Does the endianness used with an encryption algorithm affect its security?

Question: I'm implementing the AES block cipher, which reads/writes data in 16 byte blocks. The implementation I'm working with usually read data in the little endian format. But in my platform the endianness I'm using is "network order" big endian. Can I use BE for the encryption algorithm? Does the endianness usually change the way the algorithm works? Does it matter at all? I assumed it does not, since it could have simply been different data that you are reading.
Answer: Firstly, let's make sure we get endianness:
<code>// needs a C99 compiler like gcc. Will work with msvc as well.
#include <stdint.h>
#include <stdio.h>

union endian_test
{
    struct
    {
        uint8_t a;
        uint8_t b;
        uint8_t c;
        uint8_t d;
    };
    uint32_t x;
};

int main(int argc, char** argv)
{
    union endian_test e;
    e.x = 0xAABBCCDD;
    printf("%x %x %x %x", e.a, e.b, e.c, e.d);
}
</code>
If your system is little endian, you'll get DD CC BB AA as the output and big endian will give you the opposite. All we're doing here is allowing the processor the opportunity to represent an integer in whatever endianness it uses, then using  a little C trick to output the bytes in the order they are represented in memory.
AES works on 128-bit blocks, which is kind of convenient, really, since if you multiply all the field sizes in that union by four, you'd get an AES input block.
So now your question boils down to:

If I were to reverse the order of the input of my block, would that create a security problem?

Well, that depends on the output. Let's assume something naive, like reversing the order of the input produces a reversed ciphertext, so if the input is AABBCCDD that encrypts to 12345678 and DDCCBBAA encrypts to 78563412.
This is a problem for a certain class of cryptographic vulnerability called CCA2, or a chosen adaptive ciphertext attack. As a result of the fact that the ciphertext is malleable you can then request various decryption operations be performed and whilst you do not know the plaintext, you would be able to deduce something about it. You might like to read a little on ciphertext indistinguishability.
As such, a cryptographic scheme should not be affected by endianness. If it is, or is malleable, it has some security concerns which may need to be addressed (and are, in some implementations, for example, by not providing a decryption oracle).
Answer: The AES is defined as operating on 16-byte blocks. Such a block is an ordered sequence of bytes: there is a first byte, a second byte, and so on, until the sixteenth byte. We often say that the first byte is leftmost and the last byte rightmost because we are westerners who use a latin alphabet and write left-to-right, and we just blindly and implicitly assume that people who write right-to-left are just wrong.
Endianness is about interpreting a sequence of bytes as an integer value; for instance, a sequence of four bytes, interpreted as an integer between 0 and 4294967295. To do such an interpretation, we decide than one of the bytes is for the units (we multiply its numerical value by 1), another is to be multiplied by 256, another by 65536 (which is 256*256), and yet another by 16777216 (i.e. 256*256*256). Little-endian convention is when the byte for units comes first, followed by the byte of value 256, then the byte of value 65536, and finally the byte of value 16777216. Big-endian convention is when the bytes are in the opposite order.
Within AES, there is no interpretation of sequences of bytes into larger integers, so endianness does not apply. However, even for algorithms which do involve interpretation of byte sequences into integers, the algorithm specification defines the endianness to use. It is then up to the implementation to follow that defined convention, whether it matches what the CPU does best or not. For instance, in the hash function MD5, the input message (a sequence of bytes), after padding, is split into 64-byte blocks, and each block is split into 16 4-byte sequences, and each sequence is interpreted as an integer with little-endian convention. MD5 is MD5; it is deterministic and its output for a given input file should not depend on whether the computer uses a x86, ARM, PowerPC or Sparc CPU. Therefore, implementations which run on big-endian CPU must include the necessary byte-swapping steps to do the computation correctly.
Three additional points:

The importance of endianness for performance is overrated. Even for MD5, which is very fast (on my computer, it processes more than 400 megabytes per second), the byteswap for big-endian CPU implies an overhead of no more than 15%. This is why the usual SHA-1 / SHA-256 hash functions can use big-endian convention (that's how they were defined), contrary to what a basic PC does natively, and it still not a big issue.
If your C code must be made aware of endianness, then it does things wrong. C code which is not endian neutral is C code which accesses the same memory objects as both bunches of bytes and integers. Such code breaks strict aliasing rules, which means that the code may cease to operate properly when compiled with a different compiler version or with different compiler options. This is sloppy programming.
Besides little-endian and big-endian, other conventions have existed, often called mixed-endian. These have mostly disappeared. However, big-endian and little-endian architectures are still thriving, therefore, for portability alone, code should be endian neutral.
Answer: AES works on byte sequences.  The first thing you should do is convert the bytes to the canonical byte order, then you can do the decryption.  Cryptography should be done in the application, with the application data.  In other words, you should correct for byte order at a lower layer of abstraction than the crypto.


Transmission of sampled signal

Question: A signal sampled in time domain has replicas of its spectrum in frequency domain.
This implies that to transmit a sampled signal we need ifinite bandwidth.How is this possible?
Answer: You are right. If you really want to send the sampled signal $$x_s(t) = {\delta}_{T_s}(t) x_c(t) = ( \sum_k \delta (t- k T_s) ) x_c(t) = \sum_k x_c(k T_s) \delta (t-k T_s)$$ then this weighted impulse train constitudes an infinite amount of (shifted replicas of base period) bandwidth in frequency domain.
Therefore this signal is not transmitted anywhere... Indeed the impulse sampling cannot be realized in practice either. It's just a mathematical model which provides a quantitative description of the conversion process from a continuous time-signal into a discrete-time sequence whose samples have values equal to the continuous-time signal at those sampling impulse instants.
The sampling process is used as the initial stage of conversion from continuous to discrete time domains and it's the sequence of those samples which are processed later on for whatever purpose you have.
Answer: One normally doesn't send sampled signals, but instead sends arrays or vectors of numbers or values representing the sampled signal.  Thus, the required information bandwidth is determined by the number of bits per sample and the sample rate.
Answer: This link may be helpful for understanding how a sampled signal is reconstructed:
sampling theorem
Answer: The idealization is that by sampling you get a signal that can change its value instantly (zero between samples, non-zero at sample points), the theory says that implies an infinite bandwidth. So, yes, in the analog domain, ideally, a perfect sampled signal has infinite bandwidth.
However, the process of keeping the samples and discard all the zeros between samples (as many as there are in $|\mathbb{R}| - f_{sampling} \cdot t = \infty$) has the effect of folding the spectrum such that each replica falls over the centered one. This way, in the digital domain, you only have available one replica at the origin.
Now, when going back from digital to analog, one doesn't  actually fill in with zeros in between the samples (which would lead to infinite bandwidth), but with some kind of interpolation that smooths the time signal changes. This smooth interpolation lower the needed bandwidth. The ideal case is to output a shifted scaled $sinc(t - nT)$ function at each output sample, since the signal bandwidth will be that of the interpolation function and since the bandwidth of a $sinc(t)$ is bounded, the output bandwidth is bounded.
In practical implementations, however, $sinc(t)$ is not time-bounded, so a common method is to use a constant pulse of sampling interval duration, which is not bounded in frequency (it is a $sinc(\omega)$), but goes to zero very fast as it approach $-\infty$ or $+\infty$, then discard its tails (usually something in the transmission path attenuates these tails) which are negligible. This way, you only have one replica at the origin in the analog domain, with infinite lenght tails which are lost. Anyhow, lost energy is very low.

Transmission of sampled signal


How does the fact that the Father is the "only true God" (Θεός) at J 17:3 in a convertible proposition affect the sense in which Jesus is θεός?

Question: How does the fact that the Father is the "only true God" (Θεός) at J 17:3 in a convertible proposition affect the sense in which Jesus is θεός?
Comment: Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been [moved to chat](https://chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/107243/discussion-on-question-by-thomas-pearne-how-does-the-fact-that-the-father-is-the).
Answer: Summary
In what way does the convertible proposition between σέ and τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν affect the subset proposition1 between ὁ λόγος and θεὸς? Here are the two passages:

...and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. (John 1:1) [NIV except as noted]
...καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος
1..."Father, the hour has come. Glorify your Son, that your Son may glorify you. 2 For you granted him authority over all people that he might give eternal life to all those you have given him. 3 Now this is eternal life: that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent. (John 17)
1... πάτερ ἐλήλυθεν ἡ ὥρα δόξασόν σου τὸν υἱόν ἵνα ὁ υἱὸς δοξάσῃ σέ 2 καθὼς ἔδωκας αὐτῷ ἐξουσίαν πάσης σαρκός ἵνα πᾶν ὃ δέδωκας αὐτῷ δώσῃ αὐτοῖς ζωὴν αἰώνιον 3 αὕτη δέ ἐστιν ἡ αἰώνιος ζωή ἵνα γινώσκωσιν σὲ τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν καὶ ὃν ἀπέστειλας Ἰησοῦν Χριστόν

Obviously both σέ (17:1, 3) and σου (17:1) refer to "Father," (the lack of the article implies "My/His" not "the") whose relationship in the passage connects with τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν:
(My/His) πάτερ (17:1) <---> σέ (17:3) <---> τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν

Contrasting John 1:1 and 17:3 is an argument used by Jehovah Witnesses against the deity of the Word.2 It is meant to show the Word is not God because, as Daniel Wallace states, the best understanding of the subset proposition in John 1:1 is that is the point the writer intends:

John 1:1 ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος
  The Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Again, a subset proposition is envisioned here. The λόγος belongs to the larger category known as θεὸς. The force of this construction is most likely to emphasize the nature of the Word, not his identity. That is to say the Word is true deity, but he is not the same person as the θεὸς mentioned earlier in the verse.3

Ignoring the incongruity of devising a literary work which begins with a subset proposition introducing The Word in a way that can be understood as God (versus simply saying "the Word was not God" if that was the writer's point in 17:3) and then using a convertible proposition to undo the confusion from the beginning, interpreting a text involves more than grammar:

Obviously the interpretation of this text cannot be solved on the basis of grammar alone..."4

In John 17:3, Jesus has placed πάτερ and τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν within the framework of his prayer which is speaking about eternal life. Interpretation must begin with that in mind. Grammar cannot strip the passage of its purpose in order to posit a definition of either πάτερ or τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν. Rather, to answer in what sense Jesus is God, the primary purpose, eternal life must guide interpretation:

