Compressing and extracting folders via FileZilla

Question: I want to rar and extract  folder(of my wordpress site) in the host machine using FileZilla ? Is it possible with FileZilla ? If not what you will suggest ? I dont have SSH access.
Comment: Maybe you should precise what kind of access you have, what's your client machine and what's the host machine. Do you have an account on this server ? If so are you really sure you don't have a  ssh access ?
Comment: Host is wpengine.com and mine is windows . I dont have ssh .
Comment: And yes now I am working on that server's files .
Answer: FileZilla cannot do this. It only allows you to execute FTP command (even with SFTP, which uses SSH).
There are two options:

There is some kind of WPEngine.com specific interface that lets you do this.
You need some kind of remote desktop or shell access (SSH, VNC, etc.) that allows you to execute custom commands.

If none of the above applies, you cannot rar files.
Answer: The wording of your question is not clear, so I am assuming you want the the files transferred to and from your wordpress site to be compressed.
It looks like there is not a standard FTP compression algorithm ("Unfortunately, there is no one standard FTP file compression method; there are HUNDREDS").  You could contact wpengine.com to see if their FTP server supports a compression algorithm, but I would not get my hopes up.
When you use a company like wpengine.com you get the advantage of a syestem which is low cost, easy to use, and easy to maintain, but lose the ability to run custom code.  As a result you options are limited to the features and tools they provide.  If their FTP server supports compression then you could get a compatable client and use the compression in the site.  If you can run custom code on their server then you could get a program which would do the rar compression/extraction for you.  Otherwise you will have to upload/download the full size files.
If you need an easy way to transfer files between computers there are many services specifically for this.
As a side note, the FileZilla FTP server does support compression but it looks like you would need the ability to configure the server (which is not possible with most hosts).  This can be found in the FileZilla Server Interface under Edit > Filetransfer compresssion.
Answer: All computers (including smart phones) may use ssh.
On Windows you may transfer files with WinSCP, which works a little like the Windows File Explorer (or Norton Commander if you're old enough to have known that).
You could use putty to uncompress on the host but it's simpler to simply transfer your folder and let WinSCP handle all the file copies.
Of course you'll need a login and a password.
If I didn't understand and it's the server that doesn't offer ssh, why not simply send the uncompressed folder with filezilla ? Filezilla is good at that.
Comment: Since it huge ... And how do I rar folder using filezilla ?
Comment: Filezilla cannot rar. It's not its job. The problem won't be with the rar making (winrar does it on windows) but the unrar : you'd need to log on the server to do that. So I suggest you simply send the uncompressed folder.
Comment: SSH is mostly restricted on Shared Hosting Services (I don't know a single one that allows SSH on shared hosting). Most of the companies prefer shared hosting as a cheaper solution to host wordpress based websites.
Answer: If you want to use Filezilla, then you need to zip it. Most likely, your server supports at least zip/unzip of zip files. It may not support rar files. It probably supports tar as well, so you could create a tar.gz. It really depends on what types your server knows already (since you don't have root access to install anything different).
I have an old Quick Unzipper script on GitHub, it can unzip the file on the server. Just place the unzipper in the same directory as the zip file, go to the file on the webpage, and click unzip. Even that process seems better than transferring all the files. Note that my script uses PHP to do the unzipping with the ZipArchive class. It works on most hosts. If you want to use another type like bzip or gzip, you could whip up your own version of my unzipper script to support that type.
Even if you zipped the file, it's total file size will not be that much smaller. To get the smallest size possible, zip would not be what you want. If your needing this to speed up the transfer time, then even a barely compressed zip file would transfer faster than the individual files via ftp.
When you transfer thousands of files with FTP, it has to handle each file 1 by 1 (though you do say 5 files at a time, its still processing per file basis). It has to make the directory, switch into it, all commands that take time. When you transfer just 1 large file, you don't have all the extra overhead that FTP normally has.
Answer: Working with RAR files in a Linux server can be painful, even if you have SSH or Cpanel access. My advice is to transfer files in .zip format, then log into CPanel if available and uncompress the file (Filemanager, look for it in Files section, where you also have FTP stuff). Athough kepp in mind File extraction and compression in Cpanel is a bit *old and has not been polish in a while so for better results use a zip file.
If you do not have Cpanel access,only FTP. I will suggest, to install at your WordPress site an FTP plugin or File Manager plugin, but again, it will make it easier if the files are zip, even at Windows Server environments I have faced the lack of proper RAR tools.


What if Great Britain never took over the Dutch Cape Colony in 1806?

Question: The Dutch Cape Colony was a strategic location for European powers that traded and conquered Asia. During the Napoleonic Wars Great Britain sought to take over strategic locations, such as the Cape Colony. Yet unlike most colonies at the time the Cape had a settler society. So if the Battle of Blaauwberg went into the favour of the settlers, the rest of the history of Southern Africa is changed drastically, but in what way?
Comment: Please define a timeframe. Do you want to look at possible changes in the next 2 years or 4 after the event or what?
Comment: Hello and welcome. Please read [help], [tour], and [How to deal with "I have a High Concept, please do my work for me" questions?](https://worldbuilding.meta.stackexchange.com/q/4868/809)
Comment: Are you asking what would happen if the British conquered the Cape in 1807 instead of 1806, or are you asking what would happen if in 1806 the British became Italian and gave up the war after losing a battle? If the former, not much. If the latter, then the major beneficiary would have been Napoleon, who would win the Peninsular War after the British had been forced to flee at [Corunna](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Corunna) and [Talavera](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Battle_of_Talavera)...
Answer: No British return in 1806?
No 1820 settler schemes. No English preferential treatment over the Dutch. Mostly likely no Voortrekker Groot Trek in 1836. Which means no large-scale expansion into the interior. Durban could still exist (as founded in 1835) yet would not be named after the British Cape Governor of the time, probably be a Dutch name.
Indentured slaves from British India would not have been shipped in by the boatload in the 1860s to farm sugarcane in Natal. Although that would not prevent any Indians. Just not as many in such a high concentrated location. So no samoosa, breyani and vegetable curry dishes in preference. This also affects later South African/Indian connections and therefore impacts Ghandi's early professional life (if he even existed in your alt history).
The white ruled areas would have probably been restricted to the coastal provinces and slightly into the Drakensberg, as no motive to travel inland en masse. Could possibly have the development of a black tribal coalition nation develop in the Interior.
This also means, no diamonds found by a white boy in 1866 or gold in 1886. No immediate mining rush and no Anglo-Gold or De Beers mining consortium (this actually affects worldwide history, as well as the marketing campaign "diamonds are a girl's best friend"). Minerals could still be found, just the big mining rush would probably be alot later in time. Diamonds could still be found at the Orange River mouth (which probably has a different name in this alt history - actually it appears to have been named in 1779, so you're good).
No Anglo-Zulu war in 1879. Napoleon's heir had one son, Napoléon Prince Imperial. In this alt history he almost certainly would not have been with British Forces during the Anglo-Zulu War in 1879 and probably wasn't killed in an obscure skirmish ending the hope of some for a restoration of House of Bonaparte. The lack of Anglo-Boer conflict and resultant push for more land would have affected the rise of Shaka Zulu. He was probably still born but if there is no equivalent push for more land, he may not have developed into the military man he became IRL. There was probably a Dutch equivalent conflict in your alt history and if there was, I reckon it could have eventually resulted in the formation of the Zulu Kingdom being recognised North of the Tugela.
Also means no Anglo-Boer wars or at least not to the same extent. Concentration camps would have to be invented elsewhere and Lord Kitchener can go die. Churchill would have to get his first war correspondent experience elsewhere and probably wouldn't have been able to use his capture and escape from the Boers as a means of gaining public admiration as a hero and gaining political power. Also means no Afrikaaner resettlements in Chuput Province, South America after the end of the 2nd Anglo-Boer War!
There is alot that can go differently. These are just off the top of my head.

MAIN EDIT
Over the last few days, I've realised that while what I wrote above is true if "the British didn't return" as asked in your title, it is different to "what realistically happens next after the Battle of Blaauwberg" asked in your text. I answered your titled question, and not what would be the most realistic response by the British.
I'm pretty sure the British would have fought back. Losing would have been a HUGE hit on their Political Pride and standing. I can't see how they would have let that stand. If you want them to not return, you are going to have to explain, in your alt history (not in your question), why they allowed themselves to be seen as having lost. What other factors played a part in this decision etc. Remember it was a completely different mentality back then. The Height of the Glorious British Empire. For King and Country. Long live the King.
Your alt history is going to have to consider what prevented them from sailing back down south with more soldiers, decimating the militant Settlers and taking the colony back for themselves. How the loss of the Cape Colony would have affected their political standing on other fronts. Where did all the people, who ended up as Cape Colony Settlers, eventually end up? India, America? How did this affect those countries. The American War of Independence was in 1812. How would boatloads of fresh English Settlers and the shame/knowledge of a previous lost colony war have affected American History. How would the Indian Mutinies in the 1857-58 have been affected by knowing that the English could be made to back down? The entire world would be different as a result of this 'one battle'.
I'm not going to list what could happen next. As you saw in my first draft, many things can be different. I'm sure you have it covered, but it takes more than one battle to explain this alt history of no British return in 1806.

