint is that you can absolutely host both sites from the same apache host and IP but users will receive a warning when accepting the certificate telling them the certificate is for the wrong site. The only way around this would be to have two different IP addresses and configure your virtual hosts so that they each listen on a different address. (Make sure to update DNS accordingly)
Once the certificate exchange has taken place, normal VirtualHost rules will apply and you can actually host different content on each server name if that's what you desire to do.
These examples are a little rough, you'll want to consult official apache documentation on the exact parameter names for setting up virtual hosts and configuring ssl if you don't know the basics already.
Example: Two servers on different IP addresses with different document roots, each presenting the correct certificate
<VirtualHost 188.8.131.52:443>
ServerName mysite.com
DocumentRoot /var/www/comroot
SSLEngine On
// Configure certificate for mysite.com
</VirtualHost>

<VirtualHost 220.127.116.11:443>
ServerName mysite.ca
DocumentRoot /var/www/caroot
SSLEngine On
// Configure certificate for mysite.ca
</VirtualHost>

Example: Two servers on the same IP using the wrong certificate (configured elsewhere) but still serving different content based on server name.
<VirtualHost *:443>
ServerName mysite.com
DocumentRoot /var/www/comroot
SSLEngine On
</VirtualHost>

<VirtualHost *:443>
ServerName mysite.ca
DocumentRoot /var/www/caroot
SSLEngine On
</VirtualHost>

Answer: You can run multiple SSL sites from a single IP address using a couple of methods, each with their own drawbacks.
The first method is to have a SSL certificate that covers both sites. The idea here is to have a single SSL certificate that covers all the domains you want to host from a single IP address. You can either do this using a wildcard certificate that covers both domains or use Subject Alternative Name.
Wildcard certificates would be something *.example.com, which would cover www.example.com, mail.example.com and support.example.com. There are a number of problems with wildcard certificates. Firstly, every hostname needs to have a common domain, e.g. with *.example.com you can have www.example.com, but not www.example.org. Secondly, you can't reliably have more than one subdomain, i.e. you can have www.example.com, but not www.eu.example.com. This might work in earlier versions of Firefox (<= 3.0), but it doesn't work in 3.5 or any version of Internet Explorer. Thirdly, wildcard certificates are significantly more expensive than normal certificates if you want it signed by a root CA.
Subject Alternative Name is a method of using an extension to X509 certificates that lists alternative hostnames that are valid for that certificate. It involves adding a "subjectAltName" field to the certificate that lists each additional host you want covered by the certificate. This should work in most browsers; certainly every modern mainstream browser. The downside of this method is that you have to list every domain on the server that will use SSL. You may not want this information publicly available. You probably don't want unrelated domains to be listed on the same certificate. It may also be difficult to add additional domains at a later date to your certificate.
The second approach is to use something called SNI (Server Name Indication) which is an extension in TLS that solves the chicken and egg problem of not knowing which certificate to send to the client because the client hasn't sent the Host: header yet. As part of the TLS negotiation, the client sends the required hostname as one of the options. The only downside to this is client and server support. The support in browsers tends to be better than in servers. Firefox has supported it since 2.0. Internet Explorer supports it from 7 onwards, but only on Vista or later. Chrome only supports it on Vista or later too. Opera 8 and Safari 8.2.1 have support. Other browsers may not support it.
The biggest problem preventing adoption is the server support. Until very recently neither of the two main webservers supported it. Apache gained SNI support as of 2.2.12, which was released July 2009. As of writing, IIS does not support SNI in any version. nginx, lighttpd and Cherokee all support SNI.
Going forward, SNI is the best method for solving the name-based virtual hosting of HTTPS, but support might be patchy for a year or two yet. If you must do HTTPS virtual hosting without problems in the near future, IP based virtual hosting is the only option.
Comment: It's not Apache per se which supports SNI, it's `mod_ssl`.  If you use some other TLS/SSL module like `mod_gnutls` you can use SNI on any Apache version.
Answer: Only if the sites are on their own IPs.
SSL connectivity happens before the client asks for a website, so when the SSL connection is set up the server has no idea what the client is going to ask for.
For example if you are presenting the .com SSL cert, which would make clients asking for the .ca unhappy.
The solution is to set up a second IP for the .ca, and have a separate instance of the web server listen on that IP with the .ca's SSL cert.
Comment: Is it possible to do all that from one server or a second is needed?
Comment: It is possible to do this on one server.  Most web server software can assign an IP to each web site they host.  I know that apache and IIS both can.
Answer: Yes, as long as you assign multiple IP's to the machine. One for each SSL certificate/domain.
Generally, you'll need a unique IP for each SSL server. Windows, Linux, BSD & Solaris all support multiple IP's on a single NIC or you can add extra NIC's or multi-port NIC's.
It's quite common to to assign 10-20 IP's per machine/NIC in a web serving environment.
Other SSL options that won't work with your criteria.
Wildcard SSL certificates can host many sub-domains as long as the second level domain is the same, typically used for mass virtual hosting.
Shared SSL certificates can be used on multiple machines for the same domain, typically used for failover and load-balancing.
Answer: Good answers, however, using one HTTP server to host both sites has a SPOF - i.e. once instance of apache server. If that apache server goes down, both sites aren't reachable. How about a dual-port ethernet card? or, even better, using virtualization. I'm a big fan of virtualization like xen or openVZ. However, you'll need to spend some money on hardware though.
Comment: Doesn't address the actual question.
Answer: dear users kindly use haproxy in the front of your apache2 in this case you will able to forward different domain on the same apache server on the different ssl port but you need to configure tow different site under site enabled with ports such as 443 and 8443 you can copy past the first ssl site and change inside only port and domain alias you will find help regarding apache2 ssl activation also you need to difine hosts file with 2 ips like 127.0.1.1 web-ssl1 127.0.2.1 web-ssl2