With regard to eternal life, what is the temporal condition created by the particle δέ which separates πάτερ and τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν
The meaning created by adding the adjective μόνον to the correct monotheistic  description of the true God, τὸν ἀληθινὸν θεὸν
Regardless of the convertible proposition, the text clearly states eternal life requires both Father and Jesus Christ, who was sent

Obviously for anyone who does not accept a tripartite Godhead, μόνον is unnecessary and so is nowhere else used to describe the "the true God" (cf. 1 John 5:20; 2 Chronicles 15:3; Isaiah 65:16). Moreover, like many words at key points throughout this Gospel, μόνον has a double meaning (only/alone). Therefore, where τὸν ἀληθινὸν θεὸν might logically be seen as that which is exclusive to the Father, the semantics of the intentionally ambiguous τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν does not permit that conclusion.
Finally, the fallacy of trying to use the convertible proposition in John 17:3 as a definition of the one true God (who is only the Father) to understand the nature of the Word in the subset proposition John 1:1 is obvious by simply applying the supposed interchangeability:

...the Word was with God [the Father] and the Word was God [the Father]

Clearly "God" in John 1:1 and "the Father" in John 17:3 are not interchangeable. In fact, the inability to use the interchangeability of the "one" true God who is the Father with God in John 1:1 is arguably a grammatical proof the writer is trying to convey to the reader the equivalency of Jesus Christ and His Father as God.
The Temporal Component

Now this is eternal life: that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent.
αὕτη δέ ἐστιν ἡ αἰώνιος ζωή ἵνα γινώσκωσιν σὲ τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν καὶ ὃν ἀπέστειλας Ἰησοῦν Χριστόν

This statement begins αὕτη δέ ἐστιν... literally this now is… The BDAG does not state how the particle δέ is used in this verse, apparently treating it as that which need not be translated:

δέ (Hom.+) one of the most common Gk. particles, used to connect one clause to another, either to express contrast or simple continuation. When it is felt that there is some contrast between clauses - though the contrast is oft. scarcely discernible - the most common translation is 'but'. When a simple connective is desired, without contrast being clearly implied, 'and' will suffice, and in certain occurrences the marker may be left untranslated.5

However, the particle δέ is continuative and adduces a more precise definition of ζωὴ αἰώνιος (eternal life).6 It should be rendered as "now" as in many translations:

For you granted him authority over all people that he might give eternal life to all those you have given him. This now [αὕτη δέ] is eternal life...

When He is praying, Jesus is yet not able to "give" (δώσῃ) eternal life as He has yet to be glorified (crucified and resurrected).7 Only after these events will He be the source of eternal life. So the passage references three different periods in time:

Future ...he might give eternal life
Present ...this now is eternal life...
Past ...whom you have sent. [For the reader this statement is always in the past; it is also temporarily in the present before Jesus dies. This is most likely the reason Jesus refers to Himself in the third person.]

In talking about eternal life with Nicodemus, Jesus used this same device to convey a change in the basis for judgement (which leads to eternal life):

16 For this is the way God loved the world: He gave his one and only Son, so that everyone who believes in him will not perish but have eternal life. 17 For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world should be saved through him. 18 he one who believes in him is not condemned. The one who does not believe has been condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the one and only Son of God. 19 Now this (αὕτη δέ) is the basis for judging: that the light has come into the world and people loved the darkness rather than the light, because their deeds were evil. 20 For everyone who does evil deeds hates the light and does not come to the light, so that their deeds will not be exposed. 21 But the one who practices the truth comes to the light, so that it may be plainly evident that his deeds have been done in God. (John 3 NET)

αὕτη δέ reflects a temporal contrast. The previous basis for judging is replaced. Now one must believe in the name of the only begotten Son of God, because God sent Him. In other words, had the Son not come, the previous system of judging would still be in effect. However, since God sent the only-begotten Son, not only did a change occur, it is now in effect.
Therefore, the temporal contrast must be taken into consideration to grasp the significance of what Jesus is saying to His Father:

1 After Jesus said this, he looked toward heaven and prayed: "Father, the hour has come. Glorify your Son, that your Son may glorify you. 2 For you granted him authority over all people that he might give eternal life [after he is glorified] to all those you have given him. 3 Now this [before he is glorified] is eternal life: that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent. 4  I have brought you glory on earth by finishing the work you gave me to do. 5 And now, Father, glorify me in your presence with the glory I had with you before the world began [so that after I am glorified, I might give eternal life]. (John 17)

As with judgement, there is a temporal aspect in the text. Where His entry into the world brought a change to the basis for judgment; His departure, which at the time of His praying is still a future event, will bring a change to the basis for eternal life as John clearly explains:

37 On the last and greatest day of the festival, Jesus stood and said in a loud voice, "Let anyone who is thirsty come to me and drink. 38 Whoever believes in me, as Scripture has said, rivers of living water will flow from within them." 39 By this he meant the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were later to receive. Up to that time the Spirit had not been given, since Jesus had not yet been glorified. (John 7)

The True God
The glorification of Jesus brought a new source of eternal life. It also brought back the previous way in which the true God is described:

15 For you shall leave your name for fullness to my chosen ones, but the Lord will do away with you. But to those who are subject to him, a new name shall be called, 16 which shall be blessed on the earth; for they shall bless the true God, and those who swear on the earth shall swear by the true God, for they shall forget their first affliction, and it shall not come into their heart. (LXX-Isaiah 65)
15 καταλείψετε γὰρ τὸ ὄνομα ὑμῶν εἰς πλησμονὴν τοῗς ἐκλεκτοῗς μου ὑμᾶς δὲ ἀνελεῗ κύριος τοῗς δὲ δουλεύουσιν αὐτῷ κληθήσεται ὄνομα καινόν 16 ὃ εὐλογηθήσεται ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς εὐλογήσουσιν γὰρ τὸν θεὸν τὸν ἀληθινόν καὶ οἱ ὀμνύοντες ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς ὀμοῦνται τὸν θεὸν τὸν ἀληθινόν ἐπιλήσονται γὰρ τὴν θλῗψιν αὐτῶν τὴν πρώτην καὶ οὐκ ἀναβήσεται αὐτῶν ἐπὶ τὴν καρδίαν
19 We know that we are children of God, and that the whole world is under the control of the evil one. 20 We know also [now] that the Son of God has come and has given us understanding, so that we may know him who is true. And we are in him who is true by being in his Son Jesus Christ. He is the true God and eternal life. (1 John 5)
19 οἴδαμεν ὅτι ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ ἐσμεν καὶ ὁ κόσμος ὅλος ἐν τῷ πονηρῷ κεῖται 20 οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν καὶ ἐσμὲν ἐν τῷ ἀληθινῷ ἐν τῷ υἱῷ αὐτοῦ Ἰησοῦ Χριστῷ οὗτός ἐστιν ὁ ἀληθινὸς θεὸς καὶ ζωὴ αἰώνιος

Eternal life after the Resurrection is, His Son Jesus Christ. He is the true God (ὁ ἀληθινὸς θεὸς) and eternal life and the ambiguous μόνον has been removed as in Isaiah:8
Before being sent:             τὸν θεὸν τὸν ἀληθινόν
Prayer (before glorification): τὸν μόνον ἀληθινὸν θεὸν
Letter (after glorification):   ὁ  ----- ἀληθινὸς θεὸς

After Jesus is glorified μόνον is no longer needed; just as it was unnecessary before He was sent. μόνον is only needed when Jesus is on earth praying to His Father who is separated from Son and Spirit at that moment in time.
Conclusion
John 17:3 separates the two statements about Jesus Christ and θεὸς:
The Word was with God and the Word was God
---------------------------------------------------------------------
His Father, the μόνον true God and Jesus Christ whom His Father sent
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------
His Son Jesus Christ the true God and eternal life [the Son returned to the Father]

The sense of μόνον is not exclusivity which denies deity; it is one which acknowledges a physical disruption as a result of Jesus Christ being sent and becoming human. In the beginning He was God and then ...though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, by taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men (Philippians 2:6-7) After His glorification the Word became flesh (1:14), the first-born of the dead (Colossians 1:18; Revelation 1:5) and the (present-day) source of eternal life.
Moreover, when seen in the context of eternal life, the tripartite nature of God is clearly conveyed. When the Word who was with God was sent and came to His own. While on the earth, the Holy Spirit also descended and abode with Him (cf. John 1:32) during this time they (Son and Spirit) were separated from His Father. Nevertheless, after returning to the Father John says:

And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know him that is true
  οἴδαμεν δὲ ὅτι ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ θεοῦ ἥκει καὶ δέδωκεν ἡμῖν διάνοιαν ἵνα γινώσκωμεν τὸν ἀληθινόν

Jesus Christ is come (present tense) and has given (perfect tense) understanding of Him who is true. This is the work of the Holy Spirit whom Jesus sent after He was glorified:

When the Advocate comes, whom I will send to you from the Father — the Spirit of truth who goes out from the Father — he will testify about me. (John 15:26)

Now (at this time) the Spirit of truth is come to give understanding about Him who is true (the Father and the Son).

Notes:
1.  Subset proposition: The significance of the S-PN construction affects more than mere translation precisely because S and PN do not normally involve total interchangeability. The usual relationship between the two is that the predicate nominative describes the class to which the subject belongs. This is known as a subset proposition (where S is a subset of PN). Thus the meaning of "the Word was flesh" is not the same as "flesh was the Word," because flesh is broader than "the Word."…It can be thus be seen from these examples that "is" does not necessarily means "equals." - …a convertible proposition, this construction indicates an identical exchange. That is to say, both nouns have an identical referent. The mathematical formulas of A=B, B=A are applicable in such instances. [Daniel B. Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics: An Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament, Zondervan, 1996, p. 41.]
2. The Arians, Socians, and Unitarians also interpret John 17:3 to deny the deity of Jesus Christ.
3. Wallace, pp. 45-46
4. Daniel B. Wallace, The Semantics and Exegetical Significance of the Object-Complement Construction in the New Testament, Grace Theological Journal 6.1 (1985) pp 99 [in discussing Philippians 3:18]
5. Fredrick William Danker, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, The University Chicago Press, 2000, p. 213
6. Meyer's New Testament Commentary
7. Expositor's Greek Testament
8. Arguably the point John is making is the complete fulfillment of Isaiah 65:15-16 as it is expressed in the LXX is found in the Word who became flesh and is now the true God.
Comment: God is a spirit, not flesh. God has no equal. Isaiah 46:5. Jesus is begotten. God is not. Jesus is a god that prays to the true God John 17:3.He himself says God is greater than him.
Comment: Wonderful Answer.
Comment: @User35499.   All your propositions are believed by a Trinitarian.  And yet they know and understand that Jesus is God
Answer: The OP has just provided one of the standard arguments for the plurality of the Godhead.  I congratulate him.
Using the same terminology as in the question, we find (correctly) that Jesus' statement in John 17:3 is a "convertible proposition", namely, that the Father is the One True God.
In John 1:1 we find another which is NOT a "convertible proposition", namely, "The Word was God." (see David Bentley Hart's translation of the NT).  This latter proposition is what is known in Greek logic as a category statement and is equivalent to saying "My car is red."
This use of the verb "to be" defines a category as does John 1:1 - Jesus is in the category of "God" and since the Father is the "one true God" (John 17:3) and Jesus is One with the Father, John 1:1 makes Jesus "the One true God" as well.
There are numerous other times where the NT makes similar statements - here is a sample.

