How to capture video of my mobile game?

Question: I've been keeping a blog for my current Android game and as I get closer to an actual playable version of the game, screenshots just aren't enough to show new progress anymore. What I need is video. The problem is, my game won't run on the current emulator (uses OpenGL ES 2.0), and my computer couldn't run the emulator if it wanted to anyways. So desktop video capture is out of the question. The only real idea I have is holding the phone in front of the only video camera I own: a webcam… yeah. Does anyone know a better (preferably free) way to capture video from an Android device?
Comment: Can Android devices do video-out to like your TV or something?
Comment: @jhocking I may be able to do that with the HDMI port on my device. What would be the best way to capture it from the TV?
Comment: I dunno, I don't have a TV :P I was just thinking out loud.
Comment: Outputting to the TV via HDMI then using a TV tuner definitely sounds like a good idea, however I have neither the special HDMI cable nor the TV tuner. Someone else may find that helpful though.
Answer: Perhaps something like Droid@Screen would work? Here's a video of setting it up and capturing video using CamStudio. Droid@Screen is in alpha, so it might work. Good luck! I'll keep an eye out for those videos on your blog .)
Hopefully your computer can handle that much :/
If your android device is rooted, there's an entirely on the phone option with ScreenCast & Recorder. Here's an article and the android market page for paid and free. Free version limits to 30 seconds of recording.
Comment: Droid@Screen is definitely very cool and easy to use. If I can get a better framerate, that will definitely work. I'll probably end up rooting my phone so I'll look into your other suggestion later. Thanks for the help and I'll definitely see you around on tumblr!
Comment: I don't think you can get an acceptable framerate with Droid@Screen ...
Answer: I'm not familiar with Android development, but I've used this technique on other platforms.
As you can take screen shots, could you simply lock your time step to say 1/30th sec (instead of using actual elapsed time) and save a screen shot every frame, which you can reassemble afterwards into a video on your PC.
The main downside of that method is that audio capture is more difficult - you will probably need to recreate it or replace it with something else.
It's also helps if you can record and replay any required user inputs since the game will be running in slow motion thanks to the screen shot saving.
Answer: I know this question is a little old but Android has changed some in the past 3 years so I think it's worth posting this answer.
Starting in Android 4.4, there's native screen recording. You can use ADB from a computer the phone is connected to or there are at least a dozen or so apps to help you do it (some with root, some without).
Without root, you'll be able to record the screen. I don't think you can get ANY of your phones audio if you don't have root. However, I've found a 3.5mm to 3.5mm cord can connect my phone's headphone jack to my laptop's mic jack and Audacity can record the audio just fine. My favorite app for screen recording is Lollipop Screen Recorder (and I have tested it all the way out to Marshmallow, it works great). Here's a video produced with this exact setup and what it looks/sounds like. I'm a crappy youtuber, but let this stand as hopefully a victory for the setup.
With root, you should be able to find an app that can record the screen and any audio produced by your device without any additional cords or computers. I have less experience with these apps so I can't make a good recommendation although I think Shou.tv should be able to do this. Shou.tv can also stream if that's something you want to do.
I am not a developer of any apps or games mentioned or linked to. Also, for the record, all of this software is free. An 8 foot cable for you headphone/mic jack connection can run $12 but is really useful to have on hand for more than just this task.
Answer: Unfortunately, I don't know if there are any good, solid, simple answers, since a lot of it depends on the device you're using and the game itself.  A quick google of android video capture turns up some info on media and video recording, some of the top results are here

http://developer.android.com/reference/android/media/MediaRecorder.html
https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1817742/android-video-recording-sample
https://stackoverflow.com/questions/2550743/android-video-capture-sample-app
http://thetechjournal.com/electronics/android/how-to-capture-screenshots-and-record-video-on-android-device.xhtml

This issue is that some of these solutions might take too long to implement, or plain old won't work for OpenGL games.  And none of these will really show off any elements of the game that rely on touch, or accelerometer, or microphone/camera.  So in some cases, the best option is to just stick the phone on a flat, well lit surface, point a camera at it, and play your game.  In some cases, a web cam might be good enough to show the game in action, and you can entice people with pretty screenshots as well.  If the web cam really is terrible, there's the option of finding a friend with a camera you can borrow for a few hours (or less)
Answer: This isn't the easiest way, but it doesn't require rooting your phone. You can slow down your game, run it in the emulator, record a video of the emulator, and then speed up the video.  More details on http://www.firedroid.net/2010/07/01/recording-android-games/
Answer: we now have a free SDK that allows you to record videos with no overhead (we capture all the OpenGL calls) within any app or game.
And any Android game developer that sends us their video could be featured at Game Developers Conference in San Francisco
Details: http://www.lunarg.com/seemegaming/
Comment: If you explain a bit about how your solution works, it is likely that people won't see it as spam.
Comment: Sure, we provide SDK that you download. The developer creates a "start recording" button with their app that calls our library, which captures all of the OpenGl calls into a trace file. Once recording is stopped the tracefile is uploaded to our webserver where it is converted and posted to your YouTube or Facebook or Vimeo account as video and you get the link back.
Answer: This has been brought up but if you are serious about recording videos of your game, one of the most time and quality efficient paths is to get a 60$ hdmi recorder and an hdmi output cable. You get both sound and video in your devices native quality and you save a bunch of time.
Another cheaper option is sending a demo of your game to someone who has an hdmi recorder and asking them to kindly record a video of your game.
You should be able to record gameplay hdmi output with a compatible device like this,
hdmi recorder. What you won't be able to do (probably as it's illegal) is record TV shows because the ouput is often encrypted.
So if you care about quality and framerate, getting the right hardware or asking someone who has it would be an option you could consider which may yield preferable results to software solutions.
Answer: You can use kamcord to record video or game in phone. See detail in https://www.kamcord.com/
Comment: This reads very much like an advertisement. Perhaps you can flesh out the answer with a little more detail?
Comment: It is pretty straight forward. Does not make perfect sense but can't say it won't work. The general idea is streaming to the web like twich.tv and then record it on the pc.
Answer: You should port your game on Desktop. OpenGL ES 2.0 can be easily port on OpenGL 2.1. With a desktop version, you can use many tools to debug and profile your OpenGL code. Yes, it is a lot of work but you will develop quicker with a Desktop port. If you refuse to port your OpenGL ES code, there are OpenGL ES emulator on windows too (Theren't android emulators).
http://lwjgl.org/
Note: With a video capture tool, you can't expect 30FPS. Only hdmi output present on many devices can help you...
Note 2: an OGLES 2.0 android emulator with hardware support is in the google labs, but no availability date.
Comment: I guess you missed the part where the emulator won't run his game. As for porting the game to desktop, I don't agree that porting an Android app to desktop is easy. I mean, first you say it's easy, then you say it's a lot of work. okaaaay...
Comment: Our own engine is working on OS X, Windows, IOS and Android. The specific code for Android is very small. I understand that you didn't want port on Desktop but you should. There are so many advantages.

How to capture video of my mobile game?


Rig is moving other parts of my mesh for no reason!

Question: I've been following this tutorial to rig my blender character https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mhQY2_gVoVg and no matter what I do, my rig moves other random parts of my model. If I move one leg, the other leg follows? Something's also wrong with the hands.  I've applied the mirror modifier, parented using automatic weights, I even removed the mirror modifier, duplicated the half of my model, mirrored it, then joined the two so there would be no need for a mirror modifier. No matter what I do, my rig seems to be acting up strangely. I even play around with the weight paints, but it still doesn't work! I'm assuming there's nothing wrong with my mesh and that it's something with the rig, but I don't know what. Please help!
Comment: maybe share your file? https://blend-exchange.giantcowfilms.com/
Comment: I've created a seperate duplicate file for this [](https://blend-exchange.giantcowfilms.com/b/6500/)
Answer: In Object mode apply the rotation and scale of your object with ctrlA, then in Edit mode recalculate the normals with ctrlN.
Also maybe remove the doubles, put the Armature modifier above the Subsurf, enable the Preserve Volume of the Armature modifier, join the fingers to the hands, etc...
Anyway it will need some corrections in Weight Paint mode or with the Vertex Groups Assign button.
Comment: You are a HERO!
Answer: I recreated the steps with your file and  used parenting the mesh to the armature "With automatic weights"...and the result was nearly the same.
First thing is: You need more bones! :)
The fingers are too far away to be moved with the lower arm bone.
The reason, why the lower left bone moves parts of the right leg (for example) is probably a too large value for its envelope. Sounds crazy somehow, doesn't it? :)
"With automatic weight" does the following: Bone by bone is heated up. Then each vertex is measured for the amount of radiation of each bone it has received. This value determines the amount of movement it does, when the according bone gets moved.
You can check for that values by entering EDIT mode for the mesh and click a certain vertex:

The bone of the lower arm is bone.8 and according the Vertex Weights in the panel on the right (under the "Item" tab) the "heat" of that bone hasn't reached that vertex
of the hand.
The amount of heat, each bone can generate, is controlled by the size of its "envelope value" which is shown in the Item-panel (same as in the picture) and this value can manipulated there. The value is shown, when the armature is in Edit mode.
This is the reason, why parenting an armature to a mesh is done, while the mesh and the armature are posed like an "X" because this way all bones and the according parts of the mesh have the maximum distance from each other.
How to fix:
1) Un-parent the mesh from the armature.
2) Delete all vertex groups
3) Create X pose for mesh and armature
4) Take a look at the envelope values of critical bones
5) Parent mesh to armature with "Automatic weights"
6) If ok: Accept cookies (and tea/coffee) :)
7) If not ok: GOTO 4)
...or use the Rigify-Addon...
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=pAhbO7U1ID8


Is there a legitimate step by step guide to getting your book published?