How to set an initial guess for the iterative solver in Comsol?

Question: How to set the initial guess for the iterative solver GMRES or FGMRES for linear problems (Helmholtz equation of RF module) in Comsol?
Answer: I am not too familiar with the details of the iterative solve in Comsol; however, quick googling did reveal any easy way to set up a custom initial guess for an iterative linear solver. (I ready to be proven wrong).
A couple of notes:

It is a common practice to use a solution with the preconditioner as an initial guess.
So, say, you are solving a system
$$
Ax=b \implies P^{-1}Ax=P^{-1}b
\tag{1}
\label{1}
$$
with a left preconditioner $P$. Then, the solution of $\eqref{2}$
$$
Px=b
\tag{2}
\label{2}
$$
will serve as an initial guess for $\eqref{1}$. So, if a preconditioner is used, usually, one does not start with random/zero initial guess, and the quality of the initial guess is directly related to the quality of the preconditioner $P$.
For a linear system, the effect of the initial guess on the convergence is limited. Certainly, the better is the initial guess, the faster the iterative solver converges, especially if your initial guess is very-very close to the true solution. However, one has to be careful, as an over-specification of an initial guess can harm the iterative solver process.
If you are doing a frequency sweep, I think by default Comsol will use a solution from the previous frequency as an initial guess for the current one.

In conclusion, "my initial guess" is that Comsol decided not to include the option of setting a custom initial guess for linear problems because there is little value that can be obtained from that, it might complicate the interface, and even harm the convergence sometimes.


What is the formula to calculate the length of a merkle tree?

Question: What is the formula to calculate the length of a merkle tree, given the length of the leaf vector?
Answer: The length of a merkle tree is the sum of a series starting with the number of leaves, halving (rounded up) on every step and ending with 1.
Here is the algorithm for calculating the length of a merkle tree from the number of leaves in JavaScript.
function getMerkleLength(leafCount) {
  // Input must be a positive integer or zero
  leafCount = Math.abs(parseInt(leafCount));

  var merkleLength = 0, currentLevel = leafCount;

  // Most merkle tree implementations return a null hash for empty lists, so the
  // length in that case would still be one.
  if (leafCount <= 1) return 1;

  // Loop
  for (;;) {
    // Add the current level to the length
    merkleLength += currentLevel;

    // If the current level is the root, we are done
    if (currentLevel == 1) return merkleLength;

    // Each level contains half the hashes of the last one and if there is an
    // odd number of leafs, the last hash is duplicated
    currentLevel = Math.ceil(currentLevel / 2);
  }
  return merkleLength;
}

Edit: I like readable code, but just for fun, here's the equivalent short version:
function getMerkleLength(leafCount) {
  for (var len = 0, i = ~~leafCount; i > 1; i = ~~(i/2+.5)) len += i;
  return len >= 2 ? ++len : 1;
}

Edit 2: And a C version for good measure.
typedef unsigned int uint;

uint getMerkleLength(uint leafCount)
{
  uint len = 0, i;
  for (i = leafCount; i > 1; i = (i+1)>>1) {
    len += i;
  }
  return len >= 2 ? ++len : 1;
}

void main() {
  uint i;
  for (i = 0; i <= 100; i++) {
    printf("%u: %u\n", i, getMerkleLength(i));
  }
  printf("%u: %u\n", 5000, getMerkleLength(5000));
  printf("%u: %u\n", 99999999, getMerkleLength(99999999));
}