John 1:18, "…but God the one and only who is at the Father's side has made him known"
John 5:17, 18, "In his defence, Jesus said, 'My Father is always at his work to this very day, and I too am working.'  For this reason they tried all the more to kill him; not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was calling God his own Father, making him equal to God."  See also Luke 22:69-71.
John 20:28, "Thomas said to him, 'My Lord and my God.'"
Rom 9:5, "…Messiah, who is God over all, forever praised! Amen."
Phil 2:5-8, "…Jesus Christ: who, being in very nature God…"
Titus 2:13, "…our great God and Saviour, Jesus Christ."
Heb 1:8, "About the Son he says, 'Your throne, O God, will last forever'".
2 Peter 1:1, "…righteousness of our God and Saviour, Jesus Christ."
Comment: Good for you but I disagree and this is not the place to debate nor discuss.  The problem here is that "God" as a class is unique and anyone who is a member of that class is part of the One true God.
Comment: Up-voted. An excellent clarification : reference to 'category' statements. This clarified what was obscure in the OP. The OP over-focussed on convertible propositions as though the one example given excluded all other types of argument. Very balanced and succint. (+1).
Comment: Oh come now @ThomasPearne, don't be a bad loser and start accusing me of 'theology' again. Dottard exposed the fallacy of your argument fair and square and I applaud him.
Comment: Ah now that is where you misunderstand the fulness of Deity @ThomasPearne . Deity can never be 'exhausted', sir. Such is the perfection of union of the Father and the Son (in One Holy Spirit) that neither the Father is 'exhausted' of the Son nor the Son 'exhausted' of the Father (in the union of One Holy Spirit). By using the word 'exhaust' you (again) expose the fallacy of your way of thinking, sir.
Comment: Dottard,  you evade the grammar of the OP.   If J 17:3 was a subset proposition it might be possible to allow for more than the Father as the only true God.   J 1:1 is a subset proposition as you note.   But there is no basis to conclude that the Word has all the qualities of the class is θεός typified by θεός at J 1:1b.   I make that point in this paper:  https://drgregoryblunt.wordpress.com/john-1/
Comment: As for the other proof texts that are invalidated by BDAG's view they are disputed on grammatical grounds,   see my paper that proves Greek grammar identifies the Father in those verses here ->. https://drgregoryblunt.wordpress.com/anaphora/
Comment: Thanks for your theological opinion.   However θεός is not unique in the OT or NT.  It is pluralized and is used to refer to others who are God's sons (eg angels) who share some of his characteristics.
Comment: Any further discussion @ThomasPearne would necessitate you forming a chat room and inviting me to it, for (can you believe it ?) yet again the system invites me to 'avoid extended discussion in comments'.
Comment: @Dottard John 1:18 I read as ο μονογενης υιος [TR] _the only begotten Son_. By accepting the alternative reading and by accepting the weak translation 'solitary, one of a kind' (sic) we see here demonstrated where it is all going _viz_ the non-sequitur of 'God the one and only ... at the Father's side (again, sic). 'God, the one and only' is a far cry from the proper expression 'the only true God'. A far cry, indeed. And totally illogical if the 'one and only God' is 'at the Father's side'. You have just provided Unitarianism with an argument. And I do not congratulate you, sir.
Comment: I am no unitarian and am quite opposed to what it teaches.  If you disagree with the translation or "monogenes", or, you disagree with the standard Greek text, that is another matter that cannot be debated in these comments.
Answer: Who is the "only true" Thomas Pearne?
Is he the bag of bones preferring to keep an air of mystery about himself, who, presumably, walks about somewhere on the planet? What does it matter? His "flesh profiteth nothing", it is his "spirit that quickeneth" his bag of bones.
The spirit of Thomas Pearne believes that Jesus is not God, and though I have never encountered the bag of bones that bears that name, I know his heart. The words his spirit moves his bag of bones to type at his keyboard (and presumably utter with his lips), declares it!

19Then said they unto him, Where is thy Father?
Jesus answered, Ye neither know me, nor my Father: if ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also.
20These words spake Jesus in the treasury, as he taught in the temple: and no man laid hands on him; for his hour was not yet come. 21Then said Jesus again unto them, I go my way, and ye shall seek me, and shall die in your sins: whither I go, ye cannot come.
22Then said the Jews, Will he kill himself? because he saith, Whither I go, ye cannot come.
23And he said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world. 24I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins.
  -- John 8:19-24 (KJV)

"For if you believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins." Who is the referent of the pronoun "he"? When Jesus said "I", he was clearly referring to the bag of bones before the eyes of the Jews to whom he was speaking. But who is the "he"? It's pretty important that they/we get it right, since they/we will die in their/our sins if they/we don't.
I won't presume to dictate for others who the "he" refers to, but for me the answer is contained in the passage just quoted.
Using BDAG as a referee in order to sew up a grammatical argument that "proves" Jesus is not the "only true God" might be persuasive to the one making it, but no one, not even the spirit of Thomas Pearne, would attribute BDAG as the word of God, and the word of God makes it abundantly clear what Jesus meant by, "I am he."
Comment: My words are simply to bring to your attention the words of God. The authority I quote is what all Christians agree are the words of God, the Holy Bible. In particular my answer quotes the Word of God, who John attests is Jesus Christ.
Comment: I have answered the question `so in what sense is he [Jesus] θεός without contradicting John 17:3`. "*It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing...*" John 6:63 (KJV). The exclusive, eternal Spirit that moved the bag of bones that bore the name Jesus to declare the means by which mankind must come to Father, was/is the self-same exclusive Spirit that moved God to create the Cosmos, and that moves the Comforter to convince men of their sin (i.e. not believing the "*I am he*"). The Spirit is what matters, the form by which the Spirit is manifest "profiteth nothing".
Answer: Because the Only God is eternally Father, therefore the coeternal and co-God with the Father is also the Son, for Father is such, that is to say, "father"/"begetter", only in virtue of having Son.
Both the Father and the Son shared the same glory before the world began (John 17:5), but time and succession of events occurred only with the world, while before the world began there was only divine infinity and eternity, with 0 (zero) succession. Thus it is impossible for Father to have had the Son in terms of any temporal succession, but only co-eternally, in an eternal causality, as the Son's eternal Cause. Thus, it is absolutely correct term in theology to call the Son συνανάρχος i.e. "co-unoriginated" with the Father.
It is an Arian blasphemous mythology to say that God was initially non-Father  God and then He became also father by giving birth to the Son and all this process of God's initiation into fatherhood was happening in timelessness that excludes any possibility of such processes :)
But such stupidities are not even to be mentioned in this respectable site.
P.S. To my dear anonymous downvoter(s):
Let you know that by those anonymous "-" -es I get my share in mini-persecution for affirming and confessing the Godhead of Jesus Christ; not a great deal, for in the past many a saint paid with their lives for the same confession. Thus, you smugly think to have harmed me in this not very noble - to put it mildly - way, but in fact vouchsafed for me a blessing from Him who said "blessed are those who are persecuted in My Name's sake", and this name is the name of the one before whom every knee should bow (Philippians 2:10), and this name can be only that of God, for it is sin to bow to anybody save God. The necessary outcome - hear you well my present Arian or Jehovawitnessian foe, but hopefully future Trinitarian friend! - is that Father cannot be worshipped unless with Jesus co-worshipped, and not to co-worship the Son is an insult to the Father.
Comment: "But such stupidities are not even to be mentioned in this respectable site" John Calvin believed that Dr Michael Servetus' "Non Trinitarian" beliefs were worhty of death and had him executed by burning. Are reasonable questions and answers "stupidities" just  because they do not agree with your dogma?
Comment: Oh, not with m y. dogma, and just forget all d o g m a s, but heed a biblical text+common sense I have presented above. p.s. and that Kalvin was a bit of an idiot, has nothing to do with my comment.

How does the fact that the Father is the “only true God” (Θεός) at J 17:3 in a convertible proposition affect the sense in which Jesus is θεός?


What are the main differences between scimitar and regular propellers?

Question: I am looking to know the main differences between scimitar and regular propellers. Can somebody help me on this?
Comment: [Closely related](http://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/27701/62)
Comment: If you're talking about a scimitar on a Cirrus or Bonanza there is little if any benefit other than just looking cool.  The turboprop market typically doesn't rely on "cool" as a marketing technique (it helps though) so there must be some advantage for high powered aircraft.  High powered in this case means C130 or A400.  I would also like a technical description.  Maybe Peter K will be along soon with a good answer.
Answer: Primarily the curved sweep of the blade's leading edge, allowing for better efficiency at higher engine speeds.
Comment: If I remember correctly, doesn't the sweep of the blade allow it to turn faster because it keeps the tips from going supersonic at the higher rotation?
Answer: The scimitar's swept back design results in less drag. On top of that it lets you increase the overall length of the propeller's airfoil without lengthening the diameter of the propeller. And since lengthening the propeller's diameter results in the tip of the blade traveling at a higher mach, the scimitar gives you all the benefits of a longer airfoil with none of the noise or drag penalties associated with a transonic propeller tip.
Comment: Um, sorry? That was about as much as an explanation as Carlo gave so I just followed suit.
Comment: Welcome to the site! You may be right, but can you give some more detailed explanation and maybe some links? It would be great to know *why* a scimitar prop would have less drag.