Just for fun to show the wide range of affects.
More modern-day South Africans who probably wouldn't exist as we know them in this alt history (source) :

Politics: Jan Smuts, Nelson Mandela, Steve Biko, Desmond Tutu.
Entertainment: Hugh Masekela, Miriam Makema, Alan Paton, Toto, Charlize Theron, Arnold Vosloo, Dave Matthews, Trevor Noah, Neill Blomkamp.
Science and Technology: Elon Musk, Mark Shuttleworth, Christian Barnard.
Sport: Roger Federer, Ernie Else, Oscar Pistorius, Hansie Cronje.
Comment: Well done, sir. I had thought of most of the same things. No Voortrek, no Boer War, no Zulu Wars (perhaps), & no concentration camps invented in South Afica. Plus one. Indentured Indians still might have been shipped to East Africa, as they were, but not South Africa. One thing you missed: no Gandhi. He started his activist career as a lawyer in South Africa.
Comment: One thing I didn't mention which I should have. Napaleons son (stepson?) would more than likely not have been killed in South Africa if it hadn't been a British territory. Churchhill would also not have started his war correspondence career there either. Just not cricket!
Comment: @a4android. Thanks. I only went about 100 years. I didn't touch on the more modern stuff like Gandhi, what side of ww2 would this alt history country have fought on (without excess diamond and gold wealth, would they even be of any use? aside from location and shipping), Mandela, Kruger National Park, finding and researching hominid remains in Sterkfontein caves, no Africa by Toto etc etc. It's all too far away from the origin point (diverging point).
Comment: Only charting events for about 100 years was sensible. Gandhi's South African phase starts around then, if my failing memory is correct (no guarantees there). You sketched possible divergences. Hard to do better without an encyclopedic knowledge of South African history.
Comment: @a4android. I looked it up. In this universe, Gandhi arrived in Durban in 1893 to serve as legal counsel to an Indian merchant Dada Abdulla. Later travelling to Pretoria via Pietermaritzburg. In the alt universe, there wouldn't have been such a huge Indian community in Natal. So even if earlier knock on British effects hadn't affected Gandhi's birth & education in India itself, he quite possibly wouldn't have had anyone to represent in SA and he nearly definitely wouldn't have needed to travel to the non existent Pretoria. Who's to say what government policies would've even existed at the time
Comment: The "just for fun" addition is just to show the wide ranging impact this has in a wide range of international professions.


do all quattros have shafts connecting front and rear axles

Question: I have recently purchased a 2009 Audi A5 Quattro, and in looking underneath the car there does seem to be a place for a shaft to connect the front axle to the rear axle (which you would expect) but there doesnt seem to be any there... is this normal?
Comment: for it to be 4wd there has to be a method linking the front wheels to the rear wheels.  If there is no shaft between the front and rear diffs then the likely answer is no.  You can ask a dealer to check if yours is actually a quattro or not by supplying the VIN.
Comment: Could you post a picture of what you're seeing?  We would certainly expect to see a driveshaft running to the aft end of the car: http://fotos.autozeitung.de/1024x768/images/bildergalerie/2009/06/az14_09_094_Tech_DiffAudi.jpg
Comment: @Mauro, actually if you have the VIN and the owner's manual, you can usually decode it yourself.
Comment: @Bob Cross, how do you mean, what do you look for?
Comment: You can decode your VIN by referring to the codes in the owners manual.  You can also use some web services like the following: http://www.audivindecoder.com/vins/waudk78t59a020347/
Answer: To answer your question, it seems like you didn't buy a Quattro. You bought a FWD car, unless Audi invented some way of transferring power without a drive shaft :(.
You might want to talk to the person you bought it from, and bring it to their attention.
Comment: Agreed. Worst case is that there was something wrong with the 4wd system and the guy ripped out the drive shaft to hide the fact.
Comment: Look beneath the rear of the car. Check if there is a rear differential or not.
Answer: All Audi Qauttro's have a driveshaft that connects the front differential with the rear differential.
Your car does not have 4wd if it does not have a driveshaft.
In my country (Denmark) you can add the car to your profile at https://my.audi.com and add the VIN of the car. Then you can see all information about the car including factory installed options etc.
Answer: Check under the rear of the car you should be able to see the rear differential. it is the aluminium finned item between the rear wheels

If you don't have on then you definitely don't have a quattro, you should also check the VIN to make sure. The driveshaft it self is kinda hard to see depending on the angle.
If your car was sold to you as a quattro and it isn't then you definitely need to take it back.


How does Level Adjustment buy-off work for templates acquired at different times?

Question: If I have a character with a +2 LA template and after buying off the LA at level 9 acquire a +3 template, can I also buy off the first point of the second template's LA at level 9?
Answer: Unearthed Arcana is a little vague on this subject, but there isn't much support for allowing that based on what we do have.

If the level adjustment is greater than +1, this process repeats until the creature's level adjustment reaches +0. Each time, use the creature's current level adjustment to determine the point at which the level adjustment can go down by 1. For example, a drow (level adjustment +2) may drop to level adjustment +1 after gaining her sixth class level, and then to +0 after gaining an additional three class levels.

Note that the rules don't actually call out how or why you have take three "additional" class levels. It just says "use the creature's current level adjustment to determine the point at which the level adjustment can go down by 1." Taken literally, that would imply that you need 3 class levels—which this drow already has by virtue of being 6th level—to get rid of the remaining LA. But the textual example, as well as the accompanying table, clearly indicate that you cannot count the 6 levels used to reduce the LA +2 to LA +1 towards the class levels needed to reduce the LA +1 to LA +0. The LA +1 can only be reduced at 9th.
There are two possible interpretations of this: you need to ignore class levels already used for other LA, or buying an LA off is a process that takes 3×LA levels. The distinction here could matter: if you got the LA +3 template at, say, 12th level, it would be unclear if levels 10th, 11th, and 12th could be applied towards buying it off. Even though those levels weren't used to buy anything off, you didn't have the template yet to start buying them off. You could conceivably have to start on your six levels at 12th.
The other issue is how separate instances of LA work together, or don't. Unearthed Arcana doesn't address this at all (and, in fact, the authors seem to only be considering racial LA, and the variant is found in the Races section of the book). Is a separate LA +3 template treated as a new, separate thing, or is it treated as adding on to your total "pre-buyoff" LA? Certainly, if you started with an LA +2 template and an LA +3 template, you would have LA +5—Unearthed Arcana doesn't give any indication that you should be able to buy that off more than once, at 15th. But then, like I said, Unearthed Arcana seems to ignore the possibility of multiple sources of LA altogether.
So really, any one of these possibilities is true, depending on how you answer:

Pre-acquisition Levels Count
Must Start Upon Acquisition

LAs Stack
24th
Acq + 15

LAs Separate
18th
Acq + 9

Where Acq is the level at which you acquired the LA +3 template after buying off an LA +2.
But there really isn't much evidence for allowing you to start immediately at 9th: the example of the drow, who has LA +1 after buying off at 6th, explicitly says that despite having three class levels, they need three additional class levels. That is going to apply to you too.
In reality, I strongly urge you and your DM to just eliminate LA from your game altogether. Don't play things with LA, don't allow things with LA. The system just doesn't work. It's a shame but it's what it is. Homebrew a non-LA way to get things you want/are appropriate to the character, whether that's a scaled-down version of a creature or a prestige class that gives the template as a reward.
Comment: I've heard some people make the argument that by RAW you can only buy off LA at specific character levels ( for instance if you acquired a +1 LA template at level 3 you could immediately buy it off but if you acquired the same template at level 4 you could never buy it off because you can only buy off +1 LA at level 3). Is this an unsubstantiated view?
Comment: @Cellheim I don't think it is, though the same vagueness that makes this answer difficult also affects that. But ultimately, the text is that you become "eligible" to buy off LA at a certain level, with nothing ever saying you then become ineligible. Reading in some cut-off point is quite a stretch. The real issue is that it's very unclear what happens if you delay things—would that drow in the example have to wait until 10th if she bought off the LA at 7th instead of 6th? No one knows, and I suspect people are basing their idea that she *can't* do that on the fact that no one knows.
Answer: I hope this is not necroposting, here are my 2 cents:

For example, a drow (level adjustment +2) may drop to level adjustment +1 after gaining her sixth class level, and then to +0 after gaining an additional three class levels [Unearthed Arcana p. 18]

Since the reduction in this drow example re-starts the count for LA+1 after buying off the LA+2 at level 6, I think that if you obtain a LA +3 template at level 9 you should wait until lev 18 (3*3 + the 9 levels that don't count) to reduce the LA. I also believe that if you took the template at level 12, you still should wait until level 18, because the manual says:

Once the total of a character's class levels (not including any Hit Dice from his creature type or his level adjustment) reaches three times his level adjustment, his level adjustment is eligible to be decreased by 1. [Unearthed Arcana p. 18]

(Excluding the first 9 levels because of the example, even if this rule should technically include them, it is all quite poorly written)
As you pointed out in a comment, some people say that you can't buy-off levels unless at the specific levels that would allow you to do so (meaning that you can't do it if you surpassed those levels, you can't buy-off a LA +1 at level 4 instead of 3). They probably say that because of this:

Each time a character's level adjustment is eligible to be reduced, the character may pay an XP cost to take advantage of the reduction. The character must pay an amount of XP equal to (his current ECL -1) × 1,000. (...) The payment must be made immediately upon becoming eligible to reduce the character's level adjustment. [Unearthed Arcana pp. 18-19]

Are they right? Probably. Is it a stupid rule? Totally, because if my PC at level 10 acquires a LA +1 template, he could in no way buy it off, since they're far past level 3.
I would houserule not to consider that "immediately" nonsense. You're at level 10 for Pelor's sake, and this entire variant rule exists because the designer realised that:

When a character with a level adjustment advances in experience, the level adjustment he started with becomes more and more of a burden. Eventually, the benefits of the creature type may come to be eclipsed by those of his class features [Unearthed Arcana p. 18]

So, why couldn't you buy off that burden of a LA? You're paying a high price for that already!
(Ah-ehm, strictly speaking the UA also says "the LA he started with", but I believe they just missed to consider the acquired template possibility)
Comment: Also don't worry about necroing, that isn't a thing here. As long as a question is open, you can answer it no matter how long ago it has been asked. In fact, we actively encourage you to add new and better answers to old questions. You can even get a badge for it!
Comment: Wait! Isn't that "the LA you started with" proof that you can't buy off LA acquired later? The assumption that the process only talks about a single LA that KRyan noticed in their answer might suddenly make sense!
Comment: By RAW it might very well be so, @Zachiel, but I think it's extremely stupid from the designers. They're the ones that pointed out that at some levels the LA is not balanced anymore. I think they missed to consider the option, rather than discarding it consciously.


