Can I reuse chain link pins after removing links from shortening chain

Question: I am trying to make my current chain shorter, and I am wondering how I can do that. The chain is new and it is a shimano 11 speed, but I had already installed it with the quicklink (quick link is now connected) and im wondering if I can reuse the chainlink pins that I will pop out. Or, reuse the quicklink
Comment: You know the quick link can generally be removed and reused, right ?
Comment: @Michael: Shimano says this because another company has the re-usable quick link patented.
Comment: Shimano says to not re-use quick links: "Do not reuse a QUICK-LINK that has been removed. If the QUICK-LINK is reused, there is a risk that it will loosen and become detached, which may result in an accident." I think they are overly cautious there. If you remove the quick link properly with special pliers they shouldn't get damaged.
Answer: It is not advisable to reuse a previously pushed out link pin to rejoin the chain.  The chain will quickly come apart at that junction when riding. Shimano chains can be rejoined with a special, speed specific, reinforced chain link pin, which has tapered, guide aspect, followed by the reinforced link pin.  When the link pin has been fully inserted into place with a chain tool, the tapered, guide pin is snapped off.
The reinforced part of the link pin features a diameter that is slightly larger than the factory link it replaces, making the fit more secure.  This is also the reason Shimano advises one to break the chain at a different location than where it has previously been disconnected and rejoined with a reinforced link pin.
In my personal experience, when necessity has forced me to rejoin a bike chain with the same pin that was forced out to break it, KMC chains stayed together just fine but Shimano chains came apart at that spot very quickly.  More than once during the very next ride after "repair." Thus, reusing a previously pushed out chain pin should be avoided.
Quicklinks--the Shimano branded version of the handy, special pair of outer links, known generically as a "master link," which are used to rejoin the ends of a chain, are a bit of a different story in practice. The majority of anecdotal evidence regarding the use (and re-use) of these has been favorable. It seems that failure of a reused Quicklink is so rare to non-existent that reuse is commonly practiced despite Shimano advising against their reuse in joining a chain.  It has also been shown successfully, that using master links from different manufacturers, KMC, SRAM, and Wipperman, to name a few, to join Shimano chains (especially 8, 9, & 10 speed versions that Shimano advised using their reinforced connecting pins and had no master link option to offer) has become common practice.  These also have excellent reliability when reused.  Typically they are disconnected to allow the user better access to perform chain and drivetrain cleaning, derailleur replacement and other maintenance tasks.  When taking all this into consideration, it seems reusing a Quicklink would be fine, as long as you're aware of the manufacturer's caution against this practice.
Comment: "a special, speed specific, reinforced chain link pin" speed meaning number of (rear) gears in this context ;)
Answer: The Shimano-sanctioned ways:

Use an 11-speed Shimano connecting pin.
Use a new 11-speed Shimano 2-piece link.

Don't try to press a normal link back in. As there are many questions here about, the press fit isn't reliably as strong as intended, which can result in failure.
Shimano cautions against seperating and rejoining their two-piece links. While they don't elaborate on why (that I've seen), it's probably because when doing so, it can be difficult or perhaps impossible to avoid damaging the little cradle area of the link that the end of the pin rests in. If that happens, it won't be as secure. In practice this is an at-your-own-risk thing that a lot of people are doing and getting away with. Having good technique while separating them may make the difference in whether it gets damaged.
Comment: I would offer an alternate possible explanation for why Shimano might warn against reusing their quick links. When new, they take a lot of force to close. In contrast, KMC and YBN reusable links take less force to close, a lot less for the latter. With that much force, I would suspect that every time you close or open the link, you're putting wear on some of the contact surfaces. Do it too much and I'd guess the link will fit more and more loosely with time. Enough wear and the link might not be tight enough to stay locked during normal riding.
Answer: Further info, back in the old days of 5/6/7 speed chains it was quite normal and accepted practice to push a regular chain pin most of the way out, and then rejoin the chain later by flipping the chain tool and pushing that same pin back in.
Sure it got slightly malformed, but one time wasn't generally enough to hurt it, and with 100+ pins in a chain there was a low chance of hitting the same pin a second time.
As "speeds" increased, the chain gets thinner.  8 speed chain is just-about as fat as 6 speed, but 11 speed chain has an outer width of about 5.4mm and the pin has to fit flush with the outside of the outer plate.  This leaves less tolerance in how far the pin goes through.
Too far through and the pin will grind on the adjacent cog, or worse could catch on an edge.
Not far enough and the side plate may pop off under load.
Upshot refitting a modern chain by reusing a standard chain pin is no longer best practice.
Your options are to use a master link (also called a quick link) in the same "speeds" as your bike, OR to use a disposable snap-off pin, which goes through the chain like normal but you snap the other end off with pliers.  This is Shimano's recommended closing system, but many many riders use reusable master links without issue because its much cheaper.
Answer: The difference between modern chains (which should be joined with quick links or connecting pins) and older ones (where one could simply press out and press in the existing pin) is that newer chains have riveted pins. The riveting is integral to the chain's strength under side loads. Pressing a riveted pin out destroys the rivet, so the chain is apt to snap when heavily loaded.
Additionally, I've never had success trying to push a riveted pin back in. The mushrooming of the pin makes it very hard to drive into the side plate straight; it always wants to go in crooked. Learned this the hard way trailside.
Comment: Since the advent of quick links, I have only but used chains of brands that come with these. (On my Shimano drive-train.) It is much less hassle.