Download SQL Server Profiler for SQL Server Management Studio

Question: How can I profile a SQL Server 2008 database to see code that's being executed on a particular database?  I remember using the SQL Server profiler, but I don't see it in SQL Server Management Studio after downloading SQL Server 2008 R2 Express.  Where can I download that tool and install it?  Do I need the full version of SQL Server 2008 in order to see this option?
Answer: SQL Profiler does not come with SQL Server Express 2008 R2*.  You can get it with the installation media for Datacenter, Enterprise, Standard, Web, Developer, or Workgroup licenses.
If you have the installation media, you can get Profiler that way.  Otherwise, Developer Edition is available for $50.
There are some other tools available, and you could even create your own server-side traces (for example) without Profiler.  Then, use a tool like Qure Workload Analyzer to review the trace files.  With 2008 R2, you could in addition use Extended Events to track activity.  The advantage is that both of these are less of a performance hit than running Profiler would be.
If you're looking at a point-in-time solution and can install procedures, Adam Machanic's sp_whoisactive could be something to look into.
* Profiler is available in SQL Server 2012 Express Edition SP1 onward. You need to select SSMS (Complete) in the installation options.
Comment: As of March 2016 Sql Server **DEVELOPER EDITION IS NOW FREE**. https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/dataplatforminsider/2016/03/31/microsoft-sql-server-developer-edition-is-now-free/ Woohoo
Answer: Even though SQL Profiler does not come with SQL Server Express, you can still create server-side traces using T-SQL.
Check out sp_trace_create and sp_trace_setevent. The page for sp_trace_setevent also has a list of traceable event numbers.
Finally, if you need a place to get started, this link may serve as a good jumping-off point.
Answer: There is a free, open source tool called ExpressProfiler - https://expressprofiler.codeplex.com/
Very convenient tool. In addition to SQL Express databases, it even supports a localDB.
Answer: It's not included with Express Edition, but the other (non-free) editions have it, including Developer Edition, which is about $60 (USD) list. You may run into some sticky licensing situations, however, which I can't address with authority.
Answer: If looking for a UI that will get traces in real-time, the ExpressProfiler is good.  But it's a bit simple, and not very configurable.
This is a nice alternative, very configurable and I use use it all the time now.  It's called Sql ExpressTRace and this link is to an article that lets you download the compiled UI and the code too: http://www.codeproject.com/Articles/784905/Real-time-Tracing-With-SQL-Server-Express


Saudi Arabia Trasit visa for Indians

Question: I am an Indian passport holder living in USA, I am travelling to India in December through Saudia airlines. I have a layover period of 10 hours and 13.5 hours respectively while going and coming back to USA in Jeddah in Saudi Arabia. I dont have any plans to go out of airport. Do I still need to apply for transit visa for either of my flights?
Answer: According to Timatic, the software airlines use to determine the required travel documents, you may transfer in Jeddah without a visa if your transit time is 12 hours or less. They do have a sterile transit area, but looks like you'll need a transit visa for the return leg of your trip.
I don't know how they enforce the visa requirement within a sterile transit area, maybe someone here has personal experience and could answer that part more clearly.
Comment: 13.5 hours is > 12 hours, so transit without visa wouldn't be allowed.  Spending 13 hours in the airside transit area at Jeddah airport would also redefine hell - it's not something I'd recommend on anyone...
Comment: Yes I understand that the second leg is above threshold. And I absolutely agree, 13 hours in any airport would border on inhumane.
Comment: Check with the airline's office, most likely you will be ok.

Saudi Arabia Trasit visa for Indians


BEA - how to get employment data by industry?

Question: Looking into the BEA (US Bureau of Economic Analysis) API - there is ton of data available, but I can't figure out how to get labor data by sector per county.  Anyone has experience with it?
Answer: In July I wrote to BEA with a similar question--getting regional employment and wages by industry. They confirmed that these tables (specifically, I wanted SQ6N, SQ7N, and SA27N) aren't yet available via API. "Later this year, I hope," they said.
In the meantime, I've been getting data from BEA's interactive tool and bulk download page (http://www.bea.gov/regional/downloadzip.cfm) and loading it to our internal API.
Comment: Nice update. I looked thru the download page. Several of the CSV files under the category Local Area Personal Income Accounts are broken down by County and Industry Sector (NAICS/SUC codes).
Comment: Thank you, I looked through the API and couldn't find it and thought I was missing something.  Looks like it isn't available
Answer: I've not seen this API before, but I tried some examples. It does not appear the RegionalData dataset has a parameter to breakdown results by industry sector. But you can get results by county by setting the parameter: GeoFIPS=COUNTY .
The results look very similar to the IRS Statistics of Income (SOI) datasets.
The NIPA dataset does have a parameter for breaking down by industry sector (TableID) but does not have a parameter to breakdown geographically. The counts appear to be national values.
I reviewed the documentation on all the other datasets (very interesting stuff). Except for RegionalData, none of the others support the GeoFIPS US geographic parameter.
Comment: Yes, it is super interesting data - the amount of data available in these gov sites is mind boggling.  Only problem is that, the documentation isn't very friendly - one has to spend hours reading through the PDFs to find what (s)he is looking for.
Answer: Quarterly Census of Employment and Wages (QCEW) data may be of interest.  It is a major input to BEA Personal Income. I work for the QCEW program.
QCEW provides employment and wage data by industry at the county, MSA, State, and national levels. Go to http://www.bls.gov/cew/opendata.htm to access the open data version of the dataset. Available for 2012-forward, QCEW open data is a csv-based static API.
We built it with users like you in mind. We are using it as the input for all our future QCEW data front ends, so it has to be great!
For data prior to 2012, (back to 1975 at some levels of aggregation), see the flat files available at http://www.bls.gov/cew/datatoc.htm Many of the resources at this location are zip archives of csv files.
Answer: The US Department of Labor has a new website and API and dev portal (Quarry). See here for details
http://developer.dol.gov/


Relationship of Yin-Yang in Five Chakra nature elements

Question: After reading this question about Chakra nature of Tailed Beasts. It came across my mind what is the relationship of the Yin-yang to the 5 Chakra nature elements? And how come you can classify a Chakra nature as Yin-Yang? Does it has something to do with the Chinese Zodiac or principles of Taoism?
Comment: light and dark elements. Light is Yin, darkness is Yang.
Comment: And the relationship to the 5 elements?
Comment: i think there are no relationship.
Answer: For What is the relationship of the Yin-yang to the 5 Chakra nature elements?
Base from here:

Yin relates to one's spiritual energy and Yang relates to one's physical energy and it's necessary to utilise both of these in order to mould chakra for ninjutsu.
According to Yamato, the manipulation of Yin and Yang is the source of non-elemental techniques such as the Shadow Imitation Technique, Multi-Size Technique, medical ninjutsu, genjutsu, etc.

So in relation to 5 nature elements, I think it is the 6th type, having the techniques classified in this type as non-elemental techniques.
And about Does it has something to do with the Chinese Zodiac or principles of Taoism?
It is stated here that:

The concept of nature transformation parallels the real-life art, Onmyōdō (陰陽道; Literally meaning "The Way of Yin and Yang"), which is a mixture of natural sciences and occultism. It largely features Wu Xing and Yin and Yang.
Answer: Yin relates to one's spiritual energy and Yang relates to one's physical energy.
Mixing some yin and yang gives you chakra,
Chakra = Yin + Yang

Chakra is the resulting form of energy when two other forms of energy are mixed together. The two energies are referred to as "physical energy" and "spiritual energy". Physical energy is collected from the body's cells and can be increased through training, stimulants, and exercise. Spiritual energy is derived from the mind's consciousness (i.e. the soul) and can be increased through studying, meditation, and experience.

Chakra Control in 2 ways:
Shape Control: Changes the shape of chakra
Eg. Rassengan

Nature Control: Changes the behavior, type and properties of the chakra.
Fire, Wind, Lightning, Earth and Water and there combos like Lava, Ice etc.

Other chakra types:
 Tailed Beast Chakra, Senjutsu Chakra (Nature energy when Naruto in Sage mode) etc.


No direct way to access the meta page from the main page

Question: I don't see any link on the main Mathematica.SE page that leads directly to http://meta.mathematica.stackexchange.com. There is a panel in the top-right corner that links to "Hot Meta Posts", but this requires an additional click from one of those posts to the main meta page. I think there should be a clearer, straightforward and more visible way to access the meta page so more users are aware of its existance and purpose. I can speak from my own experience, it took me quite a while to notice it and start using it.
Answer: In the upper left corner, next to the recent achievements and the inbox there is a link list to all StackExchange sites.
Comment: Wow, I have actually never used this menu until now. Good to know.
Comment: @shrx I had the same problem with the (long abandoned) blog and although I used *SackExchange* menu every day, I never saw that the blog link is exactly there :-)
Answer: @Karsten 7.'s answer made me look harder at the main site's menu bar and I actually found the second way to access the meta site - through the help menu:

Conveniently, you can also return back to the main site using the same menu while browsing the meta pages.