Which resolution is necessary to print bricks with a 3D printer?

Question: I would like to print LEGO compatible figures. Which resolution is required for the 3D print in order to firmly fix the figures on LEGO bricks?
Comment: See also [this answer](http://bricks.stackexchange.com/a/1283/56) to Has anyone made their own custom LEGO bricks.
Comment: Let me guess... the minimum resolution that allows 0.1 LDU accuracy? (Since there are [1 LDU offsets](http://bricks.stackexchange.com/questions/673/how-to-make-a-1-ldu-offset) and also [0.3 LDU offsets](http://bricks.stackexchange.com/questions/2057/why-cant-i-reproduce-this-sd-card-box-in-ldd#comment2835_2060)) in the world of LEGO?
Comment: Producing affordable 10 micron 3d printers remains the single greatest engineering challenge of the last hundred years. ;)
Comment: This sounds like something that would best be achieved with a resin printer. Layer height can approach the tolerances required.
Answer: Depends on your tolerance. :)

In the manufacture of LEGO bricks the machine tolerance is as small as
  10 my (0.01 mm).

Source: Company Profile. An introduction to the LEGO Group (2010)
For me, 3D printing resolution would need to be pretty close to that.
Comment: I don't understand the question. TLG have done tons of research on this, and they are a business so they don't want to be wasting money. So if they settled for the tolerance of 10 micrometers, then a tolerance of 100 micrometers is obviously not enough. Simple as that.
Comment: @RegDwight _Not_ as simple as that, since we're talking about commercial production vs DIY. Lego (and any other manufacturer of _anything_) can't afford to check each piece by hand, so their tolerances need to be much smaller than those of someone printing a couple of bricks at home. Even at 100 bricks a day, that would still allow you to check each brick and recycle any bad ones.
Comment: Most are not. Most are 100 micrometers. Would it be sufficient?
Comment: The tolerance is given in the question. A child must be able to connect the bricks and they must not fall off. Which resolution is needed to achieve this?
Comment: Goven that all teh dimensions in http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Lego_dimensions.svg are in 100 micrometer increments, in theory I'd say 'yes'. In practice, I'd want to try it out on a borrowed printer before sinking large sums of money into it.
Answer: According to WikiPedia:

The moulds are permitted a tolerance of up to two micrometres, to ensure the bricks remain connected.

But, as I noted in a comment, that is in an industrial environment, where great care is taken to ensure that not just a one-off piece is right, but that the entire batch of pieces is right. They probably take a six sigma approach or something similar.
In a DIY setting, that is not necessary. A certain percentage of faulty pieces can be tolerated, as a home manufacturer probably has the time to check each piece and recycle the faulty ones.

The image above shows the main dimensions of Lego pieces. Based on its source and the measurements given in this answer, we get 8.0mm per 20 LDU, or 0.4mm/LDU.
Since the smallest offset seen so far is 0.3 LDU, you would need at least a 0.12mm resolution to print that brick. But if you're printing pieces with a resolution of 1 LDU, you'd need a printer with at least a 1 LDU resolution.
So it depends on the resolution of the pieces you want to print.
Answer: I have actually tried 3d printing lego on a prusa i3 printer at I think 5 microns using PLA. I found that they worked fine initially but they quickly started to lose their grip. I think the issue was the layers grind against each other which wears them down rather than the brick walls flexing to grip. You certainly won't be getting anything close to the quality of real lego but you could print some cool custom parts.
Here is a picture of the finished result of one of my brick prints:


Using Maven 3, how do I overwrite a file defined in one of the dependencies?

Question: I have a multi-module Java EE application including a module for the web archive.
The WAR declares a dependecy on another WAR which provides a general purpose CSS.
I'd like to overwrite the provided CSS in my local WAR to add some specific behaviour.
So I copied the CSS from the dependency and placed it in the very same directory in my local WAR (being src/main/webapp/css/file.css).
I assumed Maven to merge these files, so my changes eventually become visible.
However, after deploying the application I still end up with the general purpose version provided by the dependency.
Is there any solution / plugin to fix this?
Answer: What you probably need is Maven's overlay feature which can merge 2 war projects:
http://maven.apache.org/plugins/maven-war-plugin/overlays.html


What is the ratio of cosmic microwave background radiation to normal radiation?

Question: I would like to know the ratio of cosmic microwave background radiation to normal radiation in the universe.  I am considering cosmic microwave background radiation to include the microwave, and any other radiation that is being emanated from near the "edge of the universe", while normal radiation is radiation emmitted by stars, nebulae, and other sources within the universe (excluding the cosmic microwave background).  Since we are in a galaxy, I know that the normal radiation here far exceeds the cosmic microwave background, but I am interested in the "average" value over the universe.  For example: total cosmic microwave background radation in the universe / total normal radiation in the universe.
Comment: @Jonathan: The "area" you are describing is called **the surface of last scattering**. See [cosmic microwave background](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cosmic_microwave_background) on Wikipedia.
Comment: Measured in what way? In energy density?
Comment: Yes, energy density would probably be the best way to measure it.
Comment: What do you mean by "edge of the universe"?
Comment: @HDE 226868 By "edge of the universe", I am referring to the area where it took so long for the light to reach us that the universe was opaque at this location.
Answer: Photons from the CMB outnumber all other photons by more than 200:1.  This is contained in Pela's excellent answer to: Does the number density of photons  nγ≈108m−3  refer to CMB photons only?.  Pela uses this graph from Hill et al. 2018 to derive this ratio.  Note that the CMB forms the largest contribution to the electromagnetic spectrum.


Is there a good method to come up with a plan during a game?

Question: I have started to play chess more seriously recently by playing some tournaments. During all my tournament games, I faced serious problems coming up with plans during the middle game. Is there a methodical way of thinking to come up with a plan by looking to a given position? Is there a good book that I can read to improve this skill? My current elo is +1600 and I have played around 20 standard time control games.
Comment: How do you come up with a plan today? What is your current strategy? That would give some more insight in your current method. Also, a related question is http://chess.stackexchange.com/questions/1103/how-do-i-learn-to-understand-the-middlegame. Cheers.
Comment: @RauanSagit I normally try to look for ways to reduce the scope of my opponent piece, but most of the time I just try to calculate force sequences, trying to find lines that I might gain material or I might simplify to a good endgame to myself. Thanks for the link.
Comment: You need to read Judgement and Planning in chess by Max Euwe. An excellent book on instructional games by a former world champion.
Answer: Its a great question! When teaching chess, I get on my students about always having a plan. However, many of my beginning students have the impression that making a plan means "I'm going to use a combination of Queen and Knight to Checkmate my opponent's King on the 27th move." Of course, this is unrealistic.
Chess is a constantly changing landscape and two or three moves can completely turn a winning position into a losing position. Therefore, plans have to be flexible. That's where it gets tricky. I tend to create flexible plans in which I play elastic moves. Planning really comes into play during the middle game.
Once the opening is complete and you have your pieces on ideal squares, you get down to the middle game. At the start of the middle game, I go through a checklist included pawn structure, position of my opponent's King in relation to his or her defending pieces, material balance, etc.
If I'm down material, I create a plan that evens the material balance which repositioning my pieces on good squares. I try to keep it simple and flexible. I think a lot of players have narror plans and when something goes wrong, they find their pieces on squares that do them no good. I try to play elastic moves that prepare for more than one response from my opponent.
My plans change as the game changes. However, I try to play positions that allow me to maintain my original plan while still dealing with the potential curve-balls some times thrown by my opponent.
It's a tough call because you want to have a plan that goes forward but often you have to rethink your plan and alter it to fit the current position. I would say that your plan has to take into consideration imbalances but that is often the cause of a change in plans. A master can see many more moves ahead than I can so it is easier for them to create a plan that they can stick to. Moreover, Andrew Martin has mentioned on numerous occasions the need for playing flexible moves.
Answer:
is there a methodical way of thinking to come out with a plan, by
looking to a given position? Or a good book that I can read to improve
this skill?