Probability of block rewards

Question: Assume that there are only three mining pools, all with the same hashing power, mining for bitcoins in the bitcoin network. Which mining pool is most likely to get the block reward? Do you all think that it will be equally likely? Since they have the same hashing power and working on the same candidate block.
Comment: I have edited the title already
Comment: I understood the question, but I don't get why there is a reference for 'payout methods' in the title
Answer: Yes, the same hash power means the same probability of mining a block.
But there can be other factors like connectivity: if a mining pool is facing internet connection problems between it and its members, it may fail to use that hash power effectively. P2Pool FAQ talks to its members about the importance of a good connection: http://p2pool.in/
Also, if there is an internet outage soon after it mines a block and it fails to broadcast it, the block risks been orphanated.
But it's not possible to 3 miners to work on a same candidate block, each block they are trying to mine will be necessarily different. I think you mean 'on top of the same block'.
Comment: You're welcome. I've improved the answer.

Probability of block rewards


Proposed Catch-all: What is duplicate content and how can I avoid duplicate content penalties?

Question: At the time of this posting there are almost 4,000 questions which concern duplicate content - some of these questions can be distilled to whether or not a specific practice will be qualified by Google as duplicate content.
Questions which poll for whether or not a given practice qualifies as duplicate content cannot be reasonably answered without a full accounting of Google's algorithm and are therefore not constructive, so this catch-all would be appropriate for questions of the form "is ___ duplicate content?" (as well as questions concerning the nature of duplicate content and how to correct cases where it appears as though Google is treating content as duplicated).
Title

What is duplicate content and how can I avoid being penalized for it
on my site?

Description

What does Google consider to be duplicate content?
Will the way I am presenting my content result in a duplicate content
penalty?
How can I avoid having my site's content treated as duplicate content?

Answer

Google's Duplicate Content webmaster guide defines duplicate
content (for purposes of search engine optimization) as "substantive
blocks of content within or across domains that either completely
match other content or are appreciably similar".
Duplicate content is typically penalized (either excluded from or
given a lower priority in search results) by search engines because it
is often associated with scraper sites which copy content
wholesale and simple article spinning techniques which generate
"new" content by selectively replacing words in existing content.
Google's guide goes on to list the following as examples of duplicate
content:

Discussion forums that can generate both regular and stripped-down pages targeted at mobile devices
Store items shown or linked via multiple distinct URLs
Printer-only versions of web pages

Whether or not a given piece of content or technique will be
considered duplicate content by a search engine is debatable without a
full accounting of the algorithms used to rank and index sites,
however, you can avoid penalties associated with duplicate content on
your site by observing the following guidelines:

Ensure that content is only accessible under one canonical URL
If your site must return the same content under multiple URLs (e.g. for a "print view" page) specify a canonical URL manually with a link
element in the document header
In cases where your site returns similar content based upon parameters encoded in the URL (e.g. sorting a product catalog)
exclude the URL parameters in Google Webmaster Tools

10/14 Edit: Posted to main
Answer: Less noise? I'm all for it. Good job!


Is a Titan's size based on age?