Comment: Well yes, recursively, it is not a problem, I was thinking about calculating it without recursion, if it is at all possible.
Comment: @ThePiachu If you're content with a very good approximation, it's simply twice the number of leaves.
Comment: @MeniRosenfeld Hmm, approximation, maybe, but one can't count on it being enough with memory allocation. The approximation is one short for 5 (5+3+2+1=11) and 10 (10+5+3+2+1=21).
Comment: Not sure I get your point, this loop will execute about once per bit. So for a merkle tree with 1 million transactions, you'll need about 20 iterations of the loop, maybe 300 cycles. That's about the cost of a 2-3 memory accesses. I can't imagine a scenario where it would be worth optimizing this function or using a heuristic. If you plan on allocating the memory for that merkle tree, you'll spend several orders of magnitude longer doing that.
Comment: @ThePiachu Then use an upper bound. The value of the function is always at most 2n + (log(n)/log(2)) - 1.
Answer: It's not clear exactly what you're asking. The 'Merkle Tree' is a notional structure consisting of a number of different objects used in the process of generating a hash. It's not an object with a standard binary format whose length is well-defined.
In other words, the Merkle Tree is an algorithm. You put in an ordered list of N 256-bit hashes, and you get out a single 256-bit hash. There really is no "Merkle Tree" itself that has any length. To reconstruct the entire process, you need all and only the input hashes in order.
Comment: Well, Block Explorer for example lists all the hashes of the merkle tree as a list - http://blockexplorer.com/rawblock/0000000000000086f8bf1ddf9d45ecb0fb3405b4a203fb7c84a8624b5e447e95 - I am wondering how one would pre-calculate the length of the array given the number of the leaf nodes.
Comment: I believe there's one 256-bit entry for each transaction. The top one is the hash of the first transaction, which is what the hash would be if only the first transaction were included. The last one is the final hash, the one with all transactions included (and it matches the hash in the header).


Finding when and why ancestor was in Bodmin Gaol ca 1835-1839?

Question: I'm looking for inmate records for Bodmin Gaol jail in the UK circa 1835-1839. My 4th great-grandfather Phillip Stephen Rule (born 1777) was an inmate there based on records I have found on ancestry.com, but all I can find is his release year of 1839. I cannot find when he was imprisoned or what he was in there for to begin with.
Comment: The removal of Philip jr referenced by @PolyGeo above was quashed on appeal due to an argument over the residential status of Philip sr going back many years. There's coverage of that appeal in legal journals, including [this](https://books.google.co.uk/books?id=IixFAAAAYAAJ&pg=PA152&lpg=PA152&dq=%22philip+rule%22+camborne&source=bl&ots=7AAiP3kYTy&sig=7mAv-S7IdPqsSbKfbt9wnfmyJM8&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjOrO6k5o_SAhXCVywKHc0lBp4Q6AEIPDAG) one on Google Books. That appeal was heard on 26 Apr 1834, and does not mention the elder Philip's incarceration, so he was probably not in Bodmin then.
Comment: @PolyGeo - fair enough. I've put together what I've found. It doesn't really answer the question, but might still be helpful.
Comment: http://genealogy.stackexchange.com/a/12002/104 is probably what you need to know.
Comment: Welcome to G&FH SE!  I'm going to make this a duplicate of an earlier question because I think "The [Cornwall Family History Society](http://www.cornwallfhs.com/) are doing transcripts of various documents (see [GenUKI](http://www.genuki.org.uk/big/eng/Cornwall/Bodmin#Correctional))" and "[Bodmin Bridewell and its inmates, 1821-1848 \[electronic resource\] by Sally J. Pocock.](http://trove.nla.gov.au/work/35124796?selectedversion=NBD42404461)" covers the information necessary to answer it.
Comment: When was Phillip born?  It may help you to narrow down the range of years in which it is likely that he was admitted to Bodmin.  Maybe there is a quarter session record like in the duplicate.
Comment: He was born in 1777!
Comment: I'm trying to view the electronic resource, but can't figure out how to because viewing it online is not an option. Pardon my inexperience with this. I have just recently started researching my family lineage.
Comment: That electronic resource comes from trove.nla.gov.au but I have not accessed it because my ancestor was "out of gaol" before the time period that it covers.  Depending on what country you live in there may be more convenient places to view that book.
Comment: This is a search which may be worth doing, if you have not already, http://discovery.nationalarchives.gov.uk/results/r?_q=%22philip+rule%22+bodmin It seems to show removal records for Philip (senior; married to Ann) and Philip (junior; married to Betsy).
Comment: Did you base your estimate that he was only in gaol for 1835-1839 on some records showing that he was not any earlier than 1835?
Comment: @AndyW I'm thinking that we may have found enough to write some answers so I will re-open this question.
Answer: The OP notes a record on Ancestry that describes Philip Rule's discharge from Bodmin jail in 1839. It does not give a reason for incarceration, nor a committal date. This appears to be the only record on that site for Philip in Bodmin. The timing of, and reasons for, his jailing may be found in the aforementioned Pocock database, but there is a chance that no such records remain.
We can learn more about Philip and his family, though, from the records that have already been uncovered. @PolyGeo identified a National Archive search that has entries for Philip Rule of Camborne, and his son, also named Philip.
I'm going to refer to the elder Phillip/Philip as "Philip I" and the younger as "Philip II" in here, just for clarity. I'm not implying that they were Kings of Spain. :)
The 1834 legal report discusses an appeal at the King's Bench court (which moved around the country to hear cases) against a removal order on Philip II.
We might need definitions of a couple of legal terms here, such as "settlement" and "removal".