Water-resistant shoes for Trekking in New Zealand

Question: My spouse and I are going for 3-weeks vacation on the southern island of New Zealand. We intend to go for one multi-day trek (the Kepler Track), and a few more day treks.
Do we need water-resistant (e.g. Goretex) shoes for the trip?
Comment: Personally, I would always take water-resistant shoes on a multi-day trip, since I'd rather not pack two pairs of shoes, and since walking in wet shoes is no fun.
Comment: For most NZ tracks and the Kepler in particular I would recommend boots over shoes - you will want the ankle support and grip that the stiffer sole gives. Also on the Kepler you can sometimes get summer snow and will always encounter at least a little rain and mud - I'd personally much rather have waterproof boots in those sorts of conditions.
Comment: How high and how cold are you going to go? You may not have one pair of shoes that works for everything on the south island.
Answer: I am a big fan of the low ankle water resistant Salomon fell-running shoes.
The Gore-Tex allows moisture and sweat to escape rapidly, and when worn with wicking socks they actually work well to keep your feet dry and sweat-free.
I do most of my hiking in Scotland, which is on a par with New Zealand for precipitation - I would definitely recommend water resistant fell runners, along with multiple pairs of socks. You will be much more comfortable, will have less chafing and blisters and generally be much more comfortable.
Answer: Think about whether it really matters if your feet stay dry.  Will this be in warm enough weather when trenchfoot and frostbite are not problems?  If so, the simplest answer may be to let the feet get wet.  Wet or damp feet by themselves is not really a problem.
I do most of my hiking in New England where it can rain any time on short notice, and soggy ground and stream crossings are common.  I realized a long time ago that it is simpler, less stressful, and actually more comfortable in the long run to simply accept the fact that water is going to get into the shoes at some point during a hike in warm weather.  It is simpler because ordinary running shoes are fine.  Less stressfull because you stop worrying about tip-toeing around puddles and how to get accross streams without getting wet.  It is more comfotable in the long run because the smaller and lighter shoes outweighs the feeling of wet feet that some may find bothersome.  The latter is simply a mindset issue, so is something under your own control.
If you have shoes that let water in, they will also let water out readily.  If your feet can breath, then wetness by itself is really not a problem - again assuming warm conditions.  If you are going on a longer hike, bring some extra socks and change them frequently.  You can have a couple of pairs of socks drying while you are wearing a third, for example.
Answer: I avoid water-resistant shoes for hiking since they trap moisture (your sweat) in as well as out.  Kinda depends on hiking style, too - if you're ultralighting then you'd probably want trail-running shoes that breath and dry quickly as you walk.  See Ray J.'s advice.  They're light enough that people often carry a second pair.
Another factor is weather - a bit of rain is no big deal, but if you're tramping through snow, then I'd think you'd want some water-resistant regardless of your style.
I personally wear Chaco RedRock shoes.  They're heavier than running shoes (about 16oz each), but they hold up well and have the high arches I need.  Unfortunately, they take too long to dry, but it's usually not a huge deal.
If you're conventional heavy-pack you'll probably want ankle support, which means boots.
Whatever you get, do some trail walking in them before you go.  Boots need break-in, and hiking in shoes means you want to strengthen your ankles before you go.  Good arch support that matches your foot will help avoid ankle sprains.
Answer: When hiking for multiple days you will likely encounter scenarios that you will get wet feet regardless of the footwear you are using. My experience with Goretex footwear is the same as most fellow hikers I know: Goretex footwear can delay your feet getting wet but it cannot prevent it altogether. The important question is: What is your strategy once your footwear is wet?
Having your feet wet for extended periods of time can become a serious problem on the trail. In my experience, Goretex shoes do not help in avoiding those situations. The drying time of Goretex footwear is usually higher then quick dry shoes. Because of their long drying time  quick drying shoes are often preferred for long treks.
In the past I have accelerated the drying of my Goretex footwear by using pack towels to accelerate the drying process once it stops raining for example. If I`m lucky enough to hit a town then stuffing news paper in the shoe works wonders. Rotating a few pair of socks also helps a lot.
I would not recommend buying Goretex shoes or water resistant shoes for your trip. They tend to be more false-hype then usefulness.
Answer: IMHO, you should get some waterproof shoes/boots for a multi-day trek on this specific trip.  I'm inclined to give more weight to the Scottish respondent since I think their typical weather is likely similar to what you will experience in NZ.  Lightweight, breathable shoes are great in warm weather with low humidity and little precipitation, but they are miserable if you don't have a chance to dry them out (i.e. if the air is cold and/or moist).  I did an 8-day hike in southern Chile with my trail-runners and after the second day had developed blisters on both feet (this was with intermittent rain and several stream crossings each day, with moist air in the mid-50's), my buddy in waterproof boots was fine for the whole trip.
If it's only a comfort issue for you, and your trek is only a few days, then I'm not sure that it matters one way or the other.  If this is a 9 day trek with lots of elevation/climate change, I think you should really consider getting waterproof boots, and maybe getting some conservatively styled models to maximize their utility (disco, anyone?)
Answer: It is a common expectation that, like in your daily routine, you can expect to keep your feet nice and dry for an entire multi-day hike. Gear manufacturers contribute to this perception by promoting equipment as waterproof, breathable, etc.
The fact is, if it rains, you can't. There are a number of reasons why:

Your shoe requires a big hole in it to put your foot in. There is a sock boundary layer that will absorb water.
Over the course of walking in a rainy day, rain lands on the upper side of the shoe/boot and it will be absorbed.
Walking paths on a rainy day, there will be water flow from rivulets to streams, or at worst, rivers you will have to ford. You mention the Kepler Track which is in Fiordland. As Fiordland has glacier-cut valleys, water quickly runs off the peaks and so water levels rise quickly. With a lot of rain overnight, you can expect to have to submerge your feet in streams if there has been heavy or lengthy rain periods prior. All rivers on the Kepler Track have bridges though.

Andrew Skurka says it here.

When it's wet outside, there's nothing I can do about keeping anything about me dry.

I have seen walkers (trampers in NZ) often ask rangers how to keep their feet dry in the rain. Every ranger I have seen answer that has responded with "Unfortunately, you can't".
But, there is good news.

Walking with wet feet is not so bad. Your feet warm any water and so you get kind of a squishy, wetsuit effect. I have walked whole days with wet shoes, which is fine as long as I have a plan to dry my feet at day end.
Walking the Kepler track (and most other trails in the region), there will almost certainly be a warm, dry hut at the end of the day. Plan on getting footwear that you can dry quickly i.e. a removable sole.
Take plenty of dry socks. Dry feet in nice clean dry socks at the end of a long rainy day are wonderful!

NB. I am presuming that you walk the Kepler Track in the summer open season, not the winter season. Winter season is a different story and not for inexperienced trampers.


Did Camus ever say "Always go too far, because that's where you'll find the truth"?

Question: This statement has been attributed to Albert Camus in various places on the internet. For example, this one:

However, his Wikiquote page doesn't contain this quote. So did he actually say it? If he didn't, then who would likely say it?
Answer: Almost certainly not.
While the quotation is attributed to Camus on many sites, two factors make the attribution dubious:

No source is ever provided.
The quote is at odds with Camus's well-documented philosophical positions.

First, the absence of a specified source is in itself suspicious. Any quotation attributed to an author should be easy to track down to a source in that author's writings. If the quotation is free-floating, with no specific citation ever provided, the chances of that quotation's actually originating from that author are vanishingly small. Such synthetic quotes are long attested. Here are some well-known examples:

The coldest winter I ever spent was a summer in San Francisco. (Mark Twain never said it.)
Time flies like an arrow; fruit flies like a banana. (Not by Groucho Marx.)
It is never too late to be what you might have been. (George Eliot? Nope.)

These examples predate the internet, but dubious attributions certainly spread thick and fast over that medium. The "Camus" quote, for example, turns up everywhere from Goodreads to Pinterest. Yet the absence of an actual citation to any of his works is a giveaway that the attribution is dubious.
Second, Camus resisted philosophical labels, but is generally regarded as an existentialist and an absurdist. The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy says:

Although he forcefully separated himself from existentialism, Camus posed one of the twentieth century's best-known existentialist questions, which launches The Myth of Sisyphus: "There is only one really serious philosophical question, and that is suicide". And his philosophy of the absurd has left us with a striking image of the human fate: Sisyphus endlessly pushing his rock up the mountain only to see it roll back down each time he gains the top.

Absurdism stresses the gap between human longing for certainty and the contingency of our experience that makes such certainty impossible. In his best-known philosophical work, The Myth of Sisyphus, Camus writes:

De qui et de quoi en effet puis-je dire: «Je connais cela!» Ce cœur en moi, je puis l'éprouver et je juge qu'il existe. Ce monde, je puis le toucher et je juge encore qu'il existe. Là s'arrête toute ma science, le reste est construction. Car si j'essaie de saisir ce moi dont je m'assure, si j'essaie de le définir et de le résumer, il n'est plus qu'une eau qui coule entre mes doigts. ... Entre la certitude que j'ai de mon existence et le contenu que j'essaie de donner à cette assurance, le fossé ne sera jamais comblé. Pour toujours, je serai étranger à moi-même. En psychologie comme en logique, il y a des vérités mais point de vérité.

Translation:

Of whom and of what indeed can I say: "I know that!" This heart within me I can feel, and I judge that is exists. This world I can touch, and I likewise judge that it exists. There ends all my knowledge, and the rest is construction. For if I try to seize this self of which I feel sure, if I try to define and summarize it, it is nothing but water slipping through my fingers. ... Between the certainty I have of my existence and the content I try to give that assurance, the gap will never be filled. Forever I shall be a stranger to myself. In psychology as in logic, there are truths but no truth.  (p. 7, emphasis added)

This passage summarizes Camus's philosophy pretty well. The only certainty is existence, and knowledge ends there. The idea that "existence precedes essence" is of course definitive of existentialism, but Camus goes further in noting the "gap" between the certainty of existence and the impossibility of any certainty about it. Camus rejects outright the possibility that we can escape our limited existence and arrive at any kind of objective knowledge; hence, "there are truths but no truth."
Camus goes on to say, with regard to philosophical statements, that "Ils ne sont légitimes que dans la mesure exacte où ils sont approximatifs"; i.e., "They are legitimate only in precisely so far as they are approximate". This suspicion of any and all truth-claims was fundamental to Camus's outlook. Given this epistemological stance, it is not feasible that he would endorse, let alone utter, a statement as banal as "Always go too far, because that's where you'll find the truth". The idea of the truth would be ridiculous to Camus.
Edit. OP asks in a comment:

Just for the sake of the argument, let's assume the quote is actually Camus'[s]. I wonder if we can interpret "the truth" in here as "there are truths but no truth", and "go too far" as "far enough that you see the absurdity of the world"? Would that interpretation be... too far?

Camus would not make that argument. Absurdity is the human condition, not the human truth. That is to say, we find ourselves trapped in absurdity by virtue of our efforts to make meaning of our existence, by virtue of trying to find the "truth" about it. To say that the absurdity is the truth would reify what is existential to what is essential. Camus had his quarrel with the existential label, but in this case he would likely agree that absurdity is existential rather than essential, and so can't be described as an objective truth. That said, this particular extension of your question is better addressed on Philosophy Stack Exchange.
Answer: Possibly, this is a misrepresentation of something Camus wrote in L'Homme révolté:

Si l'individu, en effet, accepte de mourir, et
meurt à l'occasion, dans le mouvement de sa révolte, il montre par là
qu'il se sacrifie au bénéfice d'un bien dont il estime qu'il déborde sa
propre destinée.

My translation:

If the individual then accepts to die, and happens to die in the act of revolt, he thereby demonstrates that he sacrifices himself for a good [cause] that he considers as gong beyond his own destiny.

This quote does not mention "truth" but I have been unable to find anything that comes closer to the requested quote.
Comment: If this is really the source, then the quote has been going too far :(

Did Camus ever say “Always go too far, because that's where you'll find the truth”?