Question: I want to write on a computer topic which isn't covered by many existing books out there. What is the process of getting your book published?
Comment: Kim, I removed an unfinished sentence from the end of this question. If you intended to expand and clarify the question, please do :)
Comment: The tag seems off to me. A computer book isn't scientific publishing; it's a reference book. But "reference" seems to be used for something else. Thoughts, folks? I'm opening a question in meta. (Oh - or did you mean Computer Science?)
Comment: Reference seems to be used as in "Reference a book within my book". It'd be nice to write those tag wikis.
Answer: The answer: yes, there is such a guide. There are many such guides, at the publishers' websites.
Now on to the dessert:
If the topic is on computers, no doubt you'd like a publisher like O'Reilly.
Here they have a step-by-step guide to getting published by them. I'm pretty sure several other computer science/technology related publishers will have guides on their sites, too.
So, being the publisher the author, I think we can count it as legitimate. And it is pretty straightforward, too.
In short:

Write the book.
Propose it (they have a "list of dos and don'ts" for proposing in the site I linked you to)
If you haven't written the book, it is recommended you read the "So you want to write a book" article. (Link available at the site I linked to)

As I said before, if you're writing something that hasn't been covered, no doubt you'll want O'Reilly. But they'll ask you: why are you uniquely qualified for writing that book?
It was asked in a comment: what about fantasy or sci-fi? Answer: Tor dot com might be what you're looking for. I linked directly to their submissions guidelines' page. They don't want novels, just short fiction. But they link to Tor Books' submission guidelines. in case you have a longer work. Good luck and have fun!
Comment: Getting a fiction book published is a somewhat different story than getting a reference book published, and probably merits its own, separate question. e.g. this one: http://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/1979/what-exactly-do-i-do-to-get-published
Comment: what about other books such as novels and fiction?
Comment: Appending that to the original answer.
Comment: So basically ask the publisher directly? Don't I need an agent to do that? I'm not sure if Tor.com is right for me. I want an actual tangible copy that I can have. Basically, I want to write some stuff on North Korea from my own experiences.
Comment: You don't need an agent for contacting publishers, although they might be able to do that. As far as agents are concerned, I'm not the best advice around... there's another question regarding what agents do and don't do for you, if you search for it. Anyway, just look for some company that publishes the sort of work you want to publish, and look around their sites. They want good books to reach them, so they will certainly be open.
Answer: I disagree with @iajrz. For non-fiction, you should write the proposal first. Publishers and agents do not want to deal with a fait accompli. Check out Larsen's book. It's a great walkthrough of the entire process.
I published a computer book in 2001, and sold 10,000 copies, so I know a little bit about this subject.


Preinstalled Windows vs. OEM Installation Key License: Two licenses or one?

Question: Preinstalled copies of Windows on computers usually have a different serial number than the one that comes with the recovery media. As such, does that mean that I now have two licenses to Windows, or one? Are there any restrictions on what I can do with the second license?
Answer: The licence installed by the OEM OS disc is called a Volume Licence Key (VLK), these are used by OEM's to make it easy to install legitimate product on millions of PC's, the COA sticker key is the unique single user license that has to be distributed with the PC as per their agreement with Microsoft. Record the COA key somewhere safe as the stickers tend to get unreadable over time.
No, legally you only have one key. If you lose your OEM install disc, you can use a non OEM disk to install the OS and then use the key on the COA sticker to install and activate.
Comment: ...except that those keys don't always work when you try this.
Comment: @ Shinrai, explain "don't work"
Answer: First of all, don't mistake a serial number from a license key.  The license key is used for activation, at which point a serial number that identified that activation is issued or created.
That said, there are likely two product keys involved.  The number on the computer is the result of a Volume License Key used by the computer manufacturer to install the software.  The key point here is that this VLK license belongs to the OEM, and not to you.
Remember that licenses pertain to copyright, which controls how a work can be copied.  The VLK license used by the OEM covers the copy they make when they install the software.  The key on your laptop allows you to do the same thing and install the software again, if you need to.
They key on your laptop also covers actually running the software. You need a license just to run installed software because of an old court ruling from back before most people, including courtroom judges, really had any idea how computers work.  The ruling says that running software creates a copy of that software in cpu and RAM as it executes.  Since copyright law changed to make software covered by copyright by default, you must have a license to legally run software.  Personally I think that's like saying I make a copy of a book in my brain as I read it — while there might be some truth to that, it's completely beyond the scope of copyright.  Nevertheless, the ruling still stands.
Answer: I believe the recovery CD checks for info in the bios to verify it's being run on the correct computer. If it isn't, the recovery can't be used. So while you might technically have 2, they both can only work on one PC and no other.


Probablity that a Bitcoin has been Lost

Question: I am building some new metrics to better understand the Bitcoin economy and one that seems to be useful is a probabilistic notion that a Bitcoin has been lost. I'm aware of the bitcoin days destroyed, but has anyone done any modeling to gain a sense if a Bitcoin has been destroyed as a result of a lost key or a transaction to a bad address?
Answer: There is no way to determine (that I can imagine) the number of lost private keys, you would have to make a guess that after x years without movement the private key is lost but that would just be a guess.
Comment: Thus the notion of probabilistic measure. I'm certain with some modeling, we could develop a reasonable metric
Comment: @CharlesHoskinson How? I can't imagine you could get any useful data on which to base a prediction.
Comment: Take the set of all accounts and measure the transaction volume over a fixed period of time. Build a distribution and examine the outliers. Certain accounts will be high volume others no volume. Create a notion of average time within an account and if an account is several standard deviations outside the time range, then it is either a high frequency account or a dead account
Comment: This analysis would also be useful for studying iceberging techniques for moving large chunks of bitcoins without having the market discover the divestment
Answer: A digital currency with user-defined anonymity will cause any estimates to simply be guesstimates.
There are other areas where studies have attempted to quantify something and simply have concluded there is no reliable way to come up with the number so rather than provide misinformation there simply is no estimate made.
Essentially you could give a rough guesstimate of the upper bound.  Any coin that hasn't moved in the past year, for instance, might go under the possibly lost for a year or more.  That data is available and reportable.   But who knows if the real level of coins that haven't moved for over a year is because they were lost or simply are being saved and not spent.  Maybe it is 98% saved and 2% lost.  Or not.  Who knows.
Comment: Yes and what do you think the distribution would be? Poisson?

Probablity that a Bitcoin has been Lost


What styles should encourage me to learn water chemistry

Question: I've been brewing all-grain batches for some time.  With my water source, I'm generally getting good results across multiple styles.  To date, I haven't done much with water chemistry.  Which styles of beer will customizing my water chemistry make the most (positive) difference ?
Answer: The answer to your question is very much dependent on the water chemistry of the water you are using now. If you have alkaline water you will find that you'll have the most success with beers using roasted malts because the acidity in the malt will bring down the mash pH to the correct level (5.2-5.4). Lighter beers will be harder to brew due to your mash pH being too high.
If you have soft water you'll be able to brew most styles successfully if you have adequate calcium.
If you haven't already, the first step is to order the W-6 test from Ward Labs to determine the properties of your brewing water. If you have the results already then I can amend this answer to address your water more specifically.
There's a lot of information out there about matching color to residual alkalinity, but you can disregard that because it oversimplifies water chemistry to the point that it is not worth paying attention to.
Answer: First ask yourself of all your beers which ones are your very very best.  And be honest with yourself.  Using known award winning recipes make something light (pilsner or kolsch), something amberish (Red Ales, Pale ales) and something dark (porter or stout).  Submit these beers to a couple competitions.  See which ones do the best.
While doing that, get your water source tested from Warb Labs.  Then figure out what conventional wisdom about water chemistry says about your beer style options.  Refer to "How to Brew" in this regard.
You may be fortunate enough to live in an area where the water is somewhere in the middle and you don't need to do much to make great beer. That is sort of my boat.  But I am curious to see if I make one of my best beers and try to make it with "appropriate" water profiles to see if it really makes a difference.
Tough tasks where results don't come overnight.  But if you are serious about making really great beer...maybe these are the answers or the road to that success.


Is it common to be required to make-up for time off that I negotiated during the hiring process?

Question: During the hiring process (before I accepted the job offer), I mentioned that I wasn't yet aware of the company's vacation policy but that I had planned a couple of trips that would prevent me from being at work and wanted to make sure this wouldn't be a problem.  The company's policy is normally to not allow vacation days to be used before the probation period is up, and these days fell before the probation period. I was told these trips would be able to be accommodated but no specific details were mentioned about the policy or how the situation would be handled. I was recently informed I will need to work extra hours to make up for these days.  Is this a common way of handling vacation time that was negotiated during the hiring process?
Comment: What's the difference between using "personal time" and "vacation time"? If you aren't working, then you have to account for your time somehow.
Comment: user17647, you edited your question to remove the option to use personal time. Was that choice not actually given to you?
Comment: You should probably mention the country you're in, in the USA I'd expect a very different answer from most European countries for example, with India or other Asian territories generating yet different answers.
Comment: It seems like, very unfortunately, you **didn't get it in writing**.  there is very,  very little you can do when you "fail to get it in writing".  All you can really do is say politely "Ah, although I didn't get it in writing, it was agreed that _ _ _ _"
Comment: @Cronax even in different states in the USA, the answers can be wildly different.
Answer: This is completely normal.
When you negotiated your vacation time during the interview, all you were agreeing to was that the company would grant you an exception to the norm and allow you to not be in the office on those days. It sounds like what you didn't do was discuss how your time would be officially managed for those days. Most companies aren't going to just give you free days off. The most common ways of allowing you your vacation are to

Have you work extra hours so that your total time worked is still a full week.
Allow you to take vacation days you haven't earned yet so that you have a negative balance.
Have you take unpaid time off.