Yes there is a methodical way of thinking to come up with a plan; basically the plan has to come out of what Jeremy Silman calls the imbalances of the position. The method would be by doing a positional assessment of the imbalances present in the position.
I liked Silman's book a lot "How to Reassess Your Chess" Fourth edition by Jeremy Silman.
You could also look at this middle-game classic by Alexander Kotov "Play Like a Grandmaster"
You will read the books to learn about the planning skill, you will play chess games to improve that skill.
Answer: I think a counter-point to all of the advice so far needs to be raised.
Willy Hendriks argues in Move First, Think Later (http://www.amazon.co.uk/Move-First-Think-Later-Improving/dp/9056913980) that planning in chess is over-rated. He reckons you are better off simply looking for good moves instead.
What does this amount to? If I understand him correctly, this does not mean that you should play aimlessly, but that instead of following abstract "plans" or "strategies" (like looking for "imbalances", or "attack in the center when your opponent attack on the flank", or "anticipate the critical moment of the game"), you should focus on finding good moves and putting your pieces on good squares and preventing your opponent from doing the same.
The problem with plans are that they are either so abstract to be useless, or so inflexible as to get you into trouble if you should try to follow them to the letter. Let's take an example from one of the other comments on this page:
Panzer writes: "If I'm down material, I create a plan that evens the material balance which repositioning my pieces on good squares. I try to keep it simple and flexible... I try to play elastic moves that prepare for more than one response from my opponent."
This sounds awesome when you read it, but in reality it does not say much. It really could be summarized as: find the best move for the position.
Comment: It is often said that a bad plan is better than no plan at all. That is nonsense if the bad plan is based on a misunderstanding of the position.
Answer: A chess game is usually said to be in three phases: opening, middlegame and endgame. However there are not any fixed borderlines between these phases so your phrase about "plan in the middlegame" is very vague.
There are many possible openings you may choose as white or black which will affect the positions which may arise in the middlegame. When you say you have problems finding a plan in the middlegame, this may mean you have not chosen the right positions to play.
It is easier to understand when you think planning as merely pattern recognition. As Philidor once said, "pawns are the soul of chess" and pawn structures usually determine the characteristics of positions. As an example, isolated d-pawn is a very common structure which you can find in the opening lines of Caro-Kann Panov Attack, many variations of Queen's Gambit (Tarrasch is one of them). Some of those are completely different openings but in a middlegame position with a similar structure the patterns are similar thereby common plans are also similar. White usually plays for a kingside attack given the fact that the isolated d-pawn (d4-pawn in this example) makes e5-square available. Black, in turn, hopes for a blockade on d5-square and tries to eliminate White's attack by exchanging pieces with the hope that every piece exchanged makes the isolated pawn more and more exposed.
The more patterns you can recognize, the easier you can come up with plans. To recognize patterns you have to learn from the masters. Start with classic games. However old they look they will make you understand both how the chess theory improved and how ideas were formed.
This is not a confirmed information but I have heard once that Vladimir Kramnik analyzed lots of classic games as part of his preparation against Garry Kasparov. You see, even grandmasters find some value in relatively old looking games.
As for the book, I can recommend Chess Fundamentals by Jose Raul Capablanca. This is a fantastic book where the third world champion explains his moves and positions with astonishing simplicity.
Comment: Pattern recognition training via playing over tons of games (starting from the classics).  No engines, no databases, no fancy computers. Just you, a book and if required, a board!  : Sound advice typically NOT followed by 99.9% of all improving chess players out there who would rather hear about quick-fix solutions :)


I believe in Allah and His Messenger, but follow the teachings of Jesus; am I considered a non-believer?

Question: I was raised a Christian. But I have read the Koran and believe in Allah and His Messenger. Since I also follow the teachings of Jesus, am I still considered a non-believer?
Comment: If you believe in what you [said](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shahada), then you **are** a believer no matter whom you follow.
Comment: No you aren't if you are following teachings of Muhammad as well. According to Islam, anybody can't be considered a Muslim if he doesn't follow teachings of Jesus and every Muslim must follow teachings of Jesus! But you shouldn't consider Jesus as son of God and you should believe that He is not crucified and is alive in Heaven and will come back one day. If any teachings in Islam and Christianity differ, you should prefer Islamic teachings. The teachings of Jesus and Muhammad could never differ but the people who edited Bible produced differences! And we follow Jesus not editors!
Comment: @RehanUllah Muslim is supposed to believe in all the Prophets but to follow the teachings of Muhammad peace be upon him because as every prophet was given a shariah a system to follow like Prophet Moses a.s ummah was not supposed to pray five times but in our Ummah we have to ,they had hadd commands so which shariah we follow, their teachings are not truly saved rather adulterated so if following means character following then its good they all gave message of Allah swt but their pure teachings are not preserved adulterated so Muslim believe in all Prophets ,follow Muhammad peace be upon him
Comment: @servant Your last line is brilliant: "Muslim believe in all Prophets ,follow Muhammad peace be upon him"! I think I am trying to say the same thing in my comment. Have I done some mistake?
Comment: @RehanUllah to answer a revert your effort is good as he would not be considered as a non believer but in surah Baqarah it is mentioned that there were some munafiqoon who say we believe Muhammad peace be upon him but dont follow him when going to their community, for his question its good to clarify about following because now when Prophet Jesus peace be upon him would come again in this world he would be following same Shariah which was given to Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him.
Comment: Indeed you have to edit that "Every muslim must follow teachings of Jesus" because every muslim has to believe all holy Books and prophets but to follow means that some rulings could  be changed and then it also means that every muslim should follow bible and we all know present time its not preserved as it was revealed.
Answer: To be Muslim you have to believe in the Shahdah. The Shahdah states that Allah is the one and only true God and Muhammad is in His Messenger.
Muslims too believe in Jesus and call him Isa (AS). Muslims believe that he was a Prophet and a Messenger of Allah and that the Bible was sent to him. The Bible which used today has been changed and therefore not reliable.
If you believe in the Shahadah then you are a Muslim (You have to say the shahadah and declare you belief when you convert) You can follow the teaching of Jesus too. However you have to be careful with the Bible (Old testament and New) as it has been altered and some things go against the teaching of Islam.


Replace Circuit Breaker on Split Bus Panel

Question: I want to add a 50 amp 220V circuit breaker to my split bus panel to supply a welder. I have two options. One option is to use the empty slot (blue arrow) or replace the spare 220v breaker that is currently not doing anything (red arrow). If I understand correctly, both options will keep me in compliance with the 6 throw rule. The "problem" is that both option are above the split (dashed green line) and are always hot because I don't have a main disconnect. My questions are (1) how do I replace these circuit breakers safely and which option would be better (red arrow or blue arrow). Thanks.
Comment: Is that 20A single pole breaker allowed to be in that top section?
Comment: I'm not 100% sure about the single pole 20amp breaker in the main section. I assumed it was because based on the servicing stickers it was installed by a licensed electrician but I'm not certain. I'm a fairly competent home DIYer but this split bus stuff and grandfathering in of electrical code has thrown me for a loop.
Comment: It also looks like that single 20A breaker in the top section has two hots connected to it.  I don't have code reference handy, but not sure that's acceptable, especially if the breaker isn't designed for it (if there even exists breakers which allow multiple wires to be connected under one screw).
Comment: 2 wires under 1 is legal if the breaker is listed for it. I use mostly square D QO breakers and they are listed for 2 wires.
Comment: What about the knockouts on the panel cover?  I would expect all 12 to be knocked out.  Are they exposed to the world? Do they have flimsy plastic covers?
Answer: 6 of one, half dozen of the other on the red or blue arrow issue. You can plug a breaker in hot (assuming you know the proper safety precautions). I would probably swap out the unused one, just because the panel cover would not need to be altered (I'm lazy).
If you are uncomfortable working on live equipment, you can ask the utility to disconnect you (pull the meter). Generally that means they come out and do it one day, then come back and put it back in the next day. SOMETIMES you get lucky and they do it faster, but you can't count on it, so be prepared to have no power for a day. If you have one of the new "Smart Meters", they often have a remote disconnect capability so the utility simply sends it a signal to disconnect or reconnect, so it can be just minutes.
Answer: With either position, you have two choices
With a "rule of six" service panel like this, you have two options for installing/replacing breakers in the service section:

Work it "hot" as Ed Beal describes, with the breaker-under-installation turned OFF as bus stabs/breaker jaws are not load break rated.  Likewise, if you are removing a breaker from the service section, you will need to turn it OFF before removing it.
Have your utility cut power to your house for the duration of the work.  This is the safer approach, provided you can tolerate the power outage for the duration of course.  It's also surprisingly practical: in today's smart-metered age, most electrical utilities will cut power to your house during business hours without charge.  Simply call your utility on their customer service number during normal working hours and they should be able to walk you through the process.