The Elizabethan Poor Laws, "made each parish responsible for supporting the legitimately needy in their community … though they were not obligated to provide for those outside of their community." As the poor flocked to more generous parishes, the later Settlement Act "allowed such people to be forcefully removed" back to their home parishes, and gave rise to "sojourners, people who resided in different settlements that were not their legal one". A 1691 act then introduced "methods by which people could gain settlement in new locations", including apprenticeships.

So:
+ Settlement is the legal residence of a person, where the parish is responsible for their care in destitution. It is not necessarily where they actually live.
+ Removal is the process of returning a pauper to their parish of settlement for support ("relief") there.
+ A sojourner is someone living outside of their settlement parish.
My summary and interpretation of the appeals case is as follows. (If I've got it wrong, please let me know!)

The original removal order aimed to move Philip II from Gwinear, where he lived, to Camborne, where he was considered to have settlement on the grounds that his father lived there. The appeal against this order was based on the location of Philip I's settlement.
Philip I had lived with his family as a child in Camborne, until they were removed to St Erth. In 1789 (aged ~12) he was bound in apprenticeship in St Erth to a local farmer until the age of 21. By the 1691 act above, he would attain settlement in St Erth once his apprenticeship had completed. Philip I moved with his "master" to another parish, Phillack, during this period. With about 2 years remaining on his apprenticeship, Philip I left his master's household and returned to his father, now back in Camborne. His father negotiated with the master, agreeing to pay a sum of money in return for Philip I's "indenture" (roughly, his apprenticeship contract). During this period, the father was still supported by St Erth, his settlement parish.
So the case hinged on where Philip I's settlement was. The court concluded that Philip I had not completed his apprenticeship in Camborne, so he never gained settlement there. As a result, Camborne were responsible neither for Philip I nor Philip II, and so the removal order of the latter to Camborne was not valid.

The case isn't directly relevant to the original question - nobody went to jail - but it does contain some potentially useful information. It tells us that three generations of the Rule family - Philip II, Philip I and the latter's father - were paupers at some time in their lives, and it lists several parishes in which they lived, along with some occupational details. Camborne and St Erth are around 10 miles apart, with Gwinear and Phillack between them, so they were still moving around a relatively small area.
From Pallot's Marriage Index (also Ancestry), Philip Rule was a sojourner when he married Ann in 1802. This correlates well with the appeal case report where he is not living in his settlement parish. (Philip I's legal settlement parish is never made clear, but must presumably have been St Erth, or perhaps Phillack).
It is also worth noting that a surname search for "Rule" in the Bodmin record set on Ancestry brings up 36 results, 14 from Camborne. These include Philip I and Phillip II, and are likely to involve other members of the extended Rule family. Their crimes included rioting, assaulting a police officer, theft, bigamy and, worst of all, stealing Ellen Vincent's skirt.
Ancestry also has two Workhouse records from 1843 for Philip I, here and here, which state that he had no employment or means of support. The latter describes Philip I as a Methodist, so there's a chance that records from that church may mention him.
It's likely that a wider search and more detailed study of these (and other) criminal and poverty-related records across several parishes will yield more information about the Rule family and their lives, even if they don't bring detail to Philip I's vacation in Bodmin.
(Note, I've given Ancestry.co.uk links, as those are the ones I have access to. I believe that changing the "co.uk" to "com" in the link will convert them successfully to the US site.)
Answer: The FamilyHistory.co.uk website have a section dedicated to Cornwall Family History - http://www.familyhistory.co.uk/cornwall-family-history/
They include details of Cornwall Record Office and they might be worth contacting.  They also include details of the local Cornwall Newspaper Archives and the dates covered.  The Royal Cornwall Gazette covers the period you are looking for.  I did an exact search under a few different options and tried "philip rule" and did come up with a Philip Rule for date 18 August 1832 who was convicted of stealing a leg of lamb from a stall at Camborne Market and imprisoned for a month. It's not the date you're looking for but might be the man you are looking for. Might be worth you taking some time to do some more searches on there.
Comment: Welcome to the site, Nigel! That's a useful link, and the newspapers are always worth searching for subjects such as this one. As it happens, Ancestry have two "Philip Rule" entries for Bodmin Gaol. The 1839 entry is for a Philip Rule born 1777 (as in the OP), while the 1832 entry is for a Philip Rule born 1804. I think the larcenous lamb-leg-lifting latter is Philip II, son of Philip I.
Comment: Hi Andy, thanks for the welcome - and thanks for the useful info on Philip II