I was recently informed I will need to work extra hours to make up for these days, or to use personal time.

You haven't explained how "personal time" is different from "vacation time", but this seems perfectly in line with what I have described. The biggest challenge for you might be having time to work all of the extra hours, if you choose that option. Finding the extra time could be quite a burden depending on the length of your trip.
In any case, it sounds like you need to go talk to your manager in person and try to understand what your options really are.
Answer: When negotiating an employment contract, it's important to ensure all communication is documented in writing. If it's past the point where that is possible (which it sounds like it is), then I would schedule time with the individual with whom you negotiated and agreed to taking vacation before your probationary period was passed, and discuss this. After your discussion and assuming this person still maintains this is an okay exception to the norm, document it in writing.
Example: "Thank you for your time today. Per our conversation, during our interview on Month, Day, Year, about my employment at Company XYZ, we discussed previously planned vacations and my ability to take those days off using Paid Time Off before my probationary period was up. Please confirm this is still the case. Thank you for understanding and I'll be sure to stay on track with my work."
Style it how you want, but be sure to get them to agree or approve in writing.
Comment: @user17647 If working extra or taking personal days is always an option, then your employer doesn't *need* to give you an accommodation. When interviewing you asked if you could still take your vacation, and your employer said it would not be a problem. It isn't a problem because of those standard options. I'm not really understanding your issue.
Comment: The conversation took place over email, so it is documented.  No specific promises were made other than it could be accommodated.  However working extra on other days or using a personal day to take time off is always an option, so it doesn't seem like that's really much of an 'accommodation' as much as it is a matter of regular day-to-day policy.


Do multiple e-mail addresses need to be separated by a comma?

Question: In CSV format, in an Excel spreadsheet or in a Word document, both having multiple email addresses with each address being in its own row and in a single column, is a comma REQUIRED after each address?
Answer: Well, the answer to that is entirely dependent on what you are going to do with those email addresses.  Email addresses in a word document, or in excel, or in whatever, can be separated by whatever you feel like - whatever is most pleasing to the eye.

email@example.com :) email@example.com :) email@example.com

is just one example of email addresses separated by smilies.
The only one you mentioned that has any strict formatting is the CSV file, where fields are separated by a column.  If the email addresses are grouped into one column then if I were you I'd separate them with anything except commas.
So until we know what you are going to do with the email addresses we can't tell you what is required to delimit them.
Comment: No, they make it crash :P
Comment: Do frowns make Excel sad?
Answer: Assuming you are going to use the e-mail addresses as the recipient list for your e-mails, you should be able to separate them with semi-colons. If you separate them with commas they'll be treated as separate columns by what ever reads the CSV file.
Though I'd double check that your e-mail client accepts that format first.
Answer: Quotes should work within a CSV to keep a cell intact if you want to put commas in it.
Example:
<code>Cell 1, Cell 2, "Cell 3, Still Cell 3", Cell 4
</code>


Report for number of events attended by each person

Question: I would like a report that lists the number of events attended by (or registered by) each participant.  This seems like something that a lot of organizations would find useful, yet I can't seem to find anything even close to this that I could customize into what I'm looking for.  Am I missing something, or is there no such report in existence.  If not, any suggestions.
Thanks,
Rick
Comment: if you are on Drupal then Views and 'aggregation' could quickly give you the count of events each contact has attended, if that is what you want and if you can't get it easily via civi report
Comment: Thanks, but I am not on Drupal.
Answer: I think you can get what you want with the "Event Participants Report" (under the Events > Event Reports Menu). In the "Sorting" tab, just tick the box for "Section Header / Group By" against "Last Name, First Name". You use the "Filters" tab to restrict to a particular time period, set of events etc.
In general if I can't do something off the shelf in CiviCRM then I export a search result or report to Excel and manipulate it there. A lot easier than writing a new report. In this case I would have used the Subtotal function in Excel if I couldn't have done it within CiviCRM.
Comment: Mick, Thanks for that.  Yes, I have frequently imported stuff into Excel, and then manipulated it from there, but I really want to learn how to use the Civi Reports more...
Comment: So I did what you said, and I see a report that lists every participant.  Next to each one's name is the number of events they attended in parenthesis.  That is getting me close, but I am missing something.  I would like to be able to sort on the number of events, but since the total number of events is not a data field, I don't know how to do that.  Am I missing something?
Comment: I don't think you would be able to do that in the CiviCRM report - as you say it only allows sorting by the data fields from the participant record. I think the only way to do this is the export to Excel (which gets the report without the subtotals, use the Excel subtotal tool and then manipulate it a bit (I played a bit filtering out blanks in the first column then sorting by the second column, but you probably need to do a bit more that to be able to use it).


What is the evidence for a supermassive black hole at the center of Milky Way?

Question: Black holes cannot be seen because they do not emit visible light or any electromagnetic radiation. Then how do astronomers infer their existence? I think it's now almost established in the scientific community that black holes do exist and certainly, there is a supermassive black hole at the centre of our galaxy. What is the evidence for this?
Comment: Related: https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/148777/25301, https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/195915/25301, https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/361948/25301, https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/317148/25301 & probably others
Answer:
Black holes cannot be seen because they do not emit visible light or any electromagnetic radiation.

This is not absolutely correct in the sense that visible light is emitted during the capture of charged matter from the radiation as it is falling into the strong gravitational potential of the black hole, but it is not strong enough to characterize a discovery of a black hole. X rays are also emitted if the acceleration of the charged particles if high, as is expected by a black hole attractive sink.
The suspicion of the existence of a black hole comes from kinematic irregularities in orbits. For example:

Doppler studies of this blue supergiant in Cygnus indicate a period of 5.6 days in orbit around an unseen companion.

.....

An x-ray source was discovered in the constellation Cygnus in 1972 (Cygnus X-1). X-ray sources are candidates for black holes because matter streaming into black holes will be ionized and greatly accelerated, producing x-rays.

A blue supergiant star, about 25 times the mass of the sun, was found which is apparently orbiting about the x-ray source. So something massive but non-luminous is there (neutron star or black hole).

Doppler studies of the blue supergiant indicate a revolution period of 5.6 days about the dark object. Using the period plus spectral measurements of the visible companion's orbital speed leads to a calculated system mass of about 35 solar masses. The calculated mass of the dark object is 8-10 solar masses; much too massive to be a neutron star which has a limit of about 3 solar masses - hence black hole.

This is of course not a proof of a black hole - but it convinces most astronomers.
Further evidence that strengthens the case for the unseen object being a black hole is the emission of X-rays from its location, an indication of temperatures in the millions of Kelvins. This X-ray source exhibits rapid variations, with time scales on the order of a millisecond. This suggests a source not larger than a light-millisecond or 300 km, so it is very compact. The only possibilities that we know that would place that much matter in such a small volume are black holes and neutron stars, and the consensus is that neutron stars can't be more massive than about 3 solar masses.

From frequently asked questions, What evidence do we have for the existence of black holes?, first in a Google search:

Astronomers have found convincing evidence for a supermassive black hole in the center of our own Milky Way galaxy, the galaxy NGC 4258, the giant elliptical galaxy M87, and several others. Scientists verified the existence of the black holes by studying the speed of the clouds of gas orbiting those regions. In 1994, Hubble Space Telescope data measured the mass of an unseen object at the center of M87. Based on the motion of the material whirling about the center, the object is estimated to be about 3 billion times the mass of our Sun and appears to be concentrated into a space smaller than our solar system.