Other issues
The presence of the single-pole breaker in the service section is fine for the moment as you are not exceeding the six-throw limit on service disconnecting means, even with the added welder breaker.  However, as far as I know, Siemens (ITE/Gould) breakers were never labeled to accept two wires under a lug, so that double tap on the 20A single pole breaker needs to be fixed.
Simply turn off the breaker in question, remove the wires from it, install a short length of #12 wire on the breaker to serve as a pigtail, wirenut the two wires you removed from it to the pigtail, and turn it back on again.  (Anyone who complains about wirenuts in panels should go read the current version of NEC 312.8(A) as it was rewritten to dispel prior confusion on the subject.)
Answer: It really dose not matter as they are both connected to the service. The way I have always worked on panels is to always turn the breaker OFF prior to removal or installing. Many modern machine controll center "buckets" require the breaker to be OFF to install or pull the bucket. I have seen breaker contacts melt where the breaker was not turned off and the electrician kept trying to snap it in,  he ended up ruining that breaker and that position on the panel. I have never had a problem with the breaker turned off. As far as the comment on the single pole in the top it is still only 6 so it would be legal as long as the top right is left unused.
Comment: I agree: breakers in the top section can be changed while the bus bars are "hot" with a bit of care. As you said/implied, turning off the breaker that's being installed/removed eliminates the possibility of arcing on its contacts during the process. OP could practice the installation/removal of breakers in this panel on cold bus bars by switching off the lower portion and removing and re-installing one of those breakers first.
Answer: I would insert a breaker in the top of a split bus panel with the new breaker off. Then connect the two wires, then replace the dead front and only then turn on the breaker. You could check the breaker with a VOM before inserting it to insure that it is truly off.


Should Priming Sugar Solution Have Minimal Oxygen?

Question: When I bottle, I follow the typical step of boiling some water, adding bottling sugar, letting it cool, and adding it to the beer that's done fermenting (but still of course has live yeast floating around).  Those little beasties probably would like a sip of O2 to grow better and carbonate the bottle better/faster, but I'm as careful not to add oxygen to the priming solution as I am to keep oxygen out of the beer.  But I got to wondering, does anyone have any data or experience on aerating the priming solution?  Seems like it would be an easy experiment that might have been tried, or maybe some author commented on it.
Comment: I am sure there is data out there.  The American Society of Brewing Chemists have been publishing data for decades.  If you want some real data on it, start there.  But every professional brewery I know of works extremely hard at limiting O2 during packaging, even the guys that bottle condition.  I am sure there are other German and Belgian tomes of brewing science too.
Answer: As far as I understand things, the yeast won't go through a serious growth phase in the bottle.   The pressure and alcohol make for a harsh environment, and you shouldn't be using enough yeast to really consume any oxygen that you would add.   At this point, you really want to avoid oxygenation, so that you limit oxidation flavors in the beer.   Thus, you boil out the oxygen in your priming solution and prevent stirring air into the beer.
More oxygen might carbonate faster, but it would probably do so at the expense of cardboard flavored beer.
Comment: Good answer, there is no yeast growth in the bottle.  Add to that that fermentation is an anaerobic process, the presence of O2 might lead to some growth, but the CO2 generation happens anaerobically, presumably post the small amount of O2 scrubbing that happens.
Comment: Thanks guys.  Confirmed my suspicions.  Sticking to the minimal O2 after fermentation kicks off.
Answer: I have "aerated" the priming solution by cooling the sugar solution and shaking the bottle that the priming solution is made up in. Adding such a solution to the beer before bottle or keg conditioning caused no real problems that I could notice.
However I now as (a matter of course) pour the beer from the 25 lt. settling vessel into another similar vessel that contains the made up dextrose priming solution. This "wholesale" pouring produces a lot of foam (de-gassing) and presumably oxygenation of the young beer. After a short while to allow the foam to settle, I put the beer into bottles and leave them for a month. Never had a failure yet (touch wood)!
Other brewers have commented on the "novelty" of this mixing method and most say they would never do it themselves. But it works for me and has produced many hundreds of litres of excellent beer in many styles.
The point being that "oxidation" is not a guaranteed and universal phenomenon - however one wishes to describe it. Some say their beer tastes like cardboard due to "oxidation". IMHO I have never suffered from that problem, yet I have given my beers ample opportunity to "oxidise".


Search in windows control panel lose focus after typing one character

Question: When I open windows' control panel, click the search bar and start typing, it always lose focus after typing in one character. If I click it again to regain focus, the problem wouldn't happen again. I'm wondering if this is a feature or a bug? As far as I can tell it happens in windows 7 and 8.
Answer: When you type the first character in the control panel's search bar then it shows the result of the programs that started with that character and move the focus to that list. You can call it feature but if you don't get the name in that list and you have to type the full name in search bar to get the specific program.
Comment: Thanks avirk! It's the type of feature I don't really get though :)
Answer: I too found the same problem with a new W7 laptop, but have a solution.
The answer it to make sure you have your Control Panel window set to
VIEW BY: CATEGORY
As much as you may hate this setting, it's worth the pain to avoid the Windows bug. In fact, with this setting not only does the 'focus lost after first keystroke' problem go away, but you will also find the search box is given initial focus when you first open the control panel window. Very important for keyboard addicts!
Comment: THanks this works! I do hate view by category, but this approach solves the problem.


What is the significance of nãrikel (coconut) in pooja?

Question: In almost all Poojas (worship) nãrikel (coconut) is used.

Image source: picdif.com
What is the significance of using nãrikel in pooja?
Comment: Good question.. I feel the shrifal is used in puja because it has sweetness inside so it may reflect a symbolic belief that a person who is doing the puja should keep sweetness inside him.
Comment: @AwalGarg that will apply for ones ego, we do break shrifal right? so we break means that signifies that we break our ego before worshiping the god.. thats what I believe
Comment: @Mr.Alien and be super hard from outside?
Comment: @Mr.Alien yes, it symbolizes one's head. Like bowing head means submitting one's ego. Offering coconut means offering one's head, the ego.
Answer:
The coconut (Gujarati. – nãriyel, Sanskrit. – nãrikel) is used as an auspicious pujã offering. It has several virtues and underlying sentiments.
Its important virtue is that the coconut tree takes in salty water and gives sweet and nutritious water through the fruit. Similarly, man is inspired to mould himself by eradicating his 'saltish' swabhãvs and to become sweet within.
In ancient times, Vishvamitra rishi created the coconut, to be used as an offering to appease the deities to halt animal sacrifice. In this manner the rishis propounded ahimsã during ritual offerings.
Since then the coconut has become a symbol of sacrifice. Therefore in any auspicious venture or ritual, a person offers a coconut to a deity with the sentiment, 'I offer myself at your feet'.
It is offered to a deity on certain lunar tithis such as Purnimã and Ekãdashi, often with a small packet of sãkar (sugar crystals) and 1.25 rupees in coin form. In some mandirs and sampradãys, the pujãri cracks the coconut and offers one piece to the deity and returns the other piece to the devotee as prasãdam. It is commonly offered to Hanumanji on Saturdays.
It is placed on top of a kalash, with mango or betel vine leaves during kalash sthãpan in pujã rituals.
Coconut water is also used during abhishek in some south Indian temples.
It is cracked on the doorstep of a new building during Vãstu pujã and during pujan of new heavy machinery. This is after performing pujan of Thãkorji and imprinting red chãndlo on the shrifal, while chanting shantipaath and other Vedic mantras and shloks. The water from the cracked shrifal is then sprinkled inside, as well as on those present, to confer purity and auspiciousness.
During a marriage proposal, it is sent by the girl's parents to the proposed groom. If he accepts it, then the engagement is fixed. This is known as 'having accepted the nãriyel'.
All parts of the coconut and tree are useful, to make: thatch roof, mats, stick brooms, screens, coir rope and edible oil. The soft or dried flesh is often sliced into chips and offered with sãkar as prasãdam
It is also tied to a bier in six places before taking a body for cremation.

SOURCE - kids.baps.org
Answer: Excerpts from a talk by Sri Sri Ravi Shankar:

If you go to any Hindu temple, they always keep a coconut. Do you know
  why? A coconut is a symbol of human life. It is a shock absorber and
  that is how we should be in our lives, shock absorbing. A coconut
  falls from such a height but it does not break because it absorbs the
  shock. Our behavior should be like shock absorbers in the society, so
  that nobody can hurt our mind or emotions. Our body needs to be hard
  like the shell of a coconut and the mind should be like the kernel
  inside, soft and pure white and bringing feelings like the sweet water
  inside. So this is why they break a coconut in the temple and they
  keep it to signify, 'Dear Lord, may my life be like a coconut, body
  firm and mind soft, pure and clear.'

http://celebrating-silence-of-life.blogspot.in/2012/04/trust-in-goodness-of-people-around.html


Why is Tasha Yar's hologram semi-transparent?

Question: In the episode Skin of Evil, at the end, Tasha Yar has a farewell hologram prepared for when she died.  I know all of this was set in the Holodeck, but why is Yar's hologram semi-transparent, and confined to the apparent projector?  The only reason I can think of is that it was to be sensitive to people at the time, making her projection seem somewhat surreal.  Is this the most likely reason, or is there something else?
Comment: To make it look ghostly?
Comment: Richard's comment is probably correct. Tasha grew up in a very hostile environment and she probably didn't expect to grow old and die in her sleep. I'd bet she kept that recording frequently updated, and made it surreal since she'd be dead.
Answer: It is a memorial and a (relatively) static image, as opposed to an interactive holographic display.  Obviously, the Holodeck could create a fully-realistic hologram of Tasha Yar.  Deep Space Nine has show us that this could be incredibly realistic, if the holodeck had the right data.
That said, her being transparent must have been a decision.
It seems that having static holograms be transparent is the common style of the time, as seen in Measure of a Man:

It's likely that Yar's hologram would be non-opaque even if that weren't the style, though, at least for her funeral/memorial service.
A memorial is a time both to grieve for a lost friend or family member as well as to celebrate the life they lived.  If the hologram were photo-realistic, opaque, etc it would have been injurious to many people.  The sight of seeing Yar standing there, apparently healthy and happy would have reopened the emotional wounds.  Even if you're used to seeing lifelike holograms, your gut reaction to seeing one is to see it as a person, unless it is obviously not.  Walking into the Holodeck and seeing, even if for an instant, your lost comrade alive and well again would be like a punch in the gut.
TL;DR: It's both the common style for non-interactive holograms and a measure of harm prevention for the mourners.
Answer: I suspect the answer is much simpler: "that is what the writers or director thought a funeral message would be like" : make her semi transparent like a ghost.