In the Brotherhood continuity, do the Elric brothers know that their father has died?

Question: After Ed got Al's body back, their father Van Hohenheim is shown at Trisha's grave, where Pinako later finds him dead. Did the boys find out that he had died or did they not even know what happened?
Answer: There is never a point either in the manga or the Brotherhood adaptation of it where the brothers are explicitly told of Hohenheim's death. Note, however, that it would be odd for Pinako to never tell the brothers of Hohenheim's death. Unlike with the Maria Ross incident, there is no reason for the brothers to not know, and it seems unlikely that Pinako would lie about the death (in the way Mustang lied about Hughes to Edward) and never tell the truth.
There is additional evidence at the end of the manga, where there is a compilation of post-manga photographs at the end. In one of them, we see Hohenheim's grave next to Trisha's. There is a similar photo at the end of Brotherhood. (Click link for anime screenshot. I am not cropping the images, since it should be easier to get a sense of where they are from this way.)

With this, we can infer that the brothers probably know of Hohenheim's death. That a marked grave was constructed for Hohenheim, who died shortly after Promised Day (and thus, before the brothers leave Resembool two years later), and placed at a meaningful position suggests that there must have been some level of ceremony put into his burial. Being Hohenheim's sons, the brothers then might well have been given the chance to be involved with the burial, and they would probably know of the death that way.
Moreover, even if Pinako quietly buried Hohenheim, it seems unlikely that she have buried him alone, without help from anyone, so word would probably eventually get out that he was dead. Additionally, the brothers probably periodically visit graves in the area — for instance, Edward decides to visit the Rockbells' graves at the end of ch. 41, after hearing about their work in Ishval — so they would be "forced" to know once they visited their mother's grave at some point.
Comment: Thank you. But wouldn't it be better if they showed their reaction? Ahhh, those mangakas. Always leave us with questions!
Comment: @ΒαγγεληςΖ': it'd be interesting, sure. :) Personally, I'm happy that the story more or less feels complete, with nothing blatantly missing (e.g. character development is where it needs to be for me by the end) and nothing that seems tacked on. But perhaps this is just my personal preference. (One thing I rather like about Arakawa is the fact that she IIRC doesn't give a lot of extraneous character details.)
Comment: Well sure but it would be nice if we saw some of their reaction to their father's death. I mean he was their dad, it should be important. How they reacted to it or if they were affected by it. Anyway, I won't complain about it, because it's one of the best manga/animation I've read/seen and I was happy with how the story developed. I wish we had seen a little more of Hohenhim, he was one of my favorite characters after all :D


Torque wrench vs regular ratchet

Question: What is the difference between a torque wrench and a regular ratchet that you'd normally use with sockets?  When should you use one vs. the other in automotive applications?
Answer: Torque wrenches are used for adjusting the specific tightness of nuts and bolts. They come with an adjustable torque setting which is usually in foot pounds (english) or Newton meters (metric). In automotive applications, most nuts/bolts will have a torque setting specified in the manual that when applied will give the exact amount of pressure needed to operate smoothly.
Regular ratchets have no adjustable torque setting. Typically you would refer to the tightness of what you were working on as 'hand-tight'.
For lugs nuts on wheels for example; you would definitely want to use a torque wrench to ensure the nuts are not too loose or too tight. By using a torque wrench, you can ensure that all of the nuts are tightened with the right amount pressure, which would more than likely be imperfect when using a regular ratchet.
Comment: hmmm.  so no one should use a tire iron because it doesn't have a sophisticated mechanism to gauge the torque of lug nuts ?
Comment: Thats correct. Mostly it works out fine, but i've seen people loose their wheels on occasion. About sophisticated: it doesn't have to be, you can just add a specified weight on a ratchet with a known length to know the torque. 1kg on 1 m ratchet = 10 Nm
Comment: @Allman Who has a 1m ratchet?
Comment: I do, but it works with shorter ratchets too. Half the length = double the force
Answer: A torque wrench only allows you to tighten a bolt to a torque spec, which you can adjust on the wrench. These torque figures are often quoted in shop manuals/specs (eg. "tighten valve cover bolts to 30 ft-lbs") because many bolts were designed for a specific amount of torque to work properly. For example, if you over-tighten a bolt on a gasket, you could cause it to fail due to the extra pressure. You should use a torque wrench as specified by the shop manual for a given repair, especially if the bolt seems important - you don't really need a torque wrench for bodywork bolts etc., but you definitely need one for most bolts you'll find while taking apart an engine.
Answer: As the other answers have said, the torque wrench (TW, to save typing) allows you to tighten a nut/bolt to a specified torque, either by 'clicking' off or by showing a values with a needle (old fashioned needle type ones).
Never use a TW to undo anything, as you'll damage it. I personally only use the TW for the final tightening, using a normal ratchet for everything else - wind the nut/bolt on using a ratchet until it's nearly on, then switch to the TW to finish it.
Always store the TW unwound (i.e. set to the lowest torque setting), otherwise the spring will start to lose it's springyness.
Answer: A socket wrench is like a small steel tube - one end has ridges that fit precisely around a bolt. The other end often has an opening of 1/4", 3/8", or 1/2" square. This end receives the protruded part of a ratchet with the same dimension.
Most torque wrenches look like a larger version of a ratchet -- in fact, it often also has a ratchet mechanism.
The purpose of a torque wrench is to measure the precise amount of pressure you use to tighten down a bolt. Generally, you do this by placing a Socket wrench for the bolt size in question onto a Torque wrench. You will then dial (usually on the handle end) to the amount of torque the specification calls for -- usually in Foot lbs or Inch lbs.
Affix the bolt receiving end to the bolt and tighten, clockwise. You will hear a clicking sound when you have reached the indicated torque.
Again, a Torque wrench is used to measure the precise amount of pressure(torque) applied to a bolt. This is usually done to assure you do not over-tighten the bolt and thereby strip threads AND/OR assure you do not under-tighten and the bolt gets loose while you are operating the bike(a rather dangerous situation).
A torque wrench can cost over $50.00, and you will likely rarely use it. You might just tighten the noted nuts/bolts firmly, then take it to a local bike shop and ask if it is tightened enough. They might take a torque wench to it to check it out. However, experienced assemblers generally just firmly tighten --unless it's a high-end bike.
There are less expensive -- but less precise --torque wrenches available. You would still affix a socket wrench on it. Difference: instead of a dial adjuster on the handle with the audible click, it has a floating pointer that points to the measurement imprinted at the head of this wrench.
If you do decide to buy a torque wrench, they are available at Sears, Home Depot, and probably at most large auto parts stores(Pep Boys, Kragen, etc). Some of these auto parts stores might even allow you to rent one.
You can also buy the needed socket wrench at these same stores.

Torque wrench vs regular ratchet


Does a pre-ICO require a smart contract

Question: With the growing popularity of smart contracts, there is a high price associated with getting a smart contract audit. I was wondering if a pre-ICO would require a smart contract? Or should the tokens be generated first then during the ICO, all whitelisted address would receive their tokens including those from the pre-ICO. Thank you for your constructive responses.
Answer: With the growing popularity of smart contracts, there is an even higher price associated with broken smart contracts getting drained for millions of ether due to poor implementation.   With that being said, no one is forcing anyone to do their pre-ICO through a smart contract, however, it is a convenient way to do it and it harmonises well if the subject of matter is going to carry out an ICO eventually anyway.  Usually for pre-ICO's, tokens are generated in the same fashion as for the ICO, however they are not made transferable till the ICO is complete or the project is listed on an exchange.
Answer: No ICO needs a smart contract, it can all be done in a centralized way. You basically answered the question for yourself.

Does a pre-ICO require a smart contract


Avoid spam in contact forms

Question: In one site I'm getting a lot of spam via a contact form created with Freeform. Is there a good solution, besides adding a CAPTCHA?
Comment: Did any of the answers help you? If yes, please mark the answer correct by clicking on the checkmark to the left of the answer.
Answer: I would recommend using either snaptcha or honeepot as they are both unobtrusive captchas that the end user never sees. They are also very very effective.
Comment: I've used honeepot in the past and it works really well. In my experience it did let a bit of spam in... but nothing's perfect.
Comment: We have used honeepot too with great results; highly recommended.
Comment: I prefer Honeepot and have found it to be reliable as well.
Comment: Honeepot works to an extent, and in fact uses the same method that Snaptcha uses on its low security setting. Once you get more traffic though spam will start to get through and that's when Snaptcha's high security setting really comes into its play.
Comment: +1 for Snaptcha. Increasing the security level really works a charm... But expect some flack from users at the annoyance of submitting stale forms.
Answer: There's also Low NoSpam, which you use in conjunction with an Akismet license. I started using it on my personal site when CAPTCHAs weren't effective and it reduced spammy submissions to zero.
The other advantage to Akismet is you don't need user-unfriendly CAPTCHAs. Even honeypots can be outsmarted by bots on occasion, and they're not effective against human spammers.
The one caveat with Low NoSpam on Freeform is that you can't moderate flagged submissions from the CP. Though that hasn't really been a problem for me.
Comment: Well according to the question, quote __"besides adding a CAPTCHA"__ this would be the correct answer, so upvoting. Amazing as even I when reading the question suggested a Captcha variant. kgrote deserves the answer here as he seems to be one of the few that actually read the question!
Answer: I like Sean's suggestions, but if you are avoiding CAPTCHA simply because they can be difficult to enter in for a user, check out Accessible CAPTCHA to see if it will suit your needs. You can set up a series of questions that will be picked at random instead, that a user has to answer.
I've used it on sites and have had some fun having the questions be "on brand" for the site.
Comment: I also like accessible captcha and have used it in the past as well.
Answer: In addition to CAPTCHA, you might want to take a look at VZ Bad Behavior - it will block known spammers from the entire site. Give it a look; I've used it and had great success with it.
Answer: Not sure of any other ways of preventing forms to be submitted without a captcha, Sean's idea sounds great though and definitely worth looking into. But you can always go with RECAPTCHA if you really need to use a CAPTCHA. I hate them (as most people probably do) but here's the link:
http://devot-ee.com/add-ons/recaptcha
It's ADA compliant, your visitors help translate books and its probably the most popular. Snaptcha would do the trick as well, but I personally think that if you need a captcha (which I hate :)) then go with RECAPTCHA :)
Oh and it's completely FREE too!!
Comment: Since the new version ReCaptcha is even better (sorry I missed your answrr and posted my own), no more word deciphering, just a tick box that monitors human heuristics! clean, neat and quick.
Answer: I released a (free) anti-spam addon for Freeform which a) adds a honeypot field and b) checks the submission's IP address against a few blacklists. You might want to give it a try - I've used it to mostly eliminate spam submissions on several sites.
Answer: I've also created a plugin for Mollom. You can find it here. https://github.com/tsmith86/EE_mollom  I do need to update it though.
Answer: On Monday i installed a Snaptcha as Honeepot which had been installed for years was letting some spam through ( maybe 5/7 a week). To date no spam. It may cost $15 but if these levels stay more than worth it!
Answer: I've had good results with Freeform Anti-Spam. It places honeypot fields and can filter results for those that do get through. I've been able to remove the hated captcha field from some client forms using this. http://devot-ee.com/add-ons/freeform-anti-spam
Answer: There is also the free Honeypot for ExpressionEngine add-on which works with Solspace Freeform, Solspace User and Expresso/DevDemon FreeMember.
https://github.com/ninefour/honeypot.ext.ee_addon
:)
Answer: Have you seen the new version of ReCaptcha? It's about as unobtrusive as you get, it's a tick box that monitors for human style movements and clicks, really nice IMHO.
I always use this : https://devot-ee.com/add-ons/recaptcha
It's kind of like a drop in replacement for the build in Captcha so it works anywhere the built in one does, including Freeform front and back end. You can use your existing captcha settings via EE CP and I beleive it has tags to easily include in many forms!
Best of all it's free! This module with the new style of ReCaptcha makes for a winning combo in my book, and not messing about at all!