Again, it is only a black hole that fits these data in our general relativity model of the universe.
So the evidence for our galaxy is based on kinematic behavior of the stars and star systems at the center of our galaxy.
Comment: @BlackThorn The "density" of a blackhole—here meaning mass divided by volume inside the event horizon—drops quite rapidly as the mass grows (for instance, in the Schwarzschild geometry the volume grows as the cube of the mass). Big holes have quite small densities, so no, it should *not* be more dense than the sun.
Comment: @WhitePrime it wasn't completely unaffected: it just didn't actually get close enough to be completely disrupted -- we didn't know it's orbit well enough to know whether or not it would be disrupted in advance.  As far as I know there are stars whose orbits pass closer than its did.
Comment: `the object is estimated to be about 3 billion times the mass of our Sun and appears to be concentrated into a space smaller than our solar system.` Even if the density of the black hole were the same as the Sun (it should be much higher), the radius would be less than 1500x our Sun's radius - nowhere near the size of our solar system. It would have a radius similar to a large Red Supergiant.
Comment: @BlackThorn Yes our models of black holes can give us more precise estimate of the size of the black whole, but the observational evidence independent of the black hole models might not be that precise, and since we are trying to validate the model with this evidence, the difference in what we can prove observationally and what we expect from the model is important. That observation is consistent with a black whole, but now we can ask would any other model fit the data?
Comment: Something like this ought to be fairly convincing: https://gifer.com/en/U3YI
Comment: Computing the density of the black hole misses the point. If there were billions of independent non-blackhole sun masses within the size of the solar system, *they would not stay independent*. Merging would happen nearly instantly (say, within a few centuries) and then you WOULD have a black hole.
Comment: I honest don't understand why this answer has been accepted or upvoted. Nothing but a collection of online quotes for *related* questions.
Comment: @Walter  I am curious how else one can find *evidence* for experimental observations unless by quotes referring to those who have done the observations and modeled them?
Comment: Thanks! So it is the accelerated charged particles falling into the black hole that emits radiation. And it is not Hawking radiation.
Comment: Yes .Hawking radiation if not strong enough and goes inversly to mass of BH
Comment: Do we not also now have direct evidence of gravitational lensing caused by what we suspect to be a black hole? Wish I could find the reference image and explanation..
Comment: Not what I was looking for: https://phys.org/news/2015-07-astronomers-cosmic-gravity-black-hole-scope.html
Comment: So, why was the G2 cloud completely unaffected by Sagittarius A* despite passing it so closely?
Comment: @James Those look like the paths of stars around Sagittarius A*.
Comment: @forest Yes, I should've added a text description. It is the orbit of stars around Sagitarius A*. In this case a gif is worth a thousand words!
Answer: If the black hole was situated in the middle of nowhere with no matter surrounding it, then indeed it would be quite hard to observe it. Any black hole with a considerable mass emits extremely tiny amount of Hawking radiation and that's it. However the black hole in the center of our galaxy is surrounded by matter. Thus we can observe it by its gravitational pull on this matter.
First, you look at the surrounding stars and discover that they are orbiting something.

The periods are small with S2 completing the orbit in only 15.2 years (the observations over 15 years can be seen in this clip, thanks to luk32 for the link to the image)
Such short-period orbits signify the presence of the supermassive object:

But there's also matter in the vicinity of the black hole. Under its huge gravitational pull most of the matter is scattered around whereas a little bit is driven to inspiral until it falls on the black hole in the process known as accretion. The falling matter radiates primarily in the radio spectrum which results in it losing energy and falling further. We can see this radiation from the accreting matter.
What we don't see however is the radiation from the object this matter falls on.  Because of all the stuff falling, compressed at the surface and overheated any ordinary object would be very bright. Instead it's very dim as if all this matter simply disappeared at some point. This is consistent with existence of the black hole horizon.
Similar principle works for other black hole candidates. We can observe its graviational pull on the surrounding matter and radiation from the accretion disc in its vicinity.
Comment: I was aware of this "movie", but it didn't know it's milky way http://www.mpe-garching.mpg.de/www-ir/GC/images/movie2003.gif  I think it's pretty cool and supplements your answer very well. I think nothing know other than black hole can be so massive and dense (and not luminous) to make S14 such a sharp turn. I mean this is a star after all and this happens in span of about 10 years.
Comment: @mithusengupta123 The Hawking radiation from black holes with several stellar masses or larger is very very tiny indeed. It's not likely to ever be detectable. At best it's a few billionths of a Kelvin, which is far less than the cosmic background radiation, so such black holes are net absorbers of radiation, not emitters.
Comment: I've optimized the gif and embedded it directly, feel free to remove it (or change the text around it or whatever) if you don't like that :)
Comment: "_Any black hole with a considerable mass emits extremely tiny amount of Hawking radiation and that's it._" Has Hawking radiation been observed by astronomers?
Comment: @OON I suggest you edit your answer to include the animation, it becomes very clear when seeing it like that.
Comment: @uhoh It's from wiki
Comment: https://commons.m.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:Galactic_centre_orbits.svg
Comment: @mithusengupta123 No. It is purely theoretical right now (or Hawking would get a Nobel prize for sure). There are very good reasons to expect it though.
Comment: @StéphaneRollandin I know, but if such observation was as recent as his death it would be all over the news, don't you think?
Comment: @luk32 Yeah, I thought of this clip when I was writing this answer but was in hurry and didn't have a time to find it. Thanks!
Comment: @Thriveth I wanted to do that the moment luk32 gave the link but the day has only 24 hours. Regretfully the image is too large to be uploaded on imgur and stackexchange doesn't want to show it directly from the site so I have to include only the link
Comment: I really like your answer in all its graphic glory! The inset in the first image showing the orbits of Sedna et al. for scale is really striking, and took me a moment to digest. Do you still remember the source for the image?
Comment: I've reused the GIF [here](https://astronomy.stackexchange.com/a/27979/7982)
Comment: Just orbitting around something is not a strong reason; everything could simply be rotating around the center of mass of everythng. Right?
Comment: @Ash You mean, like they are orbitting around the c.m. of the millions of stars? The simple picture of the elliptic orbits with one of the focuses in the c.m. works only for the two-body problem (it VERY roughly works in the solar system because mass of the stuff outside Sun and Jupiter is negligible). For more bodies, the orbits become very complicated. But in case of millions of stars the gravitational force of many stars around would compensate each other. This is, more or less, a consequence of the shell theorem. Observed orbits could only be produced by a supermassive compact object.
Answer: Sagittarius A* (the black hole at the center of our galaxy) has some of the best observational evidence for  black hole I have ever seen. Here, check out the animations from UCLA (Hmmm, this link is now dead. That's sad, but read on for better proof) made from our observations. This is from data taken over a span of 20 years. You can see the bright spots (stars) orbiting around a patch of nothingness. The ones that get really close whip around at some insane speed but slow down quickly as they move away. Obviously, whatever is at the center has got a respectable amount of mass to it. But notice also that the stars always seem to move around something that is at the dead center (and their orbits are ellipses, which shows that we aren't just moving the camera to keep it at the center). Consider that, the mass of those stars must be insanely small next to the mass of the central body, otherwise it would be flung out into space the other direction when one star gets really close.
So, here you can see massive stars orbiting something that gives off no light and must be orders of magnitude more massive than any of the stars around it. Well that seems to fit the profile of a black hole. Plus the mass that we calculate it must have is high enough that anything that massive and that compact would have to collapse into a black hole.
P.S. If you didn't check out the videos, do. They're great; I love them.

Update: Check out this picture

That's a picture of Sagittarius A*. That's two things. 1) Pretty awesome. And 2) it's darn good proof that it exists
Comment: @Shing that is supremely disappointing. I'll keep my eyes open for better links. Thanks for letting me know
Comment: The video is gone now :/
Answer: Short answer: There is compelling evidence for the existence of supermassive dark compact object at the center of the Milky Way, however the conclusion that this compact object is a black hole (and thus has a horizon) is far from established. Moreover, the  statement "black holes exist in our Universe" may be fundamentally  unfalsifiable, but alternatives to black holes can be ruled out or confirmed by experiments.
Longer Answer.
The center of our Galaxy hosts supermassive black hole candidate that is the best constrained by observations among other purported black holes.  Its  mass  and  distance  have  been accurately  determined  from  orbits of nearby stars  and its proper  motion  studies, and  it has been established that  high-frequency  radio,  and  highly  variable  near-infrared  and  X-ray  emission from this object originate from within a few Schwarzschild radii of this very compact object.
Other answers list this evidence in greater details, but let me emphasize the following: this is all evidence of massive dark compact object, not necessarily of the black hole.
If we assume the validity of classical general relativity, there is only one possible interpretation: there is a black hole at the center of our galaxy. However, there is always a possibility that there is some new physics that becomes relevant in situations where a black hole would be formed in ordinary GR, physics that possibly would prevent the formation of horizon, the defining feature of a black hole.
So, what could be an alternative to black hole? The general name is an exotic compact object (ECO). It can be seen as two regions glued together: the exterior of the black hole solution starting from some distance $r_g\cdot\epsilon$ (where $r_g$ is the Schwarzschild radius for a given mass of an ECO ) of the supposed horizon and the interior composed of some exotic stuff in a way that does not lead to the formation of the horizons. If the parameter $\epsilon$ is small enough, then most of the features one could expect from black holes: strong gravitational lensing, general relativistic behavior of the orbits near the ECO including photon sphere, ergosphere, formation of gravitational waves by mergers of the colliding ECO etc. could be present in these kind of objects.
In classical GR it is impossible for any signal (EM or GW) to escape the surface of the horizon. So for any given effect of black hole it would be possible to choose small enough $\epsilon$ so that it would be impossible to distinguish between a true black hole and a hypothetical ECO which does not have a horizon, meaning that existence of black holes is unfalsifiable.
There are various theoretical models that lead to the formation of ECOs instead of black holes. Most of them are based on somewhat speculative assumptions on the behavior of particular model of quantum gravity (or specific properties of matter content) in the strong regime.
An overview of various types of black hole alternatives could be found in a recent paper:

Cardoso, V., & Pani, P. (2017). Tests for the existence of black holes through gravitational wave echoes. Nature Astronomy, 1(9), 586, doi, arXiv, extended version.

This paper is quite accessible and has a following figure, giving overview of various types of ECO:

Example: $2-2$ hole, here is a proposal for a specific type of ECO (chosen mostly because I have not seen this before):

Holdom, B., & Ren, J. (2017). Not quite a black hole. Physical Review D, 95(8), 084034, doi, arXiv.