Rigging Armor to Player

Question: I've recently been modeling some armor and decided it was time to see my work in action! Spent a good portion of yesterday reading online, searching tutorials and this seemed to be the most recent one I can find with the most checked answers.
https://stackoverflow.com/questions/34719718/transferring-rig-weights-from-one-mesh-to-another-in-blender-2-76
What I did was Parent the shirt to the rig, deleted the vertex groups and un-parented the shirt from the rig. ( was that correct? the first paragraph is a bit confusing ) Next I added the data transfer modifier, selected my players body as the source, chose vertex data and selected vertex groups, then pressed generate data layers. When switching back to object data tab, I can see a list of bones in the vertex groups. Last I selected the Shirt, then shift selected my rig, hit ctrl p and parented with empty groups. I also tried applying the modifier before and after I applied the groups, the result is always the same with the characters shirt ending up being slightly inside the players body / behind his back. I can get the shirt to be back on the players body by moving the armature modifier to the top position but the shirt is still not rigged to the character. Also If I apply the data transfer modifier the shirt just ends up going inside / behind the player again. I've tried many different tutorials, all usually ending in the same result. I've never gotten anything to follow the armature of my characters. Am I doing something wrong or completely missing a step? Is this just an outdated tutorial?
Answer: What I usually do if I can't seem to get things right in this case, is delete all the vertex groups and armature/mirror modifiers (or any other mods that might affect things) from the shirt and try again. If you have existing vert groups on the shirt it may cause problems. With a "blank" shirt, add the data transfer modifier again, apply it, then add the armature modifier back on.

Rigging Armor to Player


Why does a force not do any work if it's perpendicular to the motion?

Question: I have a book that says the Moon's orbit is [in this context assumed to be] circular. The Earth does no work on the moon. The gravitational force is perpendicular to the motion. Why is there no work done if support force is perpendicular to the motion?
Comment: The Earth does do work on the moon because in fact the force is not perpendicular. The Earth is rotating faster than the moon is going around the earth, and so the tidal bulge on the side closest to the moon is slightly in front of the moon. Therefore the force is not perpendicular, and the moon is slightly accelerated by the Earth, and therefore the Earth is slightly decelerated by the moon.  Thus our day is getting slightly longer all the time, and the moon is getting faster.  Exercise: when will this process stop? Exercise: if the moon is getting faster, is the lunar month getting shorter?
Comment: The moon is being accelerated by the tidal forces but it's not getting faster because the speed it gains is quickly traded for height. Welcome to the strange world of orbital mechanics.
Comment: The perpendicular (to veloicity) component provide change in direction only, not the magnitude in velocity that in turns the kinetic energy.  See [**another answer**](http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/310064/question-about-a-v-dv-dx/310072#310072) that has some sorts of linkage.
Comment: Exactly; and so the lunar month is getting longer, and the day is getting longer. So when does the process end? Original poster, see if you can work it out. Also: what relevant quantities are conserved by this exchange between the Earth and the moon?
Comment: Because the resultant of the triangle of forces in the direction of the motion is zero.
Comment: It only count for motion in the direction of the force.
Comment: Doing  work means  transferring energy from one object to another; so whenever work is done on an object, either its kinetic energy or its potential energy will increase (or both).  In the (slightly oversimplified)  case  of a satellite orbiting a planet in a perfect circle, the speed remains constant, so there's no increase in kinetic energy; and the distance from the planet remains constant, so there's no increase in potential energy.  Therefore, no work is being done on the satellite.
Answer: As explained by SchrodingersCat, mathematically work is proportional to the scalar product of force and line element. Therefore any forces acting perpendicular to the path do not contribute to the work.
Now you might want to ask why work is defined like this. I would like to justify this definition taking your example of the moon.
In physics work is intimately related to energy: basically if you want to change the energy of an object you need to do work on it. Now in the case of the moon there are two relevant energies, (1) kinetic energy of the moon related to the magnitude (but not direction) of the moon's velocity, i.e. its speed; and (2) gravitational energy related to the position of the moon in the earth's gravitational field; this one depends on the distance moon-earth.
For (1), since perpendicular forces do not change the magnitude of velocity (only their direction), the perpendicular force should not enter into the equation of work (since it does not contribute to the energy change).
For (2) if you displace the moon always perpendicular to the direction of the gravitational force, you stay at the same distance, i.e. at the same gravitational potential energy. Therefore such perpendicular displacements do not change the energy and should not enter in the expression for work.
Comment: Work is the change in kinetic energy, so gravitational potential energy (2) shouldn't be included here. Indeed if the Earth's gravity is the only force acting on an object, then (1)+(2) will be constant for that object, so this reasoning would lead to the conclusion that gravity never does work on the object.
Comment: @stewbasic: In my understanding one can also speak of work when e.g. lifting an object in gravity, i.e. when increasing its potential energy. I cannot follow your second argument. In the example Earth's gravity is the only force acting on the object/moon. What do you mean by (1)+(2) will be constant?
Comment: @Crowley in that scenario the positive work done by the force you apply cancels with the negative work done by the force of gravity. You could arrive at the same answer by ignoring the work done by gravity, instead including change in gravitational potential energy (which effectively captures the work done by gravity). But this alternate method won't work for the OP's question which is specifically asking about work done by gravity.
Comment: Suppose I drop a ball from rest (in vacuum). During its descent it gains kinetic energy (1) and loses the same amount of potential energy (2), so the total energy (1)+(2) is unchanged. Gravity has done positive work on the ball, and the amount is the change in kinetic energy (1).
Comment: @stewbasic If I lift a box from the floor ontop a table I do not change the kinetic energy but I increase its potential energy. And I also do a work on it. Actually, I increase the kinetic energy from zero to some arbitrary value and then I decrease it back to zero while I increase the potential energy all the time.
Comment: @Devsman I don't get your point. The ammount of work done will be same if I slowly move the ball in its new position and if I throw it there. Supposing the ball will stop there on its own without any bounce...
Comment: @Crowley and the height you raise the ball changes the work done, even if you accelerate it to the same velocity in order to raise it.
Comment: @Crowley I'm agreeing with you. :)
Comment: @stewbasic Have you ever heard of the conservation of energy? True energy source is made of unobtainium. It is not important who do the work, all that matters in the equation are vectors of Force and displacement. Nothing else. My work was spent on increasing the potential energy in the gravitational field. If my work and work done agains the field don't match there is 1. another form of energy I have increased (heat, charge,...), or 2. error in the Matrix.
Comment: @stewbasic "Work is the change in kinetic energy." Question: Imagine mixing machine. There is engine that runs propeller inside a viscous liquid. The engine keeps same RPMs fo hours. There is no change in kinetic energy whatsoever, yet you have to power the engine it des do work. Where did it go?
Comment: @Crowley: Rather than arguing with stewbasic here, I'd suggest reading http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/156144/is-work-done-change-in-ke-or-change-in-mechanical-energy. If you're not convinced by the (correct) answers there, you can post your own (incorrect) one and call it good.
Answer: Actually, work or, "work" as we mean in physics, has been mathematically defined as $$W=\int_{x_1}^{x_2}\vec F\cdot d\vec{s}$$
So if $\vec{F}$ and $d\vec{s}$ are orthogonal vectors, that is, the angle between the vectors is $90^\circ$, then according to the above formula, no work is done, physically; in this case, by the earth on the moon.
Comment: @BillN It is the same sort of questions like "Why is blue colour called blue?" He who defined the work found that the scalar product of force and displacement is useful and named it. Story ends.
Comment: The larger question is "why is work defined using that scaler product?" Is there physical behavior reasoning behind that definition? Yes, there is.
Answer: As @SchrodingersCat explained, there will be no work on the system if the force is orthogonal to the displacement. However, I would like to elaborate the answer a little further.

What is the physical meaning of representing work done on a body by the dot product of the force and displacement of the object?

An object can move even without a force (Newton's first law says about this), the motion however will be an unaccelerated one. So a body could displace even if there is no force. If you have studied classical mechanics, you may have heard that it is the linear momentum which is the generator of translation, not force.
To say a work is to be done by a force on the object, it should have some effect[1] ..... on the object, right? Any dynamical property (like in this case, the effect of a force) is represented by a change in position coordinate of the object (the order of which varies according to the dynamical quantity) w.r.t time, because position is something very fundamental in dynamics.
If the force has some effect on the object (which is acceleration, of course), then this force contributes some displacement along the direction of applied force (even if there is motion already in some other direction). In such a case, the effect of force on the body can be measured by taking the component of the resultant (or net, if you insist) displacement along the direction of the applied force. So, work done by a force is defined as the product of the applied force with the displacement component caused by this force.  This can be achieved by taking the dot product of the the two vectors-Force and the net displacement.