Avoid spam in contact forms


Apache Httpd.conf settings to avoid cookies for static (image) request

Question: I am working towards having a web application, where the HTTP request for static content (images / JS / CSS etc) is going with the cookies.
Ideally the cookies doesn't hold any significance for the static request except overloading the request.
So, I tried giving the below configuration in the Apache's HTTPD.Conf file:

Uncommenting (It was commented prior to my change),
     LoadModule setenvif_module modules/mod_setenvif.so &
     LoadModule headers_module modules/mod_headers.so
Added below 2 lines,
     SetEnvIf Mime image/.* unset-cookie
     Header unset Set-Cookie

Post this change, if I intercept the HTTP request using tamper data, I still see the png / jpeg request carrying the cookies with it.
Can somebody help me if I am missing anything else?
Comment: Yes, I have restarted but still change doesn't work.
Answer: The domain name of static image URL should be different than the URL that serve dynamic webpage


How to digitize old vinyl records?

Question: Out with the old stuff.
I want to digitize my old vinyls.
What would be necessary to do that?
Comment: My father-in-law used a USB turntable and Audacity (in Windows).
Comment: Probably something similar to my answer here I would imagine. http://askubuntu.com/questions/50447/app-that-will-rip-mp3s-from-an-analog-cassette-tape/50482#50482
Answer: There are two parts to this issue:
Part 1: connecting something that can read records with your computer
For this, you can either play the record on your normal turn table, and take the audio output to your line-in via cable.  You'll need a cable with 1/8 inch male audio on one end, and whatever output your turntable has easily available.  EG a headphone jack on your stereo.  Cables like this are available from audio stores like radio shack or best buy or whereever.  If you have more speicific questions about this aspect, I'd be happy to provide more details - comment or edit with more details.
Alternatively, you could use something like @Jim mentions in his comment - a USB turntable.  I have 0 experience with these or if they are Ubuntu compatable.
Part 2: record the audio that's coming in.  For this part, @fossfreedom's answer here covers this in good detail.
Answer: I've used a Phono PreAmp made by Terratec which accepts an ordinary turntable's output, amplifies it and passes on the signal to your computer via a USB connection. (If you already have a good quality turntable this makes sense, otherwise not.)
You will need a suitable programme to enable the recording, of course, and I have been using Audacity. When I upgraded to Ubuntu 14.04, my set-up went haywire. After much trial and error, I found that I needed to use the overall system volume control to get the input level right.
The other vital step was to turn-off "software passthrough". This is a pain, because it makes it impossible to monitor recording as you go. (There is a detailed explanation on the Audacity forum of why this feature is a bit of a high-wire trick and you shouldn't be surprised if it won't work.) I have found that a useful approach is to identify the loudest track/section on what you are recording and set all controls to avoid "clipping" (distortion because it's too loud). You can go back and boost any tracks that are too quiet with Audacity's amplify effect.
Comment: This did not deserve a down vote! It is more correct than the accepted answer, because you will need a preamp to record from a decent turntable that uses a good magnetic transducer  cartridge. Some of the cheap USB tables come with a cheap tinny ceramic transducer cart. True, the answer is not very well explained. But the tips are sound advice.

How to digitize old vinyl records?


What is the order of installation for a stair railing?

Question: I am rebuilding a set of steps, and have decided that I need to replace the handrail at the base of the steps.  This is one of the exposed handrails, with ballisters and a newel at the end.  This is a straight run - no curves and no angle changes.  From what I understand, there are basically 4 different parts - the shoe, the ballisters (the upright supports), the newel (the post at the end) and the handrail.  In what order should I install the parts?  Should I fit the Newel in before the shoe to ensure a tight miter cut?
Answer: Wickes (UK DIY store) sells stair packs and has general fitting instructions.
These are available on-line. They are too long to summarise here, but do take you through the process step-by-step.
Answer: Another resource is LJ Smith which sells stair parts. Their main site is:
http://ljsmith.com/
They have a much more complex set of installation instructions that include landings, turns, balcony railings, open and closed stair treads, etc. Check it out:
http://ljsmith.com/assets/files/pdf/EnglishInstallation.pdf


How can I verify whether an address I've created offline is valid?

Question: For security reasons I've created an IOTA address offline. Before I transfer into this address, how can I ensure this address is valid?
Comment: @Helmar the process to register an address with Tangle involves entering the address's seed into a web-connected wallet. I don't feel comfortable doing that for three reasons: 1. I don't know who may be looking over my shoulder, 2. I don't know who may be monitoring my network traffic, and 3. I don't know who may be monitoring the wallet's network traffic (assuming the seed gets broadcast in some way).
Comment: @Helmar but how then can I view my address's balance?
Comment: Why would you doubt that it is valid?
Comment: @Zauz because I'm wanting to transfer money into the address. I don't want to risk having it end up somewhere which isn't in my control.
Answer: You can generate your address with the option checksum: true . It will give you a 90 characters address where last 9 chars are the checksum.
Before attaching this address to the tangle you can use the function
Utils.isValidChecksum(<90 chars address>)

to check that your address is valid.
source
Answer: It seems like what you want to avoid is the risk that your funds will "end up somewhere which isn't in my control."
In that case, you should use the IOTA API to double-check that your seed produces your address. This will ensure that you indeed have access to funds at that address. This can be done entirely offline, using the IOTA JavaScript API and the following code:
var IOTA = require('iota.lib.js');
var iota = new IOTA({
  'provider': null
});

var seed = "AAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAAA";
var index = 0;
var security = 2;

iota.api.getNewAddress(seed, {"index": index, "security": security, "checksum": true, "total": 1}, function(error, addr) {
  if (error) {
    console.log(error);
  } else {
    console.log("Address for seed " + seed + " at index " + index + " is: ");
    console.log(addr[0]);
  }
});

Answer:
send only a small amount of IOTA or even a zero value transaction of the address
check if you see the transaction in your wallet
send the rest of your IOTA

Although this would work, it shouldn't really be an issue, if you generated the address with a tool that works like the official IOTA light wallet or any of the official IOTA libraries from iotaledger because they don't make mistakes when generating addresses.
Furthermore, you may have noticed that some addresses are 90 trytes long (when IOTA addresses are really only 81 trytes long). This is because they have a 9-tryte checksum which is only in place so that human errors (when copying  or transmitting) don't happen.
Basically if you want to send a transaction to an address from the light wallet, it won't let you if the checksum doesn't match the address.
You might want to check, if your offline generated address has a length of 81 or 90. If it is only 81, generate it again. There is usually an option to generate it together with the checksum.


Should I point out spelling mistakes in a reference letter?

Question: I just finished an internship and my boss gave me a very nice reference letter. While I'm happy with the content, I found one spelling mistake and it is really bothering me. Should I tell him to re-write it or just live with it?
Comment: Very hard to say, completely depends on the person and how well you know him. Personally, I wouldn't, unless he was a personal friend.
Comment: Does the mistake change the tone of the letter?  Is the mistake completely obvious?  Have a friend read it and see if they notice it right away.
Comment: Could have been a typo, he wrote peformance instead of performance. But I've also noticed that he capitalized words that shouldn't have been capitalized: She demonstrates Creativity, Iniciative, and so on... I should add, English is not his native language.
Comment: @BadgerGirl - You either need to have him correct the error or not use it, because if somebody does notice, his letter won't hold the same weight.
Comment: btw - "Iniciative' should be "Initiative".  Your mistypes or his #2?
Comment: Mine, sorry about that.
Comment: You might ASK him to rewrite it, Telling him to rewrite it is another matter
Answer: There should be no embarrassment about asking a colleague or even a boss to correct a spelling mistake. We are all human and we all make mistakes. Wrap it up with a note of thanks for producing a nice reference letter and it doesn't have to be a big deal.
Letting it slide however could be a problem. If it is likely that any reader of the letter would notice the spelling error then it could put the opinion of your boss in doubt. Similarly if the reader of the letter knows that you have read the letter (because you forwarded it to them) then it could reflect badly on you for not getting it corrected.
So, in summary, ask your old boss for the mistake to be corrected, but do it tactfully.
Comment: I did that, he had no problem with it and thanked me! :)
Answer: You might ask him to correct a typo or two. Given the number of errors, I think you should let it go.  He has already done you a favor by writing it.
However, you shouldn't send the letter as part of your initial contact with a prospective employer.  That might give the wrong impression that you see no faults in the letter.  If someone asks for references, send it, but tactfully mention  his lack of fluency:

Here is a letter from my former supervisor.  We had a great relationship, but he is not fluent in English.
Comment: If I read that, I would be thinking "What does it say about your *great relationship* that you can't even ask to fix a simple spelling mistake?".
Comment: @MarkBooth: oops, I got the idea from the OP that there were several, but it seems I was wrong.
Answer: Not for a reference letter, but I've corrected typos in what my manager wrote for my appraisal.  I've done this with three out of the four managers I have had.  (The final one didn't have any typos.)  Two of them were non English speakers so it was easier for me to notice than them.  The other made a genuine typo.  None of the three seemed to mind me pointing it out and two thanked me.
I don't think it is bad to ask for the correction; you said it is only one error so it isn't going to embarrassing.  Remember that the letter reflects on your boss too.  He would likely rather not have his typo/lack of English knowledge shared with whomever you show the reference letter to either!
Answer: I would pretty much live with it if it is minor. If it is the only problem with reference letter, it is even less of a reason to change it. Unless of course, the spelling mistake relates to some important information such as your details, or your job information. If you look close enough to any document, the chance of find an issue with it is usually quite high.
If you really want to get it change, read the rest of the reference letter to determine what else you want changed and submit those changes in one request. That way, your boss would be more likely to put some effort into making those changes in one hit.