It is based on a conjectured analogy between quantum chromodynamics  and quadratic quantum gravity: above a certain scale $\Lambda_{QQG}$ quantum gravity exhibits a spin-2 ghosts. So a strong gravity regime would be quite different from infrared regime which is classical quadratic gravity. A $2-2$ hole is a solution that is an exterior of Schwarzschild solution down to about a Planck proper length of the would-be horizon, while inside there is a phase of strong quantum gravity without horizon:

Experimental tests While there are many models for various types ECO they can be constrained by experiments:

Rapidly spinning ECOs often exhibit instability and lose angular momentum. Observation of large angular momentum of black hole candidates would rule such models out.
Merging ECOs would have echoes in gravitational waves signature. Analysis of data from LIGO and future generation of GW detectors could support or disprove some ECO models. See for instance this paper:

Abedi, J., Dykaar, H., & Afshordi, N. (2017). Echoes from the Abyss: Tentative evidence for Planck-scale structure at black hole horizons. Physical Review D, 96(8), 082004, doi.

Proposed Event Horizon Telescope could collect data on ECO.

And so this cottage industry of black hole alternatives is mostly driven by the hope (however small) that observations of near-would-be horizon structure would give us a window into quantum gravity.
Comment: What is "infrared regime"?
Comment: @PeterMortensen: It means at low energies (large distances). This would be exactly the limit of general relativity theory that we would observe almost everywhere except for the regions with strong quantum. See [Infrared fixed point](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infrared_fixed_point) for general explanation, and [arXiv:1512.05305](https://arxiv.org/abs/1512.05305) for this model specifically.
Answer: First of all, Black Holes' accretion disks  do emit radiation. That is one way that astronomers use to detect black holes, that is, observing incoming radiation. Another way is comparing the motion of objects with the motion expected from objects near black holes. This is relevant to your question: many astronomers have noticed that the motion of stars close to the center of our galaxy match the expected motion of stars in the presence of black holes. This is evidence of the presence of a massive black hole in the center of the Milky Way.
Comment: @mithusengupta123 see my answer
Comment: @mithusengupta123 No, the Hawking radiation of stellar black holes is emitted at a tiny fraction of a degree above absolute zero, so it's not easy to detect against the CMBR  background which is billions of times hotter. And supermassive BHs are even colder.
Comment: I wasn't really talking about Hawking radiation. I meant the radiation coming from accretion disks around the Black Hole. It is a significant radiation.
Comment: "_Black Holes do emit radiation_" Are you talking about Hawking radiation? Has that been observed yet?
Comment: @mithusengupta123 Joao is talking about the disk *surrounding* the SMBH (see https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/137838/25301)
Answer: Black holes are like your Death Metal loving neighbors who never leave their apartment: You can't see them, but you know for sure they are there.
When you state that "black holes cannot be seen because they do not emit any electromagnetic radiation" you are nominally correct: The amount of Hawking radiation the large ones emit is so tiny that they actually form a shadow in front of the microwave background.
But black holes interact gravitationally with their environment, in a dramatic fashion. The otherworldly acceleration of matter orbiting and falling into the black hole can result in rather spectacular emissions of radiation. This article from 2015 reports on X-ray emissions observed by the Chandra observatory in the radio galaxy Pictor A. The hypothesis is that the X-rays are synchrotron radiation originating in a high-energy particle jet which in turn originates close to the black hole in the center of the galaxy.
In order to gain some perspective on the scale of events let's examine a few numbers.

The power of the observed radiation is estimated to be around 2*1035 Watt. That's half a billion times the sun's entire energy output.
The observable radiation is only a small fraction of the jet's power which is estimated to be 100 or 1000 times larger. That would make the energy output of the beams equal the energy output of a small-ish galaxy of stars.
The beam has a diameter of several kilo-parsecs. That makes it wider than our galaxy's height, and is a substantial fraction of our galaxy's diameter.

No known mechanisms outside black holes would be able to effect anything on that scale. You know your neighbors are there because they produce more noise than the entire rest of your apartment block.


The Fed may increase the rates. But will that make the government debt unsustainable?

Question: The US Fed is increasing its interest rate targets. These rates will eventually affect most other interest rates in the US economy. In particular, interest rates on US government bonds will also increase, which should increase the US government debt servicing costs. Moreover, the government has over 10 trillion dollars in debt, so, the effect on its costs could even force it to increase tax rates. So, is the interest rate increase by the Fed eventually going to lead to an increase in federal tax rates? Thanks!
Comment: It has been a bit since looking into it, but I think the fiscal theory of the price level argues that a government can cover such new debt issuance with seignorage (inflating the debt away) so that it is not necessary to raise taxes. I am leaving this as a comment and not an answer because I am not positive that this is entirely correct. Anyway - may be worth doing a bit of reading.
Comment: I think this is correct. Alas, inflating debt, means inflating the future debt service also...
Answer: You have to differenciate the debt that is already existing from the one that is going to be issued: whenever the US Treasury issue a bond lets say a 10% coupon 10yrs... for a 100USD. It's still going to pay 10USD to the holders during the 10yrs. When you see the yield going up or down it's usually on the secondary market. I say usually because sometimes the government issues bond with a floating rate which can be impacted by a rate increase.
As for the new debt that is going to be issued you are right to say that this going to be more costly !
Comment: yes, thank you. I am interested in the long-term consequences (10years+)
Answer:
For the Congressional Budget Office (01/2016), the answer is Yes:
"Because of rising interest rates and growing federal debt
held by the public, the government's interest payments
on that debt are projected to rise sharply over the next
10 years—more than tripling in nominal terms and more
than doubling as a percentage of GDP, from 1.4 percent
to 3.0 percent."
Will that make the debt unsustainable?
As projected revenue is growing slower than debt, "Rising interest costs would force reductions in government programs".

So, there could be either reductions, either change changes in tax laws.But the economic growth could also be stronger than projected.


IIR/FIR filtering before decimation?

Question: I am trying to design a low pass filter to apply before resampling the sensor's output at a lower rate, however I am not quite sure how to choose between the IIR and FIR fitlers. Matlab by default, filters the data with an 8th order Chebyshev Type I lowpass filter with
cutoff frequency .8*(Fs/2)/R, before resampling. but how can I choose the best low pass filter type ?
Answer: It depends on your specification really.
When you're decimating, some degree of aliasing will occur. Your tolerance of this aliasing, signal delay, and changes in the phase response of your input signal will determine the best approach to take.
A very long FIR might provide a very steep cutoff and linear phase performance (depending on design), but will delay the signal (group delay), may cause pre-ringing and can be computationally demanding. FIRs however also allow for elegant 'polyphase' implementations (which reduce computational demand by effectively breaking the filter down into smaller component filters).
IIRs on the other hand have the potential to have a shorter delay, at the expense of a non linear phase response and perhaps a more shallow roll-off. You could achieve a steep rolloff with an IIR but it would likely be quite high order and hence susceptible to coefficient quantisation and/or stability problems.
Comment: thank you very much! would you please give me a good reference that shows me how to find the tolerance of the aliasing and the specifications that you  mentioned?
Comment: It's very hard to suggest a particular reference. The specification is determined by your particular application, or the accuracy you hope to achieve from your sensor. You will then have to map these requirements against the characteristics of the filters.
You could start by working through the Decimation page on Wikipedia, and then investigating questions on this website such as the following:
http://dsp.stackexchange.com/questions/363/what-is-anti-alias-pre-filter-for-preventing-aliasing-after-under-sampling

IIR/FIR filtering before decimation?


Ubuntu DVR - what are the options?

Question: According to my research, the best solution to use ubuntu server as a DVR system would be ZoneMinder. is there any alternatives to zoneminder out there?
I'm not really happy it only has a web interface to control/view my cameras. And it doesn't have an option to record video stream non-stop. Am I missing something in its configuration?
And the thing I really disappointed, I cant find a way to control my PTZ camera with it.
what do manufacturers sell along with their standalone linux powered dvr systems?
Answer: As you mentioned the best solution is Zoneminder.
If you are using the 11.10 version of Ubuntu the 1.24.4 version of Zoneminder is there. along with the mythzoneminder to give a friendlier way to watch the videos.
For specific stuff about zoneminder and how it handles the devices I suggest:
Support Page - http://www.zoneminder.com/support
Forum - http://www.zoneminder.com/forums/

Ubuntu DVR - what are the options?


Design Patterns / Strategies For Custom Fields & Data Types

Question: Are there any common strategies or design patterns for designing applications that have either the ability to add custom fields to data objects, or for creating your own custom definition of objects. For example, I am thinking of products such as SalesForce, where you can have your own types of information,frameworks such as Expression Engine and the way it handles channels and channel field groups (Example), or How CMSes Like wordpress have the ability to add fields to custom post types.
Comment: You might be interested in reading some of the responses to [this question about designing a database for user-defined fields](http://stackoverflow.com/q/5106335/302677)
Comment: Of note: Oracle is going around suing the pants off of everyone that implements this in a particular (from what I understand, common) way. I'd take a peek at that as well.
Answer: Martin Fowler gave a nice description how to model dynamic properties (which is essentially what you are asking for) in his book "Analysis patterns". Most of the content is available online for free as PDF articles, the one you are looking for is this one:
http://martinfowler.com/apsupp/properties.pdf
Answer: The EAV model is normally used for unstructured schemas as you describe.
It suffers in performance and the ability to query such dynamic properties in an ad-hoc manner... and as such is considered by many to be an anti-pattern.
Other approaches are to use a dynamic format such as XML or Json to hold such properties, possibly with dedicated storage for each property to help with search.
Comment: I've also heard of people using document-oriented databases as an alternative to EAV, but have no personal experiences with such an approach.
Comment: @FrustratedWithFormsDesigner - That's what I was hinting at, but as yourself, no personal experience.
Answer: In addtion to the EAV table that @Oded describes, people use nosql datbase for this type of information. Remember there is no reason why your application can't use a relational database for the parts that make sense with the relational model and a nosql database for the information that doesn't.
A third possibility is to add several columns for the customer-added fields (Customerfield1, customerfield2, etc) and then have the customer define what they mean. This only works for the number of customer comnfiguarble fields you add though, so it is fine if you only expect they will need two or three but won't work at all if you will need hundreds.
Answer: You wouldn't have the first application that had a table with: UDF1, UDF2, UDF3... The other suggestions (EVA or NoSQL) are much better.
Depending on the RDBMS (SQL Server offers this), you could break out of normalization and have a field that holds the data in an XML format or just plain text. You'll have to rely on code to manage this.