So, what does it mean no work is done if force and displacement are orthogonal?

In Euclidean geometry, orthogonal vectors implies mutually perpendicular vectors. However, the actual sense is that the two vectors are independent. This means that one has no common component with the other, which according to the above discussions states that one vector has no effect on the other. So, the displacement occurred is not due to the force given. Geometrically, that is possible only if force and displacement are perpendicular so that their dot product vanishes. This is why there is no work done on the system if the applied force and the resultant displacement are perpendicular.
But, that perpendicular force could affect the direction of motion of the body (since a force on a body should accelerate it somehow). So, no work is needed to change the direction of a body, even though it happens only by a force. In such a case, there is no displacement due to the force applied, only a change in direction- the effect of which is defined by the torque on the body (the rotational analogue of force).

[1]: "effect" in the present context is used to imply anything that can contribute to work. We cannot say that the force has no effect on the object. It could accelerate the body, even if no displacement has happened due to that force, which is by changing the direction of motion.
Answer: Background
The basic physics principle regarding the energy of a system is that the energy changes when work is done on the system, or the system does work on a different system. The work can either increase (positive work) or decrease (negative work) the total energy of the system.
Forces are the agents of work. Only external forces can change the total energy of a system. Internal forces cause exchanges of energy between pieces of the system.
Let's consider a system, the Moon (only). The gravitational pull of the Earth can do work on the system. That would change the total energy of the Moon, which in this case would simply be a change in kinetic energy. What does a change of kinetic energy mean? It means that the speed of the object has changed.
The Moon
If the Moon is moving in a circular orbit, then the instantaneous velocity of the Moon is always perpendicular to the instantaneous acceleration, so according to the (correct) definition of work in other answers,
$$W=\int \vec{F}\cdot\mathrm{d}\vec{s},$$
the work is zero.
Your Question
You have asked

Why is there no work done if support force is perpendicular to the motion?

That is, what is the physics behavior that says the perpendicular force doesn't change the energy?
Because the change in energy (by work being done) is a change in the kinetic energy, the force must change the speed of the objects in the system. Accelerations which are perpendicular to the instantneous velocity only change the direction, not the speed. In order to change the speed there must be a component of acceleration which is not perpendicular.
An aside on potential energy
Potential energy is a system energy. If your system is the Moon only, there is no gravitational potential energy. If your system is the Earth and Moon, then one can consider the gravitational energy due to the interaction of the two. But when accounting for work, it's an either/or situation: Either you measure energy as the sum of kinetic and potential, or you consider kinetic only, modified by the work done by the gravitational interaction.  You cannot count both simultaneously, because a potential energy change is defined as the negative of the work done by a conservative force (in this case, gravitational), when relative positions of the interacting objects change.
Answer: As others have mentioned, work (in 3D) on a system in defined as the dot product between the force on the system and its displacement. If they are perpendicular, no work is done.
In terms of intuition, what it means is that the force "redirects" the system (the moon, in your case) but in such as way that some of the particles are sped up and some are slowed down in the redirecting such that the net result is that the total energy of the moon is the same as it was earlier. The  moon is forced to move in a circular, but in such a way that its energy remains the same at every point (at least, in the extremely simple model that you are assuming).
Answer: I see that most of the posters have answered this question in terms of the usual definition of work. That's fine as far as it goes, but to many people the definition of work seems somewhat arbitrary in the first place.
An alternative would be to treat the work-energy theorem
$$W_\text{net} = \Delta T \;,$$
(with $T$ the kinetic energy) as an expected behavior (because it is integral in building the conservation law from Newtonian principles and the conservation principle is so useful) and use that to deduce the form that work must take and thus show the reason for the scalar product.
What follows is just an outline.

The straight-line version gives us $W_\parallel = F_\text{net} \,\Delta x$.
Uniform circular motion shows us that speed (and therefore kinetic energy) are not changed by forces perpendicular to the direction of motion. That is $W_\perp = 0$.
We may then break any net force into its parallel and perpendicular components and note that the work comes wholly from the parallel one so that writing the work in terms of the scalar product becomes a natural step.

This also leads us to the main physical content of that definition: forces applied perpendicularly to the direction of motion don't chnage the speed of the object and are in that way different from forces applied along (or against) the direction of motion.

At a higher level of sophistication one would employ Noether's theorem as a postulate and work from there.
Comment: I noticed no one brought up Stokes' theorem either, since any field that can be reduced to $\oint_{C} \ \mathbf{F} \cdot d\mathbf{l} = 0$ is by definition conservative (i.e., path independent).
Comment: Very interesting your answer, I asked a question based on this answer
Comment: @sofky's question: http://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/310620/how-the-definition-of-work-is-derived-from-noether-theorem
Answer: I think you are right @Shrodingers cat. It would be better to clarify the answer this way.
Work done (w) = F . d
<code>                         = F d Cos θ
</code>
At 90 degrees, θ = 90 and Cos 90 = 0,
W = F x d x Cos 90
<code>= F x d x 0 = 0 Joule.
</code>
So, when the force is applied perpendicularly to the surface, the work done will be zero.
Comment: Only that you don't apply it perpendicular to any surface but perpendicular to the line element, perpendicular to the path the moon takes.
Answer: As others have already explained. Well its because there is no displacement in the direction of the gravitational force. It is assumed that the orbit stays the same during our observation. The Earth is pulling the moon towards the centre but the moon is moving in a circular orbit, with no displacement towards the centre.
A simple analogy is a block released from a particular height. Now as it falls down gravitational force does work on it, by pulling it down through a distance and raising its kinetic energy. Now suppose as it moves down you apply a constant horizontal force to the right, now the block is moving slanted path, because of the resultant force due to the two forces. Now if we consider the horizontal motion, gravitational force is not the cause of that, it is simply your hand. So your hand does work for the horizontal displacement, not the vertical one which is done by gravity.
So, in the case of the moon, Earth's gravitational force is not the cause of why it moves in a circle, it only provides the centripetal force necessary and centripetal force causes no whatsoever displacement to the moon.
Answer: In case you are interested in a more mathematical approach, this can actually be proven entirely using geometry. To proof this you need to to know a few things about vectors.
If $\vec v=(v_x,v_y,v_z)$ is the velocity vector of the moon then $v_x$, $v_y$ and $v_z$ represent the components of the speed in the x, y and z direction.
You can calculate the speed of the moon by calculation the length of the velocity vector
$$v=|v|=\sqrt{v_x^2+v_y^2+v_z^2}$$
If you square the length you get $v^2=v_x^2+v_y^2+v_z^2$, which I will use later. Lastly the dot product between two vectors is defined to be
$$\vec a\cdot\vec b=a_xb_x+a_yb_y+a_zb_z=|a||b|\cos \alpha$$
$\alpha$ is the angle between the two vectors. This means that the dot product is zero if the two vectors are perpendicular
Proof
If no work is done on the moon the kinetic energy must be constant. So the derivative of the kinetic energy must be zero. So we take the derivative by applying our $v^2$ substitution and taking the constants out of the derivative.
$$\frac{dKE}{dt}=\frac{d}{dt}(\tfrac{1}{2}mv^2)=\tfrac{1}{2}m\cdot\frac{d}{dt}(v_x^2+v_y^2+v_z^2)$$
Then apply the chain rule to each of the components.
$$\frac{d}{dt}(v_x^2+v_y^2+v_z^2)=2v_x\frac{dv_x}{dt}+2v_y\frac{dv_y}{dt}+2v_z\frac{dv_z}{dt}=2v_xa_x+2v_ya_y+2v_za_z$$
In which we recognize the dot product:
$$\frac{d}{dt}v^2=2\vec v\cdot\vec a$$
So the derivative of the kinetic energy becomes
$$\frac{dKE}{dt}=m\vec v\cdot\vec a$$
If the orbit is circular, the velocity is always perpendicular to the acceleration (and the force). So the kinetec energy doesn't change and no work is done on the moon.


What is the difference between Affection and Friendship, if any?