Manage podcasts outide of iTunes for iPhone

Question: I have a rather large list of podcasts I sync with my iPhone couple of times' each weeek. My problmes is however that I have à couple of computer and I cacanr find à good way to update from any of the computer. Is it possible to export import à list of subscription and what other alternatives do i have to manage them?
Answer: Aside from the fact that it is slightly buggy, I really like RssPlayer.  By using RssPlayer instead of getting podcast updates from a computer, you can get you updates directly on the phone.
Answer: There's a program called TouchCopy that you can buy that lets you manage your iPhone content such as podcasts without using iTunes.
Answer: I used to have this problem until I just went into ITunes on the iPhone and set all my RSS feeds up inside the iPhone itself. No new software, just iTunes on the device


Pictures of Chometz on Pesach

Question: Is viewing pictures of Chometz allowed on Pesach? To be more specific this would be in reference to an article or event.
Comment: And what about smelling chometz? there seems to be much more of a problem with deriving benefit in that case.
Comment: AJ, Welcome to mi.yodeya, and thanks for the interesting question! I like your pic. Chag Sameach Vekasher.
Comment: If I recall correctly, the Mishna Brurah advises against sniffing any non-kosher food -- why tempt yourself?  As for "deriving benefit", the Talmud concludes that sound and light aren't "tangible benefits", but smell is.  I don't know how that works vis-a-vis chometz.
Answer: Absolutely not assur. In fact seeing actual chometz is not assur either.
Comment: Right; the obligation is "no chometz shall be seen in your possession"; this isn't about seeing chometz; it's about owning it.  Common misconception.
Answer: The difference between viewing chometz and smelling chometz is whether you get a benefit from it or not. As people, in general, don't get a benefit of seeing a picture of a loaf of bread, this should not be a problem. On the other hand, there IS a concept of getting a benefit from smelling (for example, making a blessing on the spices during havdalah and taking a whiff). If you happen to pass by a bakery by accident (or there is no other alternative than passing said bakery on the way to home or shul) and you get a whiff of bread, there shouldn't be a problem. But if you walk to a bakery to take in the smells, you might be violating a rabbinical ruling, in that you're getting a benefit from smelling bread on Pesach.
Comment: Barry Hammer, hello and welcome to Judaism.SE! Thanks for contributing your recent streak of _halacha_-related contributions. See you around.
Comment: Thanks! I'm glad I'm able to contribue to something where I actually have some knowledge I can bring to the table ;)
Comment: +1. This matches what I've heard from in the name of some _t'shuva_ book or other (I forget which), but citations are always useful.