Can I ask too many questions?

Question: I watch TV very frequently and have a lot of questions. However, I feel like I can't ask all of them at once because it could flood the Active Questions, stealing away from other users. So I want to know something. Can I ask too many questions?
Comment: I'm really not sure about you leaving a bunch of questions for others to ask on your behalf.  What would be the purpose of that?  If your questions are good and of a high quality - and as long as you are literally not flooding the board with questions, just go ahead and start asking them.
Comment: How many questions are we talking about?
Comment: Yes you can ask too many question as long as they are all on topic. But remember to be responsive of all the feedback and quality of questions to get good response. And remember there are few [limits too](https://meta.stackexchange.com/a/164900/182734) and remeber to ask one question per post.
Comment: Stack Exchange does have rate limits on users though i can't remember the link which details them. i quite sure even higher rep users can only post so many questions a day and so many a month
Answer: If you do ask many questions, you should also take the time to read, comment (if needed), upvote, and accept answers from people who take the time to work on answers.
If you start asking such many questions that you don't even have the time to review the answers, people (answerers) will start to think you are not thankful on their work.
So the limit will be set by the time you will have to review answers.
Also take in consideration that writing a good question takes some time, as you will probably have to provide links, quotes, details to help the answerers.

Can I ask too many questions?


Did any Chinese warlord claim the mantle of the Beiyang government after 1928?

Question: In 1928 Beiyang government was replaced by the Nationalists, with its last leader, Zhang Xueliang, agreeing to submit to the Nationalist government. But did any warlord cling to the symbols etc for legitimacy after that?
Comment: & It was my impression that "all of China" didn't submit to anybody until the 1950s when Mao was firmly established. Am I wrong?
Comment: There was no torch to pick up. The Nationalists were acknowledged as the sole legitimate governing authority of the Chinese Republic. Now, the Nationalists did not exercise **effective direct control** over all the various regional factions, so what you said is sort of true. But in the symbolic sense, essentially all of China had formally submitted to Nationalist authority. Well, except Soviet occupied Mongolia.
Comment: I'm confused as to what you're asking because this seems to be answered in Wikipedia: Zhang Xueliang was the last; all of China submitted to the Nationalist Government with his capitulation. *"Zhang's son, Zhang Xueliang, retained a government in exile led by Premier Pan Fu ...  Zhang negotiated with Chiang Kaishek to end this pretense leading to the reunification of north and south on December 29."* Are you asking for something else?
Comment: That shows  Zhang gave up. Just wondering if anyone else tried to pick up the torch.
Comment: So after 1928, everyone in China professed loyalty to either the Kuomintang, the Japanese or CCP/USSR?
Comment: Yeah. See how in the Central Plains War of 1930, all commanders on both sides were members of the Kuomintang party.
Answer: After the Nationalists consolidated power in China in 1928, their government promptly received international recognition. Therefore there was little reason to claim descent from the Beiyang regime.
All except Japan, that is. Due to having poor relations with the Nationalists and harboring ambitions in China, they set up puppet regimes and adopted Beiyang symbols to boost their legitimacy. Note the similarity in flags, for example:
Beiyang:
Manchukuo:
Mengjiang:
So no, no Chinese warlord used Beiyang symbols after 1928; only Japanese puppet regimes did.


Sequel adding a "returning null" to my inserts. How do I disable it?

Question: I'm using Ruby Sequel (ORM gem) to connect to a Postgres database. I'm not using any models. My insert statements seem to have a "returning null" appended to them automatically (and thusly won't return the newly inserted row id/pk). What's the use of this? And why is this the default? And more importantly, how do I disable it (connection wide)?
Also, I noticed there's a dataset.returning method but it doesn't seem to work!
require 'sequel'

db = Sequel.connect 'postgres://user:secret@localhost/foo'
tbl = "public__bar".to_sym #dynamically generated by the app
dat = {x: 1, y: 2}
id = db[tbl].insert(dat) #generated sql -- INSERT INTO "public"."bar" ("x", "y") VALUES  (1, 2) RETURNING NULL

Don't know if it matters but the table in question is inherited (using postgres table inheritance)
ruby 1.9.3p392 (2013-02-22) [i386-mingw32]
sequel (3.44.0)
--Edit 1 -- After a bit of troubleshooting--
Looks like the table inheritance COULD BE the problem here. Sequel seems to run a query automatically to determine the pk of a table (in my case the pk's defined on a table up the chain), not finding which, perhaps the "returning null" is being appended?
SELECT pg_attribute.attname AS pk FROM pg_class, pg_attribute, pg_index, pg_namespace WHERE pg_class.oid = pg_attribute.attrelid AND pg_class.relnamespace = pg_namespace.oid AND
pg_class.oid = pg_index.indrelid AND pg_index.indkey[0] = pg_attribute.attnum AND pg_index.indisprimary = 't' AND pg_class.relname = 'bar'
AND pg_namespace.nspname = 'public'

--Edit 2--
Yup, looks like that's the problem!
Comment: I don't observe this in my app. Show some code.
Comment: Glad you solved it. Good work! :)
Comment: Ha, thanks. But sadly, only identified and no solution yet!
Comment: If you can figure out how to modify the pk lookup query to handle table inheritance without breaking things, I'd definitely be willing to accept a patch.
Answer: If you are using PostgreSQL inheritance please note that the following are not inherited:

Primary Keys
Unique Constraints
Foreign Keys

In general you must declare these on each child table.  Do for example:
CREATE TABLE my_parent (
        id bigserial primary key,
        my_value text not null unique
);
CREATE TABLE my_child() INHERITS (my_parent);
INSERT INTO my_child(id, my_value) values (1, 'test');
INSERT INTO my_child(id, my_value) values (1, 'test'); -- works, no error thrown

What you want instead is to do this:
CREATE TABLE my_parent (
        id bigserial primary key,
        my_value text not null unique
);
CREATE TABLE my_child(
        primary key(id),
        unique(my_value)
) INHERITS (my_parent);
INSERT INTO my_child(id, my_value) values (1, 'test');
INSERT INTO my_child(id, my_value) values (1, 'test'); -- unique constraint violation thrown

This sounds to me like you have some urgent DDL issues to fix.
You could retrofit the second's constraints onto the first with:
ALTER TABLE my_child ADD PRIMARY KEY(id);
ALTER TABLE my_child ADD UNIQUE (my_value);


Famous treasure related with the Norse gods?

Question: Is there any famous treasure related with the gods of Norse mythology? Something like a famous vault or maybe cave. An accumulation of important things that they wanted to protect, for instance.
Comment: How are you defining "related" in this question? There may well be ancient places that are linked in legend to various Norse gods, is that what you mean? Or do you want something more tangible?
Comment: I'm looking for a famous name. It could be a place or a hal, or just a famous chest gurder by or important for all or some of the gods
Answer: The Norse gods of the sagas don't seem to have accumulated treasure in caves or chests, but they had many marvellous items, mostly made by the dwarfs. They included Frey's ship, Skíðblaðnir and boar, Gullinbursti, Odin's spear Gungnir and ring Draupnir, and Thor's hammer, Mjölnir.
The Nibelungenlied tells of the Rhine Gold, which later became a key feature of Wagner's Ring Cycle of music dramas.
Comment: Many more listed here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_mythological_objects
Answer: If you are looking for archaeological evidence of Norse/Viking (unfortunately, the terms are often used interchangeably) religious practices, then there are a number of academic papers available online (for example, this one titled Evidence of the Viking Religion Through Archaeology). Much of that evidence comes from grave goods (like miniature Thor's hammer (or, "torshammere") amulets), deposited in Norse/Viking burials, but there are also several examples of carved monuments and standing stones (like the Ardre stones from Gotland) that depict aspects from Norse Mythology.
Many pagan "cult" sites associated with Norse/Viking mythology have been discovered in Scandinavia. A good example is the temple site at Gamla Uppsala, where archaeological investigations have revealed the remains of the temple dedicated to Thor, Odin, and Freyr.
In the case, of the temples at Gamla Uppsala, we have an account of how the temple actually appeared in the 11th-century in Adam of Bremen's Gesta Hammaburgensis ecclesiae pontificum. It is perhaps worth mentioning that Uppsalla was also described as being the domain of Freyr in the Ynglinga Saga. A number of translations of the Ynglinga Saga are available online, for example here.
Comment: @Xhark When you say "Norse mythology", do you mean the actual legends about the Norse gods or do you mean rather the Norse _sagas_?
Comment: I'm looking for famous treasures,chests or accumulations of precious objects of some kind in the Norse mythology. Maybe referenced somehow in the odas or so. I'm actually quiet clueless.
Comment: Both? Any? I dont know. Im quite clueless here
Answer: Look up the treasures forged by the dwarves of Svartalfheim in their competition to please Odin and Thor and the other gods (the myth in which Loki bets his head, loses, then famously gets his mouth sewn shut).
Of the treasures created by the dwarves, I'd guess the most valuable monetarily is Odin's ring, because it multiplies every few days and he's presumably been around for thousands of years... I've not read anything on what he did with all his extra rings. If this is for a creative writing project, maybe you could extrapolate that he's got them all locked away in a chest somewhere.
The more valuable (non-monetarily) treasure, I think, is the ship because it is so useful and yet so concealable. And as far as real-life Viking relics merely related to Norse myth, I think something along the lines of Mjolnir would be your best bet. Vikings really did use warhammers and several relics like amulets representative of Thor's hammer have been unearthed.
But, if you want a real treasure important to most or all of the Norse gods, I'd focus on Idun's Golden Apples. In Norse myth, they grant immortality to the gods and are kept by a specific person (Idun, pronounced ee-done), and the magic fades when Idun is taken in another story...