What does the Quran say about homosexuality?

Question: Does the Quran explicitly prohibit homosexuality? Why? Please cite specific verses which say something about homosexuality.
Comment: As i understand it, later saying of the last prophet invalidate older ones that may condemn homosexuality, like [Leviticus 18:22](http://bible.cc/leviticus/18-22.htm), and [his Last Sermon](http://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/3032/is-prophet-muhammads-last-sermon-an-accurate-translation/3036#3036) preaches equality for everyone.
Comment: Please do consider looking about the narrowed topic of **lesbians [here](http://islam.stackexchange.com/q/29705/9123).**
Answer: Homosexual acts are strictly forbidden in Islam. Although it has mainly been focused around men, women homosexuals are not that strongly discussed. This could be that in adultery, the focus is mainly on penetration.
In the holy Quran, the people of Prophet Lut have been discussed often. These were the people who heavily dowelled in homosexuality (male). Quran discusses them in a number of verses.

And [We had sent] Lot when he said to his people, "Do you commit such
  immorality as no one has preceded you with from among the
  worlds?(80)Indeed, you approach men with desire, instead of women.
  Rather, you are a transgressing people."(81) Al-Araf 80-81

Ash-Shura 25:165-166

Do you approach males among the worlds(165).And leave what your Lord
  has created for you as mates? But you are a people
  transgressing."(166)

Al-Naml 27:55

Do you indeed approach men with desire instead of women? Rather, you
  are a people behaving ignorantly."

Quran 4:16

And the two who commit it among you, dishonor them both. But if they
  repent and correct themselves, leave them alone. Indeed, Allah is ever
  Accepting of repentance and Merciful.

The above verses clearly say sodomy is not allowed in Islam and is punishable. But it is somewhat soft. If you look at hadiths, homosexuality is rebuked in even stronger words.

This sin, the impact of which makes one's skin crawl, which words
  cannot describe, is evidence of perverted instincts, total collapse of
  shame and honor, and extreme filthiness of character and soul… The
  heavens, the Earth and the mountains tremble from the impact of this
  sin. The angels shudder as they anticipate the punishment of Allah to
  descend upon the people who commit this indescribable sin.

This strong rebuke merely comes from the fact that our society has always condemned sodomy, esp male and those who use their back end.
What is left out?
Lesbian sex has been completely left out as if does not exist. Female homosexuality is very real just like male. Female homosexuals have zero interest in men and ideally they would not want to marry (a man). Why were they left out? The verdict seems to be incomplete and merely something that came from society not from Allah.
One hadith that I cannot find sources for is something like this (note these are my words) :
If two men commit sodomy, the one who is in the receiving end gets death penalty while the other gets 100 lashes.
This clearly makes the case for penetration. The man who penetrated clearly was not looked down upon. He was given a regular punishment for adultery, the receiving guy was given the punishment for being gay. This is what the society thought of it at the time.
While I am not entirely sure but if two gays fondle each other, that may include kissing and other body parts, the punishment might be less severe.
Punishment
Almost all sahabas agreed on severe punishments for sodomy. Some agree that they should be burned and stoned, other said they should be thrown from height and then stoned, some said they should just be stoned, but most agreed, their punishment would be death.
A point to consider
The punishment for sodomy can only be enforced if there are two witnesses. Usually they are very hard to produce. By witness most people agree, they must have seen the act with their own eyes including the penetration. This could be impossible to produce as some people argue. I will leave that out of the answer as it is off topic here.
Comment: So the Quran only says "dishonor" them, and certainly doesn't say anything about physically abusing them for having sex with one another.
Comment: "This sin, the impact of which makes one's skin crawl, which words cannot describe, is evidence of perverted instincts, total collapse of shame and honor, and extreme filthiness of character and soul… The heavens, the Earth and the mountains tremble from the impact of this sin. The angels shudder as they anticipate the punishment of Allah to descend upon the people who commit this indescribable sin." - This does not seem to be either a hadith, nor from the Quran.
Comment: +1 I will just add also that Prophet Lot and his story is also interpreted as Sodom and Gomorrah http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sodom_and_Gomorrah
Comment: @LarryHarson no sure what you mean.
Comment: @muslim1 Are you seriously unable to distinguish between *dishonour* and *execute*? The Quran makes it clear that homosexuality is a **sin**, but there's no mandate for Muslims to intervene, so it is not a **crime**. It's only the hadith that assert that being gay is criminal. The Quran does not. In fact, I can not find a single case where the Quran gives Muslims any mandate to aggress. We are commanded to defend the innocent from aggression and oppression. There's no mandate to initiate conflict with people for their sins.
Comment: @CarlSmith Qur'an does not say homosexuality (being attracted to the people of same sex) is a sin! The punishment is for sodomy only.
Comment: That's just being pedantic.
Comment: Why should someone be punished for an innate matter? Homosexuality is genetical.
Comment: @CarlSmith Read the Qur'an, Allah destroyed the entire nation of Lut for this crime of homosexuality. This is good evidence the Hadith for killing the Homosexual is correct, as Allah did the same and the Prophet commanded the same.
Comment: @Hashim - Nonetheless, the Quran does not command Muslims to intervene (at all). There is no mandate for that. Asserting that we should execute gay men because Allah once destroyed a town that committed many sins, including open homosexuality, is a massive leap. You need more than a tenuous inference from scripture before you start executing people.
Answer: Asalam wa alaikum

وَلُوطًا إِذۡ قَالَ لِقَوۡمِهِۦۤ أَتَأۡتُونَ ٱلۡفَـٰحِشَةَ مَا سَبَقَكُم بِہَا مِنۡ أَحَدٍ۬ مِّنَ ٱلۡعَـٰلَمِينَ (٨٠) إِنَّڪُمۡ لَتَأۡتُونَ ٱلرِّجَالَ شَہۡوَةً۬ مِّن دُونِ ٱلنِّسَآءِ‌ۚ بَلۡ أَنتُمۡ قَوۡمٌ۬ مُّسۡرِفُونَ (٨١)

Translation (interpretation of meaning):

We also (sent) Lut: he said to his people: "Do ye commit lewdness such as no people in creation (ever) committed before you? (80) "For ye practise your lusts on men in
preference to women: ye are indeed a people transgressing beyond bounds." (81)

The Prophet (peace and blessings be upon him) said:

مَنْ وَجَدْتُمُوهُ يَعْمَلُ عَمَلَ قَوْمِ لُوطٍ فَاقْتُلُوا الْفَاعِلَ
وَالْمَفْعُولَ بِهِ
Whomever you find doing the actions of the people of Lut then kill the
one doing it, and the one it is done to
Attirmidhi
Comment: Wow, That answer in the link has the worst english, but one of the best explanation I have read about this topic.  +1.
Comment: Include thafseer's from great scholors in stead of just quoting from quran
Comment: `-1` The question is specifically asking what *the Quran* says. Your answer uses hadith to promote killing gay people, when the Quran does not tell people to do that.
Answer:
The holy Quran forbids having sex with someone other than your spouse.
There is a allowed list of female to whom a man can marry. Similarly there is a list for Girls.

So it is clear that a man can marry women and an woman can marry a man.
Without marriage sex is haram. So it is clear that homosexuality is forbidden in Islam.
Comment: *The holy Quran forbids having sex with someone other than your spouse.*
Not quite. You can also have sex with slaves, see http://islam.stackexchange.com/questions/649/are-muslim-men-allowed-to-take-sex-slaves . I suppose they must be female, too.
Comment: Please add more sources and also maybe a link to these "lists" as it can prove to be more helpful answer.
Comment: @Lev, please read the answer there first.
Comment: Obviously I had read it before pasting the link.


Did Naruto and Sasuke receive the Sage of Six Path's chakra or Asura's and Indra's chakra?