Question: So in the new episode, we see Eren's real Titan form. He was a small titan so I was just curious if there's any correlation between the age and the size of the Titan someone would turn into?
Comment: I don't think this will be the case, it so then colossal titan would have to be much older.
Comment: Do the titans show any evidence of ageing at all? I can't recall seeing one that looked especially young or old.
Answer: Colossal Titan is much much bigger than the Armored Titan, yet both of them are of the same or at least similar age.
As another comparison, Jaw Titan is of the same if not older age than Eren yet much much smaller.
So there is no relationship between their age and their size.
Another example Connie's mother. Despite being old, she didn't turn into a huge titan. In fact she only became a small titan.
Comment: Sizes are among the defining features for Colossal and Jaw Titans. Barring the Nine Titans (i.e. among the pure titans), is there any such evidence?
Comment: Added Connie's mom for example outside the Nine Titans.
Answer: In episode 38, released on July 23, 2018 we are shown Eren to be transforming, not very successfully, into a titan as experiments directed by Hange. I do not recall if in the anime this was said, as this part was truncated from how it appeared in the manga, but what happened is that Hange told him to transform many times in succession, and as he got more and more tired from transforming, the titan he produced became smaller and less fully formed. Therefore, I think the explanation for the child titan is that as a child, he does not have the stamina of an adult, and not able to produce his full adult titan form, and not that titans somehow grow with age.
Indeed, as others have mentioned, there seems to be no other correlation of size and age, given that Bernholdt, Reiner, Annie, and Eren are all relatively close in age, and their titans tend to be of various sizes, whereas Connie's mother is significantly older than they, and she became a relatively small and unformed titan.

Is a Titan's size based on age?


Macbook Air intermittently can't find startup disk

Question: About six months ago, my Macbook Air started having a strange issue where it would often not be able to find the startup disk, giving me the flashing question mark. Initially, I was convinced the hard drive (ssd) was dead. If I booted from a recovery USB, disk utility would not even find the drive. However, for whatever reason and luck, restarting the computer eventually fixed it; the startup disk would be found and the computer would boot up with no problem. I then checked the disk with a few utilities, none of which found any problems. But, if I turned off the computer, again it would most likely not find the startup drive. I would say it finds the startup drive about ten percent of the time. So if the computer restarts, then I might be rebooting it a dozen times before it boots up. Another thing is that if the computer has booted up, if I put it to sleep, it will not wake up; or it tries to but then it freezes. So that necessitates another round of restarts hoping it will boot. So I have backed up the hard drive contents fairly well, and I've since never turned the computer off or let the computer go to sleep unless it freezes. Fortunately, OS X is stable and I have something like 95 day uptime going, however, the computer is essentially a desktop now with no portability. Does anyone know what might be wrong with the computer? I'm pretty sure I've tried resetting the PRAM and SMC, though this was a long time ago... Anyway, does anyone know anything about a problem like this? I am running 10.7.5 on a Mid-2011 Macbook Air 11-inch, 1.6 GHZ i5.
Comment: I had this problem - well I still have it. Upgraded my several year old iMac with a SSD- and often after it goes to sleep, it reboots but can't find the startup disk and displays the question mark in the morning. Then if I try to restart it a half dozen times or more it finally reboots. I tried thousands of power resets, PRAM resets, utilities and even replaced the operating system and nothing fixed it. My temporary fix is simply to turn off having the drive sleep in system preferences. But I suspect the real fix is reattaching the drive connection better.
Answer: Hard disk drive failure
A few weeks ago I found similar symptoms with a colleague's iMac:

sometimes it behaved as if no drive was installed
sometimes during normal use, the Mac stopped working (not a total freeze; the reported symptoms were as if there was an I/O issue) – this was less likely to occur if the Mac was cool
in FireWire target disk mode, every time I tried to fully optimise its disk, the Mac behaved as if the drive had disappeared.

A replacement hard disk solved the problems for the user.
Testing your own hard disk drive
If you have an external optical drive, you could perform a thorough backup then try the most powerful test of HDAT2.
Caution
A routine that is intended to reallocate bad blocks may lead to dataloss.