Pictures of Chometz on Pesach


Transportation from Frankfurt Hahn airport to Bochum

Question: My friend and I will fly to Frankfurt Hahn airport and we need to go to Frankfurt main HBF, because we have to go to Bochum. What is the cheapest way to go from Frankurt Hahn to Frankfurt HBf and from Frankfurt Hbf to Bochum?
Comment: Hahn airport is named "Frankfurt" purely for marketing reasons, it is 100 km or so from the city. Travelling to Frankfurt in order to continue to Bochum is quite a detour. Consider taking the bus to Koblenz instead, then train from there (about 3.5 hours total, compared to about 5 hours via Frankfurt; likely cheaper, too).
Comment: Have you considered flying into Dusseldorf (DUS) instead?  There are direct  trains from DUS airport to Bochum, taking about 35 minutes and costing as little as EUR 13.50 or less.  Compare with 3.5 hours and EUR 60+ to travel from Frankfurt Hahn to Bochum (even when using the faster/cheaper route via Koblenz).  Even if the airfare to Dusseldorf is a bit more expensive, you might well come out ahead in money and time.  Cologne (CGN) might also be a reasonable compromise.
Comment: Dortmund (DTM) is litteraly next door. Weeze (NRN) is also an interesting option.
Comment: Should you have booked a saver fare train ticket ("Sparpreis") from Frankfurt HBF to Bochum already, then you can still cancel it for 17,50 Euro fee. Alternatively, you could check for the train that you booked if it stops at Koblenz anyway. In this case, you can still use the same ticket and get on the train in Koblenz instead.
Answer: It is not necessary to travel through Frankfurt. You can take a bus from Hahn to Koblenz and catch a train there. Many northbound trains from Frankfurt to Köln and onwards go through Koblenz. And the fare from Hahn to Koblenz is a bit lower: 11.20 EUR vs. 15 EUR (or 14 EUR if you buy the tickets online).
=> Buses to and from Hahn Airport
The full fare for a second class train ticket for 2 persons from Koblenz to Bochum is 84 EUR (or 88 EUR if an ICE train is involved). It can be much cheaper if you book the tickets in advance and commit to specific trains. If you choose to travel on regional trains (RE, RB and S-Bahn), you can buy a Quer-durchs-Land Ticket for 52 EUR. In that case you don't have to book in advance or commit to trains. It's fully  flexible and not much longer than a trip on an IC or ICE train.
Answer: As has been pointed out, going through Frankfurt (Main) may not be necessary. Busradar gives a good overview of your options for bus and rail travel (they even include blablacar).
In case you have to go to Frankfurt (Main) for some reason, your best guess is the 14€ bus, I'm not aware of any alternatives.


what are good chords to follow a V6 chord? good chord progressions, etc

Question: I'm doing harmony and I got stuck when I was doing modulation. what is a good chord to put after a V6 chord that isn't an I?
Comment: Welcome to Music Stack Exchange.  The site welcomes focused on-topic answers and questions, and yours is well focused.  You may find that some users here will feel that your question relies a bit too much on opinion rather than fact.  In other words, this sort of question is likely to get a wide variety of responses, none necessarily 'better' than others.  But hang in there and keep submitting.  Again, welcome.
Comment: This needs qualifying. V6 usually, as Richard alludes, means the 1st inversion of the chord - in key C major, it would be a G chord with B bass, aka G/B. However, in more modern terms, it could be construed as G6 - spelled G B D E, also known as Em7. If so, an Am would be a good alternative following chord, especially with a B bass note in G6. Add the dominant, and we're into G13.
Comment: V6 might mean V with an added 6th.   G, B, D, E in the key of C.  This opens a whole new lot of possibilities.
Answer: Here are some other ideas that don't go to the tonic (assuming V6 means the first inversion of V):
Prolonged Dominant:
You can keep spamming dominant-function chords after the dominant-function chord V6, such as these:

V: Changing the bassline can do wonders.
V7: This has a stronger sense of establishing the home key than V6 does.
V6/5: This is the first inversion of V7, so it's easier to reach from V6.
vii°: This is also treated as a dominant-function chord.
vii°7: See above.
vii half-diminished 7: See above--this is used more often in major keys than in minor keys.
V13: Gotta love escape tones.
V augmented: This works surprisingly well for me, even as a full-blown dominant-function chord, but I only recommend this if you want to really ratchet up the tension.
I6/4: I haven't used the second inversion of I much in this context, but you can give it a try...and tell me if it sounds like a tonic-function chord instead of its usual strongly predominant role.

Deceptive:

vi: Stereotypical deceptive cadence, here we come.
vi6: Easier to reach from V6.
(b)VI: This is bVI if you're in a major key (and you're borrowing this from the tonic minor) and VI if you're in a minor key. This chord sounds the same in both cases.

You can even rapidly alternate between dominant-function chords and deceptive-function chords. One example is bVI-V-bVI-V-bVI-V...
Super Deceptive:
These might not be found in common-practice period harmony, but you can use them:

iv6: I've read that this works as a deceptive-function chord in my harmony lessons. This is borrowed from the tonic minor if you're in a major key.
bII: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cadence_(music)#Interrupted_.28deceptive.29_cadence says that J.S. Bach has used the Neapolitan chord as a deceptive-function chord before. I also hear this in heavy metal.
Any augmented sixth: Since (b)VI works, surely adding a minor seventh/augmented sixth to that chord and calling it a German augmented sixth also works. Then, by extension, the Italian augmented sixth and the French augmented sixth should work reasonably well.
V7b5/V: V7/V with a lowered fifth is actually the second inversion of the French augmented sixth, so it should also work.
IV: Some days, I don't care that my harmony lessons disallow the V-IV chord progression--I use this and I find that it works in major keys.
iv: Definitely for minor-key 12-bar blues fans.
Common-tone diminished 7th of V: If I-CT°7 of I-I works, then so might this after a V6.