Question: I've risen Pokemon Amie Affection to 5 hearts on my Riolo in the hopes that it will evolve as soon as it levels up, but I'm not certain that this is the same thing as friendship, and I'd like to not waste a level.  My question is this: What is the difference between Pokemon Amie Affection and the Friendship stat?
Comment: Possible duplicate of [What bonuses are related to friendship?](https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/136784/what-bonuses-are-related-to-friendship)
Comment: Not a duplicate.  I'm asking about Affection, the other question isn't.
Comment: you mite find this handy http://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/136784/what-bonuses-are-related-to-friendship
Comment: I'm voting to leave this open as affection and friendship are two very distinct game mechanics with unfortunately similar names.
Answer: You can only gain affection in Pokémon-Amie by playing with your pokémon and feeding it. When you get enough hearts, the benefits are:

Increased Exp (1.2x, to be exact)
Increased chances of dodging a move
Chance of enduring a move with 1 HP
Chance of getting rid of a status at the end of a turn
Increased chance of getting a critical hit

However, happiness (friendship) is earned by leveling it up, giving it certain berries, going to the massage person, and walking around with it. From what I know, the effects are:

Return does more with more friendship
Frustration does more with less friendship
Your pokémon evolves with enough friendship

But however, from my experience, Pokémon-Amie affects happiness as well. My little brother always played with his Kangaskhan and Return was one of its strongest moves. Whenever he got too many Poké Puffs, he would go to his Pidgeot and throw all of the Poké Puffs away because he thought it was funny. When he taught it Return, it didn't kill a Caterpie. I'm not lying! The Pidgeot's Frustration was like the Kangaskhan's Return. What I concluded from this is that Pokémon-Amie slightly affects happiness as wel.
Answer: So the link that qwertyk31 supplied is also a good reference and might make this a duplicate question?  But regardless here is a link to Friendship or what is also known as Happiness
And here in the other question I explain what Affection affects:What bonuses are related to friendship?
Happiness it an older game mechanic that affects evolving some Pokemon as well as moves like Return and Frustration.
As I mention in the other question, Affection affects a few other things:

Resistant to having stats lowered
Evasiveness increases
Similar effect to Endure where stays at 1 hp
Pokemon levels faster
More critical hits( says something like 'Pokemon Meowth is in sync
with Trainer Name')

These effects are permanent when the Pokemon's affection is full.
Comment: Note that pokemon that evolved in previous games from "happiness" will now evolve from "affection" (2 hearts in most cases it seems?)
Comment: This is actually untrue, unfortunately.  I have 5 hearts on my Riolu and have leveled him up during the daytime for nothing to happen.  Further research has confirmed this happening with other people, so I'm afraid I must remove my acceptance of your answer.
Comment: Eevee evolves into Sylveon by Affection, but Pokémon that previously evolved by Happiness still evolve by Happiness
Comment: If Ben's comment is true, please add it to your answer.  It's very unclear what you mean otherwise.
Comment: Well I did not know for sure if what Ben said was true. I thought it was for sure Happiness or if it had changed to Affection.  They are similar in how they are raised by the trainer.  But I will delete the edit to the answer.  A source that I used in another question: [Happiness](http://www.serebii.net/games/happiness.shtml)  Explains what I believed to be the stat that affects Riolu and other Pokemon of the like.
Answer: Friendship makes some pokemon evolve and increases the power of Return. Affection gives pokemon bonuses in battle.
Answer: I've just tried this very moment, 5 hearts in Amie with my Buneary, gave it a Rare Candy and didn't evolve. I can conclude that Pokemons that evolve with happiness, you still need to raise their happiness to do so. Sylveon is a special case where you cannot maximize its happiness. To evolve to a Sylveon you need to raise its Affection instead of Happiness, otherwise it's going to evolve to Espeon/Umbreon.
Answer: Friendship is a stat that is raised through means in and outside of battle, while affection is only obtained in Poke-Amie.
You can raise Friendship by Leveling up Pokemon, giving them certain berries, going to the massage person, and many other ways. Affection is obtained by playing/feeding a Pokemon in Poke-Amie.
Friendship makes many Pokemon evolve, like Buneary, Riolu, Eevee into Umbreon and Espeon, and some others once it is high enough. It also effects the moves Frustration (lower friendship is more power) and Return (more friendship is more power).
Affection makes Sylveon evolve, and gives some in battle advantages. This includes more critical hits, change to endure a fatal attack, more exp, and some other buffs.
They are both independent and do not effect each other, despite sounding so similar.
Affection will not make your Riolu evolve, but it will still give it useful combat buffs.
Answer: Having 5 hearts IS NOT THE SAME THING as maximum friendship. A pokemon might be at 5 hearts but only have say 200/255 friendship, and not evolve because there's actually a hidden sixth or seventh heart that the game doesn't bother showing you since it doesn't help you in pokemon-amie.
But pokemon-amie CAN be used exclusively to evolve friendship-evolution pokemon. I've done it myself several times with eevees - hatch them from an egg, do absolutely nothing with them other than play with them in pokemon-amie for quite a while after they've reached 5 hearts, then give them a rare candy. Poof, espeon.
I'm actually surprised there isn't more information about this so long after the game was released.
Comment: Eevee can only become Sylveon if its affection has 5 hearts. This answer is completely wrong...


Should I answer the question which is the duplicate of another question?

Question: Should I answer the question which is the exact duplicate of another question, and it is mentioned as duplicate in comment?
How can we stop people answering such questions, if we should stop people doing it?
Comment: Related but not an *exact* dupe: http://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/101516/answering-an-obvious-duplicate
Answer: You shouldn't answer such a question.
If you have the reputation to close as duplicate, do so (this will automatically add a comment if there are no current comments on the question).
If you do not have the reputation, add a comment with a link to the duplicate.
You can't stop people from answering the question, but bringing attention to the duplicate will help.
Comment: One more thing to add: if you have something new in your answer, post that answer in the existing (old) question and post comment on the new (duplicate) question mentioning what you've done.
Comment: @Downvoter - care to comment?
Answer: It depends. A question is not a duplicate until the community decides it's one, one user posting a comment is not enough. That may take some time, and the OP may even revise the question in a way that's not a duplicate. Even if the question is closed, it's always possible to be revised & re-opened.
For the specific scenario you are describing, if you agree that the question is a duplicate:

Flag it as such,
Post your answer in the original question, if you feel it will add new & substantial information.
Answer: I sometimes do. I just did on another MSO question in fact.
The most important thing to do is to either vote to close as a duplicate (if you have the rep) or flag as a duplicate and comment, so that others know it's a duplicate and it will eventually get closed.
If you feel like answering and have something useful to say , you can answer it. But keep in mind it's probably going to be closed (and maybe deleted after that) so you're kinda wasting your time.
You won't be able to stop people from asking duplicate questions, best you can do is get good at closing them quickly :-)
Answer: This is one of the few issues with which I agree with Jeff Atwood.  Unless the question is trivial:
<code>How to cast a double to decimal in C#
</code>
then having a more-or-less duplicate question, that's a bit different, maybe with a slightly different title, whose answer will be different than those posted to the potential duplicates is good for the community.  It provides one more path for Google to direct future developers who are stuck.
If the question is intelligent, then answer it.  Your time will be much more productively spent providing help to the user than searching for a duplicate question to close with.
Answer: If it's an exact duplicate, leave a comment with a link of the duplicate for the user to visit, and flag the question appropriately.
If it's a vague duplicat (contains the same content of another question, yet could be considered to be somewhat different) then I would leave an answer only if the possible duplicate doesn't already contain an answer that correctly answers the new question.
Say question 1 is similar to question 2 to where some say it is a duplicate, but question 2 doesn't have any answers that could answer question 1. I beleive in this scenario it would be appropriate to answer the question. Also, even if the question is an exact duplicate of the original, but the original does not have a clear answer, you should include a new answer on the new question (or the old one for that matter...)


Why does my question have 2(Now Three) close vote? (What does "TTY" stand for?)

Question: On my question What does "TTY" stand for? It two (Now Three) close votes even worse than a down vote!  As you can see here:

 I am very sad!  Why whould anyone that is nice close it? There are samlier questions to it. For example 1 2 and fannly3 but there are many more!
Comment: You don't have the reputation to view close votes on those questions, so you can't tell anyway. Just because you see them on *your* question does not mean that there aren't any on the other questions. Nor does it mean they are being "mean" to you.
Comment: @Seth well I just think it would be nice to comment on the question why they think it should be close!
Comment: `I am very sad! Why whould anyone that is nice close it?` Closing is not about being "nice". It is about the question. While I am not saying I think the question ought to be closed, saying that people are not "nice" because they think your question should be closed, for whatever reason, is silly.
Comment: @Seth yea but there are samlier question to it why arent they being close?
Comment: @Seth that is why I think they are being mean to be is because why aren't those questions has close vote too!
Comment: It is genrally practice to comment as why the question should be closed - in fact when you use [the close vote thing](http://i.stack.imgur.com/T0Ayj.png) it sometimes automatically adds a comment to say `this should be closed due to blaa blaa` - these can be edited or deleted however. [In this case](http://i.stack.imgur.com/grCpx.png), it appears to being close voted as it is not about Ubuntu - which is odd as it sort of is... (though it can refer to Unix and Linux systems genrally)
Answer: Three people have voted "Off-topic: This is not about Ubuntu".
Perhaps they think it's too generic but I honestly don't have a problem with it.

TTY is a term we use all over Ask Ubuntu.
It's a term used throughout the official documentation.
It's something used in Ubuntu.

Why the hell wouldn't that be on-topic here? Yes, it's also on-topic elsewhere but so what?
Comment: I think it's not because is on topic elsewhere but OP is asking a english language question, which IMO we are not experts.
Comment: I think we should edit the question to be more generic, I.e. "what is a tty" vs " what does tty mean". As Braiam points out, the question is really close to being an English question.
Answer: My Answer is not my opinion, it's just answer.
Generally in Ask Ubuntu, The questions should flow about Ubuntu related issues. So if your Question stands for even 1% Ubuntu related then you can ask here. Mention the version of Ubuntu OS you are trying/dealing with this issue.
Next, Votes : See somebody may like your question so UPVOTE and somebody may not so DOWNVOTE. Its up to them. And you absolutely have a right to ask them an explanation about DOWNVOTE. If they are the real dealers then they will give explanation.
If you feel something onto you and your questions, then raise a flag to moderator. They will take care.

Why does my question have 2(Now Three) close vote? (What does “TTY” stand for?)