In response to commentary
A clean installation might complete without error – and you might precede that with a single write of zeros throughout a volume – but still (I could/should have mentioned this in my first edition): I'd be wary.
If an entire drive has failed to present itself to software, at any time in the past, then to me that sounds a quiet but unforgettable alarm … expect the unexpected, and so on.
I should either:
a. no longer trust that hardware; or
b. perform extraordinarily time-consuming stress tests, which might reveal the nature of the failure and/or partially rebuild trust in the hardware.
In a geeky way I'm sometimes happy to spend/waste that time, but option (b) is not for everyone.
Related, in Ask Different
For bad and/or marginal blocks on hard disks, can anything be more effective than a single pass of zeros?
– all three answers were good. The accepted answer there links to a Tom Nelson article that includes:

use of Drive Genius (page 3) – in my experience not extending the scan significantly reduces the likelihood of detection of bad blocks
a Disk Utility approach to stress testing (page 4) – and for that stress test to be most effective, you should aim to repeatedly write over as much as possible of the disk before your clean installation of the OS.

(I wonder … can a Disk Utility approach be thorough enough to repeatedly write over the areas of disk that would be used for the GPT, and so on?)

Personally: if presented with a disk that might benefit from a multi-pass stress test, I would prefer HDAT2 to Disk Utility. Set aside the machine for a few days, allow HDAT2 to write repeatedly to the entire device …
Comment: Thanks for your answer. I do not have an optical drive, but I went and downloaded the badblocks software and ran it. The result was that 0 bad blocks were found. Not that I don't believe the hard drive might be broken; but before I buy a pricey replacement, I wonder if there's anything else that might be the matter...
Comment: Thanks. It's possible that bad blocks were successfully reallocated before your run of the software. Now would be a good time to view S.M.A.R.T. data.
Comment: disk utility shows the S.M.A.R.T. status as verified. disk utility doesn't seem to think there's anything out of the ordinary with the hd (no raw read error, no reallocated sector count, no reported uncorectable errors, etc.) but then disk utility isn't really that useful...
Comment: perhaps I might try doing a clean reinstallation of OS X? I think I tried to do that once, but when I booted up from a usb drive, it couldn't find the hard drive with disk utility so I couldn't format and reinstall! Maybe I should try again...
Answer: I am not sure if I found a real solution or not, but I've got my computer working properly again at least for the last few days.
I believe the problem is mechanical; the contact between the hard drive and the logic board is not great. I hypothesize that it's something to do with batteries expanding somehwat inside the case, causing problems, but it could be anything. All I did was open up the case after buying the proper screwdrivers and looking at the tutorials for hard drive replacement. After opening it up, I unplugged the hard drive and reattached it. And now it seems to work okay. But it's only been a few days.


Drop TAble if exist and then create table

Question: i am creating java application using ms access database.
i have to create table "student" if not exit and if exist then drop table first then make table student.
i have writing code for it. for this i have made function boolean makeTable(Connection con,String tablename) and function boolean dropTable (Connection con,String tablename)
First time
if exist table then maketable() return false but then call function dropTable() it return false also(table not deleted)
second time
 call  dropTable() then return true (table deleted successfully) but then call createTable() return false (table not created).
why this happens i don't know.
please help this.
if there is statement (Drop Table IF EXIST STUDENT)
or other way to doing this
thanks in advance.
--PARAG HUMANE
Answer: Use Connection.getMetaData().getTables() method. It return tables description.


Android app to increase readiness

Question: So readiness can be increased through apps—are they only available on iPhone/iPod/iPad, or are they also available on Android? And what do I need to search to find it on the Android market? (Using an Xperia Play) If not available on Android, will I miss out on much by not using the app?
Answer: No, Mass Effect: Infiltrator and Mass Effect: Datapad are iOS only.
You're missing on a few weapons/Intel by not playing Infiltrator, and you're missing out on ways to increase Readiness from both.
This isn't really that big of a deal because it's been intentionally designed that you don't NEED readiness to get any of the achievements or endings in the game, it's just easier to get the "better" endings. Note that you can also increase readiness from Multiplayer, which also increases readiness very fast.
Answer: This app is called Mass Effect: Infiltrator. It is an iOS app so unfortunately this is a no go for androids.
All that comes from Infiltrator is the readiness, which can be increase via ME3 multiplayer anyway.
Weapons are not included in the bonuses of this app. Check out the answer to this question for more information.
What bonuses are gotten from Mass Effect: Infiltrator?
This interview contains useful information on Infiltrator along with information on the android version, which is in production at this moment, this information given near the end of the interview.
Answer: Android version is on it's way actually! It's official!
Comment: Do you have a link to support this?
Comment: IronMonkey design director Jarrad Trudgen says as much in [this video interview for Gamespot](http://www.gamespot.com/mass-effect-infiltrator/videos/mass-effect-infiltrator-interview-with-jarrad-trudgen-6364875/).
Answer: There's also Mass Effect Datapad, that is supposed to have a readiness/war asset effect as well.  The data pad is not available as of 11:15 AM EST 3/12/2012. It was supposed to be out the same time as Infiltrator, so I expect it to be out soon.
I have not seen any material indicating that either will be released for any platform other than iOS.