Secondary Dominant:
You can tonicize the dominant with these:

V/V: The simplest such secondary dominant.
V7/V: This more clearly tonicizes the dominant than V/V does.
vii°/V: This also counts as a secondary dominant...
vii°7/V: ...as does this.

Basically, you can take any dominant-function chord, put "/V" on the bottom, and use it.
Modulation:

V7/IV: This sounds like I except for its added minor seventh, so you can easily head to IV or iv from here.
i: Suddenly switching to the tonic minor can also sound effective.

As Richard says, you can use V6 like an even more exotic pivot chord than the above.
Answer: There are all kinds of options, but here are 5 possibilities. Note: this answer assumes that "V6" means "a dominant chord in first inversion," not a triad with added sixth.

A. After the V6, you can resolve the leading tone in the bass as expected, but put a V7/IV above it instead.
B. Or, you could resolve to the same chord, but now in third inversion. Doing so "frustrates" the leading tone B, pushing it down to the chordal seventh Bf.
C. Or you could just go hogwild and take a ride on the omnibus. (Note that here I changed the V6 to a V65.)
D. The V6 here is a part of a descending third progression; here the V6 moves to vi. (You could also change the G in this V6 to G#, making it an applied chord to vi.)
E. Or could you just say screw it and modulate to another key. Here I reinterpret the V6 in C as a IV6 in D, and I move through a German+6 to cadence in D major.
Again, there are all kinds of things you could do following a V6; these are only five!
Answer: It really depends on the type of music.  In jazz, for example, a wider variety of chords will sound OK in that situation than would be true in classical.  The presence of the 6th in the V chord, which is the same pitch as the 3 tone in the I chord, tends in this case to want to resolve upward, so a IV chord would certainly work, or a ii chord.  Again, the style of music is important in answering this sort of question.  You might want to edit your question to clarify that point.
Answer: Whatever chord you choose you will have to have the tonic of the key as the root of the following chord. Remember if the Dominant chord is in the first inversion then the Leading Tone of the Key is on the bass, this note has to resolve.
So you basically have two choices either the tonic in root position or the six chord in the first inversion.
As for a modulation, you could easily choose a key with the tonic of the key you are coming from. So let's choose C major just as an example. If you have the dominant chord in the first inversion you have a B in the bass you would need some sort of chord with a C note in it.
So if you are not interested in modulating you could very easily just go to the Tonic chord of C major and call it a day but let's say you do want to modulate.
You can think to yourself we still want a chord to build on C but what if this chord is not the tonic of the key, what if this chord build on C is the dominant of some new key.
So if C is the fifth note of a key what are we in then? Oh a key build on F. So let's say F major. What accidental does F major have that C major does not? Oh, it has that B flat.
Think clearly know, what is the seventh of the Dominant chord in F major... Oh it is that B flat (C-E-G-Bb) So know if you build this C chord with a B flat for the seventh (That resolves correctly) You have successfully modulated to the Dominant key
Comment: "you will have to have the tonic of the key as the root of the following chord" Root, or bass? And in the last paragraph, did you mean "subdominant"?
Answer: I think the V6 will add some tension and want to resolve to the V. Also you said modulation so maybe something with circle of fifths.


Was this Swedish song from the 1980s-2000s an imitation musically of some 1960s USA song? If so, what was that song's name?

Question:

I've been unable to figure out which year it was made, but I know the artist ("Eddie Meduza") and the name of the song ("Åh! en sån lyrik"). It was re-released on the album "Alla tiders fyllekalas. vol 14" after his death (he died in 2002), so that's not when it was originally released/made, but somebody searching for the song might be fooled into thinking that, so I'm mentioning it here.
It's one of his "joke songs", and he sounds clearly grown up in the lyrics (which aren't heard in my sample), which means it was definitely later than 1980. That much can be established. It might even be that this was one of the last songs he made, right before he passed away, but I would guess that this was made in the mid-1990s or maybe early 1990s. It doesn't really matter. It was made after 1980 for sure.
I've heard an American song from (presumably) the 1960s or maybe 1950s (but could in theory be from much later) which has almost the same tune, albeit played faster and slightly differently. I have no idea what that song is called, but I've been searching for it for a long time.
When he didn't make obvious covers on English-language songs, this guy (who I admire) usually had a very unique sound and was very creative, so it surprises me that he would just "steal" a tune like this, if that really is the case. I hope it's not. It may be a case of him having heard it at some point and forgotten that it existed, and then later genuinely thought that he had come up with this "original" sound without intending to steal it from anyone. It could also be that I've got this all wrong and that the American song actually was made after his, and the exact reverse situation is the truth... but I frankly doubt it. It's probably just wishful thinking from me, as a fan.
Either way, it would be extremely interesting to hear the "original" song and also to learn whether or not this would be considered a copyright violation/musical theft. And also if this kind of thing is common to happen by accident.
Here's the section I'm particularly interested in: https://vocaroo.com/embed/jBniJcPuyqx
(Whether stolen or not, I like the sound.)
Comment: It definitely sounds familiar. I keep thinking it's George Harrison --or maybe one of the other Traveling Wilburys.
Answer: It's definitely George Harrison's style, and very similar to his What is Life:


Honda Civic 2006 AC clutch disengaging when warm

Question: My AC on my honda civic 2006 works very well for the first 15 - 20 min after starting the car. Then the clutch starts engaging and disengaging frequently until eventually in about 10 min it completely disengages. If I tap the clutch with a pry bar or a long screw driver, it engages again. I checked the relay and it is fine. Can you please help my understand what could be the issue?
Comment: A clutch that engages when tapped is a sign that the clutch gap widened too much. Try disassembling the clutch and removing one shim. Ideally, clutch gap should be between 0.3 and 0.6 millimetres.
Answer: Possibly a weak clutch coil, whose windings have a high resistance that increases with temperature.
You might also verify the clutch gap is correct, and the engagement surfaces are free of rust.  You may be able to move the rotor closer by removing or substituting washer shims under the rotor.  This will help the situation for a while, but if the clutch coil is weak, it will eventually need replacement.  It might be that the clutch surfaces are simply worn away, resulting in too large a gap.  That would not be temperature dependent, however.  For an '06 Civic, the gap should be 14 to 26 thousands of an inch.
Also verify the electrical connection to the clutch is clean and tight.
The other typical scenario is that the refrigerant level is low, which causes the pressure switch to disengage the system.  Once disengaged, the high and low side pressures equalize and close the switch.  However, I have not found this to be temperature dependent, and whacking on the clutch with the pressure switch open would not cause it to re-engage.
An easy way to distinguish is to monitor the voltage at the clutch to determine if the clutch still has power when it is disengaging.
Another easy test is to do a resistance check across the coil to determine if it is within limits - the numbers vary, but expect 3.1-3.5 ohms or so for a Honda.  Anything higher (especially when hot) is a sign of a weak clutch.
There is also a thermal protection switch, and they do go bad, but you can't "whack" them to a cooler temperature.
My money is on the clutch coil.
Comment: You could connect a small bulb in parallel with the clutch power supply.  It will be obvious then whether the air conditioning ECU is trying to turn the clutch on and it is failing to engage.
Comment: @HandyHowie  Absolutely correct. Given the OP's details (which were spot on)  I suspect the clutch.  But both you and I want to teach a man to fish ... Let's give them the ammo the need to solve any scenario.  Kudos!


How does malware get past NAT routers?

Question: How does malware, like the software used to create the botnet that recently DDoS'd Dyn, get past NAT? On a computer, I can see the user can be tricked into downloading untrusted code, or browser vulnerabilities can be exploited. But on internet-connected devices like security cameras, I can't imagine how it would ever connect to an untrusted server without malicious physical access. I'd expect most of them to be behind a NAT router, so how does the malware get in?
Comment: I believe it was because of UPnP enabled on the routers.
Answer: A lot of these devices will use Universal Plug and Play (UPnP), a service that runs on many consumer routers and devices, allowing network devices to effectively add port forwarding rules on the router. Many consumers are unaware of this behavior and will thus have their devices exposed to the internet. This is just another example of IoT manufacturers choosing convenience over security.
Comment: And of course the consumers **want** their security camera to be reachable from the internet so they can check their homes when they're not home. So even if UPnP wasn't there to do the job, they might follow instructions to set up port forwarding manually.
Comment: Also you can do some pivoting. Let's say I find someone using a vulnerable Windows 7 and compromise the machine. From there I have a look around in the network and could possibly even manipulate firewall and NAT rules to make sure I can access any machine, like a camera. The reason would be that I estimate such devices to be much less monitored than e.g. a Desktop PC.

How does malware get past NAT routers?


An internal error occurred during: "JDI Event Dispatch" java.lang.NullPointerException

Question: I have my java applet codee,I am trying to debug using eclipse Indigo EE. I am trying to debug on remote using
debug configuration and port.
When I try to execute the application, it gives always an error message,
An internal error occurred during: "JDI Event Dispatch" java.lang.NullPointerException.
and control is not stopping in the break point.
Please help.
Regards,
KSAT
Answer: Try increasing the debugger timeout (under Preferences -> Java -> Debug).
Answer: It was because one of objects was not created. In my case it was service, to which I wanted to bind, but it was null.
Answer: Terminate and relaunch. It worked for me.