Question: So Naruto already has Asura's chakra, and Sasuke has Indra's chakra. Did the Sage of Six Paths give them his own chakra? Or did he give Indra's chakra to Naruto and Asura's chakra to Sasuke which fused together to make his own?
Answer: The Wiki only states that Hagoromo gave Naruto Six Paths Yang Power and gave Sasuke Six Paths Yin Power. That's not the chakra specifically, but rather a technique. Although there was some chakra transference involved.
Hamura, Hagoromo's brother, only had Six Paths Yin Power and Hagoromo's children didn't have either.
Indra had Yin Release and Asura had Yang release but they didn't have anything like the power given by Hagoromo to Naruto and Sasuke. I know you didn't claim that Asura and Indra had these powers but I'm just stating that these two powers Naruto and Sasuke received aren't in the same context as their reincarnated power. Hagoromo did give these powers to them because they are Asura and Indra reincarnated but the power didn't develop in them because of this, it was given to them whole by Hagoromo.
The "fusing" of chakra you mentioned was only demonstrated in Sasuke's left EMS turning into a Rinnegan, but I'm not sure if was blending of chakra or simply because he received half Hagoromo's power, so he gets half of his eyes turned into Rinnegan. This last part is highly speculative, though.
Answer: Yes and no they had the power hagoramo otsutsuki(sage of six paths)just helped them tap into it.they had the power because hashirama senju and madara uchiha were reincarnation of idura and ashura and naruto and sauske are hashirama and madaras descendants that happend to unlock it so in a way the sage and idura and ashuras chakra played some part
Answer: The way I understood the Six Paths powers is that Hagoromo stirred up Indra and Ashura's chakra's and brought them to the forefront, strengthening the powers Naruto and Sasuke already had (evidenced by Sasuke's improved Susanoo that could be summoned in an instant, no stage-by-stage advancement needed, and Naruto's improved-to-ridiculous physical strength).
Then he gave them both the full powers Indra and Ashura had the potential for, Six Path Sage Mode for Naruto and the unique Rinnegan of Sasuke, like he gave Ashura the SPSM previously because it was what he had the capacity for but he didn't do the same for Indra, which was what caused the rift between them.
Then finally on top of that, Hagoromo gave them the Yin and Yang seals and all the linked abilities (like Naruto's instant healing power and the Rikudo: Chibaku Tensei seal).
That's my understanding of it.
Answer: The answer to your question is "yes."
The fact remains that, as the sage said, both Asura's and Indra's chakras were gifted to them by the sage. I'm not sure which episode this was, but right before the final confrontation between Naruto and Sasuke, Hangomoro states something along the lines of "originally I gave one (Asura) all the power and they had conflict. This time I gave both of them equal power, and there is still conflict," pleading for Naruto to finally resolve the confrontation between the reincarnations of the brothers.
Comment: and then six paths gave Naruto a bit of Indra's chakra to fuse with his own and give him the sage's truth seeking balls and levitation and he gave Sasuke a bit of Ashura's chakra to fuse with his own to give him the sage's eyes(rinnegan)..right?
Comment: so Naruto and Sasuke got the chakra of the other 2 halves?
Comment: If you mean the other two halves as in Asura and Indra, then yes, they got a variation of that chakra, but it was suited specifically for them. Naruto got a little chakra from all of the bijuu (controlling the bijuu was a specialty of the Senju clan who decended from Asura), and Sasuke was granted the advanced mangekyo sharingan (variation of the sharingan which was descended from Indra).


IDA Debug DLL with non exported function

Question: I am trying to debug a dll by IDA but it have no exported functions so I can not use rundll32.exe to debug it. How can i do that?
Thanks so much./
Comment: Just read the assembly...? /// What are you trying to do? It's a DLL so you can't run it directly anyway.
Comment: If you got an answer you may want to consider posting a solution or accepting one of the posted answers.
Answer: I believe you can still execute rundll32.exe without an exported function by just specifying rundll32.exe <dllpath>, (don't forget the comma). If I'm not mistaken this will load the DLL and execute the entry point.
Comment: I guess that's because there's an access violation within the executable.
Comment: Thanks for your answer. I tried before but a problem has occurred: "The instruction at 0x75DAEA5C referenced memory at 0xC. the memory could not be read -> 0000000C (exc.code c0000005, tid 1444)"
Do you know why?
Answer: You can use regsvr32.exe. It will load the DLL (run the entry point) and then silently fail because there is no DllRegisterServer export.
Comment: Nice. I will try
Answer: Implement the C application which loads your library, i.e. calls LoadLibrary().


What is the middle way?

Question: When there is reduced  thinking in a one door out of five sense doors ,which means if you have seen a pleasant thing and if no thoughts arise regarding them,Whether that apply to the other doors as well?what is that samadhi?in that case what is the middle way of it?
Answer: If I understand correctly what you are talking about... You are talking about the process of grasping a sign(mark) at one of the sense doors, and then automatically interpreting it into an desirable/undesirable object ==> harboring corresponding desire/aversion attitude ==> engaging in purposeful action towards that object ==> feeding craving, confusion, and illusion of self.
When we are able to catch ourselves at the moment when the sign(mark) is interpreted into an object of desire (or aversion), and stop that automatic reaction, we begin to get free from impulsive behavior -- and that eventually leads to freedom from confusion and the illusion of self.
Having learned to catch ourselves at that moment when automatic interpretation of sign happens on one sensory modality (=door), we can then more easily (NOT) do the same on all the other sensory modalities.
From this perspective, the Middle Way can be explained as not taking a stand on any single sign - and being sort of "in between" (or "balanced") with regard to all signs (as well as the signless).
Is this what you are asking about or not?

What is the middle way?


Gmail not automatically syncing

Question: Samsung A40 OneUi 1.1
Connected to wifi
After an email arrives to inbox, the phone (screen turned off) will not register this and no notification is given. After waking up it will sometimes sync but not always, after opening Gmail app it will usually sync but not always. Waiting for dozens of minutes and still nothing.
In such case, when I go to Account > (account) > syncing then Gmail syncing is enabled, but "last synced" can be e.g. 20+ minutes old.
Clicking to sync icon manually there or by pulling down in Gmail app it would sync successfully. I've read that the info about new mails is supposed to be pushed to the device so not sure why syncing is necessary actually, but it works like that...
2 Gmail accounts are bound to the device, but both have the same behavior
I tried (when account-related then was done for both accounts)
- Re-enabling syncing of Gmail
- Global auto sync is enabled
- Mobile data background usage is allowed (it's on wifi, but ... just to be sure)
- Wifi works correctly
- Checked battery settings - changed global to optimized mode (which is the most performance-focused and least battery optimization-focused mode available despite the name)
- Gmail is not set to be forced to sleep
- Gmail working in background is not disabled
- Checked memory-related settings, not seeing anything off
- Syncing is enabled within Gmail app itself > account settings.
- Notifications within Gmail app's own settings screen are enabled
- All notification options are enabled for Gmail app in the system screen for notification settings of the app
- No optimization 3rd party app etc. is running there
- Restart didn't help
Any idea how to fix this? Thank you
Answer: Had the same issue. I have also checked everything twice and this is how I have finally fixed it. I went in the Settings -> Apps -> gmail -> Storage -> Clear Data, then restarted my phone.

Gmail not automatically syncing


Resistance to Antiseptics

Question: I know that bacteria can become resistant to antibiotics.
Why do antiseptics like alcohols, PVP-I, still work on the strains of bacteria we have today? Shouldn't some bacteria have evolved to be resistant to them? I only hear about antibiotic resistance, so my assumption was that antiseptic resistance isn't a thing that happens.
What fundamentally differentiates antibiotics and antiseptics so that antiseptics are not resistance-prone?
Answer: For some classes of antiseptics the effect is more simple chemistry or even physics than biochemical toxicity. Ethanol will just denature proteins and dissolve the membrane, and the used concentration of ethanol is so high that no amount of efflux pumps is going to save the bacterium. Some other compounds work in a similar brute force way: QACs will break the membranes, hydrogen peroxide will just oxidize everything. For iodine (like in PVP-1) the mechanism is not really known, but probably it also just reacts with all kinds of things in/on the bacterial cell and kill them.
Antiseptic resistance could happen for some other antiseptics (or low concentrations of the compounds mentioned above). For some antibiotics, resistance is caused by the expression of efflux pumps that just pump out enough antibiotics so the cell survives. Bacteria could do the same for these antiseptics. The reason why it's not that much of an issue is that the application is rather different. Antibiotics are for inside use, antiseptics for topical use, you cannot just flood your whole body with 70% ethanol to kill all bacteria, but for a wound / something dirty this is just fine. This makes it much easier to avoid creating resistance.
Comment: Please define and link to QACs. I know what they are, but many others will not, as it is not a common abbreviation, except possibly to chemists and certain microbiologists, as well as those who work in manufacturing. Overall, your post would benefit by several additional citations supporting your claims.
Comment: However, even for brute force mechanisms, there is a huge spectrum of concentrations and conditions in which we apply alcohol, bleach... That is what confuses me. What is the threshold number of ethanol molecules a bacterium's membrane could stand? Aren't a temperature that kills a whole population and other that only kills one individual appart just by a continuous gradient?
Answer: Of course bacteria can evolve resistance against antiseptics. Usually antiseptics inflict direct damage to the cell rather than interfering in some biochemical pathway. Also, antiseptics are used in very high concentrations which usually leads to complete elimination of the microbes. Moreover, different antiseptic/disinfectant agents have different toxicity to different organisms; for example anaerobic bacteria are more sensitive to oxidizing agents like hydrogen peroxide and potassium permanganate.
There are bacteria (Deinococcus radiodurans) and fungi that are even tolerant to ionizing radiation like gamma rays.
There are other extremophiles too which thrive in extreme physical/chemical environments (extreme heat/pH/salinity/pressure etc).
For more information on antibiotics vs antiseptics see this post: Why is triclosan not considered an antibiotic?

Resistance to Antiseptics


Need Captcha Verification before accessing a hyperlink?

Question: I installed a plugin (Delete My Account) which lets me place a hyperlink anywhere inside an article or module, which when clicked, deletes the account of the registered user from the front-end. What i want is to trigger a captcha verification pop-up box (or something like that) whenever that hyperlink is clicked & the user should only be able to access that hyperlink when he inputs the captcha verification correctly. Is there a way out?
Comment: You can either create a plugin which will trigger the event, or you can dive into the module code and place the captcha there. Might be an idea to first contact the developer and see if they have any future plans for captcha integration
Comment: is there a plugin you know which can do the trick for me. BTW can i make a captcha verification for users to access any specific page. I mean, i can place the account deleting link on one page which should only be accessible by inputing the captcha code correctly on some other page?
Comment: There are no plugins that I personally know of that can do as you are requesting. Someone else on JSE might know of one. I suppose if you go into the module code, you can add a captcha section within the modal so that when submitting the form, it will only delete the account if the captcha answer is correct. Perhaps start doing something along these lines and edit your question with the code you've tried and where exactly you're struggling :)
Answer: Showing re-captcha before deleting user's account will be a complex task.
If you can customize the code, here is an suggestion, which can be fruitful for you.

An extra text box can be displayed in which user can fill the text string. This value can be any mathematics calculation or any pattern of string. You need to store the expected value in session so that you can verify it later.
You can verify that text when user confirm the request of deleting his account. But you need to change the code of Javascript to send the value of text box.

Hope it helps you.


Why did the devil tempt Eve first?

Question: Why did the devil go after Eve and not Adam?
Was it because Eve was weaker than Adam?
Why didn't the devil tempt Adam first?
Answer: It must be noted that the Bible never explicitly answers this question, so our answer has to come from related observations we make from the text.  However, we must admit that these observations are not explicitly taught from the Scriptures, so we must not be emphatic where the Scriptures are not.  It is important, then, to identify what it is that we do know and what it is that we do not know.
We do know that the prohibition from eating the fruit of the tree was directly given to Adam by God prior to the creation of Eve.

15 The LORD God took the man and put him in the garden of Eden to work
  it and keep it. 16 And the LORD God commanded the man, saying, "You
  may surely eat of every tree of the garden, 17 but of the tree of
  the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day
  that you eat of it you shall surely die." 18 Then the LORD God
  said, "It is not good that the man should be alone; I will make him a
  helper fit for[e] him."  Genesis 2:15-18 ESV

The Bible never indicates how Eve learned about the command.  We do not know whether God repeated the command to her after He created her or whether Adam passed it on to her.  We do know that she seems to be aware of the command during the temptation, although her statement of it differs from that which was given to Adam--Eve adds the part about not touching it.  She also fails to call the Tree of the Knowledge of Good and Evil by its name, referring to it simply as the tree in the middle of the garden.
So, perhaps Eve received the command secondhand and wasn't as certain about it as Adam was.  Again, we don't know for sure, but this is at least a possibility.  If so, then it is reasonable to assume that Satan saw Eve as the one more susceptible to deception.
We do know that by deceiving Eve, though, that Satan got two for one.  He had to deceive Eve, but Adam willingly followed her into sin, despite not being deceived.  Eve seems to not have understood what she was doing, but it seems that Adam actually did--and did it anyway.

"and Adam was not deceived, but the woman was deceived and became a
  transgressor."  1 Timothy 2:14 ESV

If Adam had been the first to sin, we do not know if Eve would have followed.  Perhaps so.  We do know, however, that Adam did follow Eve into sin.
It could be suggested that Eve's weakness was uncertainty, while Adam's weakness was Eve.
So, again, we don't know for sure, but we can make some observations about the text and draw some possible explanations to answer this question.
Comment: This makes some sense, but I think you're missing a very important observation that we do know from the text and that is that when Eve was tempted Adam was right there with here "at her side". Arguably he failed his duty -- missed his mark -- before ever he bit into that fruit in not stepping in to protect his wife. Whatever Eve knew or didn't know about the command isn't that important considering that Adam was witness to the whole thing and could have stepped in to clear things up.
Comment: @Caleb I completely agree... the silence of Adam was deafening.  The question specifically dealt with why the devil tempted Eve first, though, and I think this addresses that.  I'm not sure how Adam being with Eve ought to require this answer to be changed.
Answer: (assuming a literal Genesis interpretation) Genesis gives (to the best of my knowledge) no mention of a reason here. In the lack of further supporting scripture, "why not?" is probably as good a reason as any. Since no scriptural basis exists, one could just put it down to convenience: she was nearby and alone available.
Comment: The Bible doesn't even say she was alone.  I read recently in [Theology of the Body for beginners](http://www.amazon.com/Theology-Body-Beginners-Christopher-West/dp/1932645349) there's a good reason to think that Adam was just standing there letting her get tempted.
Comment: Eve was not alone.  I also believe that Gen 3:6 implies that the husband was standing there the whole time letting Eve sin. "So when the woman saw that the tree was good for food, and that it was a delight to the eyes, and that the tree was to be desired to make one wise, she took of its fruit and ate, and she also gave some to her husband who was with her, and he ate."
Comment: But 'nearby' is a good point, what on earth was she doing there ogling the tree that would be her undoing?
Comment: @Peter changed wording ever to slightly
Answer: The reason for Eve being tempted very likely has little to do with her gender. She was admiring the tree and the snake (Satan) tempted her. Non-christian apocryphal texts (there is a link here) often paint Eve as weak against temptation, but these documents are not accepted as canon by any of the major christian denominations.
Answer: Remember that Eve was created as a helper to Adam and created from Adam. As a being created from Adam, Eve would have, in a sense, been further removed from God.
Many ancient civilizations - including the one(s) to which the book of Genesis was written* - had the concept of emanations which basically subscribe to the idea that created things are subject to, and hence weaker than, the thing from which they are created.  Adam being directly created by God would have been "closer" to God than Eve, and hence a "harder" target.
Note this isn't a physical, spiritual, or even a maturity thing. Its totally foreign to modern ears - its just the idea that Adam would have been "the firstborn of creation" and Eve wasn't. You don't attack the prince, you attack the prince's helper, and hope to get to the prince, and eventually the king.
...
*I'm a little bit concerned about opening a can of worms here.  Did the Holy Spirit dictate the Scripture or was it a product of the cultures in which it was written?  I actively don't want to open that can of worms.  What I can say is this - the Jewish cultures to whom the Word was first given (whether that would have been as they were fleeing the Egyptians, when they were in the Kingdom, or as part of the Babylonian exile) all would have understood / subscribed to this concept.
I also get a little bit concerned, because while this concept is seen throughout Scripture, it is a mostly Helenistic idea, incorporated into the thinking of those who received the Word.  If the writers of Scripture are simply human, then one would say this was simply part of the background of the writer. If the Holy Spirit is the sole writer of the Word, you could argue, hermeneutically, that he was simply conveying the information in ways that the people would have understood, or it simply could have been that's just the way it was.
I'm trying to stay objective and give an answer that is consistent with as many of these strains of thought as possible.
**N.B.  The term 'logos' actually comes from this idea of an emanation - the Logos is the Word that was directly from God, was with God, and ultimately was God.
Comment: Unless the Bible or some form of Christianity also has this concept of emanations, it doesn't sound like a very relevant concept here--unless you're supporting a figurative interpretation of Genesis, in which ancient, non-Christian religions may have influenced the formation of the myth.
Comment: Its funny - I get into more trouble trying to be fair to the poeple with whom I disagree then for my own stances :)
Comment: @AffableGeek tell me about it ;p
Comment: Christianity, per [Philo of Alexandria](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Philo), also evidences the concept.  More importantly, in the setting in which Genesis was written, this would have been part of the background philosophy.  I should have been more explicit about that, and will do...
Comment: Affable and @Marc: I've noticed the same thing in life but it's particularly evident on this site. Sometimes it's way more productive and even peaceful to just flat out disagree! It's an art I think many Western cultures have begun to loose.
Answer: I am going to give an answer from a scripture-based Catholic point of view. The devil had no intention of making Adam fall. His full aim was to deceive Eve and Eve alone. This is the reason why Bible says that "Adam was not the one deceived; it was the woman who was deceived and became a sinner."1 Timothy 2:14
In revelation we know that all angelic beings' minds (including devil's) was illuminated by God with the plan of salvation, that God will be born of a woman: The woman will bring forth a child, who was to rule all nations with a rod of iron: and her child was caught up unto God, and to his throne.Rev 12:5 This is clear that a human being who is less than angelic beings, will be brought to higher glory than them. This human was to be brought forth by the woman. And the devil had a problem with this.
He knew that the woman was the central figure to this plan, and bringing down the woman will spoil the entire plan. The vision clearly states that the dragon was chasing the woman to kill her, seek his revenge and spoil God's plan. Rev 12:13-16 narrates his attempt. This vision happened before the creation of the material world.
After the creation of the material world, the Devil acted as soon as he saw a creature (Eve) who looked like in the vision he had before the fall, and decided to tempt her. The problem is he chose the wrong woman. Also note that the woman in the vision (before the fall) was timid and fearful. She runs for her life and earth has to protect her. The execution of devil's plan had cost the whole of humanity, not just the woman. So God cursed the devil/snake differently than He did with Adam and Eve. He foretells the victory of the woman and her seed and that they both will hate him. This shows that the woman will no longer be timid, but victorious.
Remember the war in heaven is not between God and the devil, but rather between creatures.
This is why Catholics believe that of all creatures Mary is the one Satan hates the most. His hate for all other creatures put together will not be equal to the amount of his hatred of Mary. Because when he sees Mary, he sees his loss and his doom.
Comment: Indeed, from a Catholic point of view Eve is The Woman, literally, so this makes sense.

Why did the devil tempt Eve first?