Android app to increase readiness


Why do Fama French use NYSE breakpoints in the factors creation

Question: Why do Fama French use NYSE breakpoints in the factors creation and not just aggregate all the stocks on the three exchanges and use that to create the portfolios used to create factors.
Comment: I agree; seems kind of arbitrary. Why not impose size or liquidity based thresholds?
Answer: The CRSP tape covers NYSE stocks since 1926. The Amex and Nssdaq stock data kicks in later (1960s).  Therefore if you are going to use one consistent method to break stocks into market value groups it needs to be based on NYSE criteria.  If you base it on all CRSP stocks there will be a break or inconsistency in the year when non-NYSE stocks are added and the number of CRSP stocks increases greatly and most of the new stocks coming in are fairly small cap. (If you plot the median (or other quantile) of all CRSP stocks MV there is a big drop at that time. Nothing has changed in the US economy, it is just that a lot of small cap and microcap stocks are joining the CRSP database that were previously not included).
Answer: They mention in one of their papers that "microcaps", those stocks that make up 60% of the investable universe by number only make up something like 3% of total market value. The variability in characteristics of these stocks would mean they determine most of the portfolio breakpoints when you perform sorts. The use of NYSE breakpoints prevents this.


Union of an Intersection Notation

Question: What exactly does $\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty\bigg(\bigcap_{k=n}^\infty E_k\bigg)$ mean? I am confused particularly by $k$ depending on $n$.
Comment: I think I've posted an answer to essentially this same question here before, except that I think it was phrased in the language of lim-infs and lim-sups of sets.
Answer: It is a way of taking a 'limit' of sorts of a collection of sets (the $\liminf$).
When you see $\bigcup$, think $\exists$, when you see $\bigcap$, think $\forall$.
So, the above would be $ x \in \bigcup_{n=1}^\infty \bigcap_{k=n}^\infty E_k $ iff $\exists n \geq 1 $ such that $ \forall  k \geq n$, $ x \in E_k$.
Answer: For any individual number $n$, $$\bigcap_{k=n}^{\infty}E_k=E_n\cap E_{n+1}\cap\cdots$$ is some set we may call $F_n$. Then we want $\bigcup\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}F_n$.
Answer: For each positive integer $n$ you compute the intersection
$$\bigcap_{k=n}^\infty E_k=E_n\cap E_{n+1}\cap E_{n+2}\cap\dots\,;$$
call this set $T_n$. Now you compute the union of all of the sets $T_n$:
$$\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty\left(\bigcap_{k=n}^\infty E_k\right)=\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty T_n\;.$$
$T_n$ is the set of all points that are in every $E_k$ from $E_n$ on; we might say that these are the points that are in every member of the $n$-th tail of the sequence $\langle E_k:k\in\Bbb Z^+\rangle$ of sets. The bigger $n$ is, the easier it is to be in $T_n$: for instance, to be in $T_7$ you have to be in $E_7$ (and every $E_k$ with $k\ge 7$), but to be in $T_{17}$ you don't have to be in $E_7$ (or in $E_8,E_9,\dots,E_{15}$, or $E_{16}$). Thus, $T_1\subseteq T_2\subseteq T_3\subseteq\dots$, and the union of these sets $T_n$ may be larger than any of the individual $T_n$'s.
Answer: A higher-level interpretation is that $x \in \bigcup_{n=1}^\infty \left( \bigcap_{k=n}^\infty E_k \right)$ iff there are only finitely many $k$ such that $x \notin E_k$.
To see this, first note note that if $x \in \bigcup_{n=1}^\infty \left( \bigcap_{k=n}^\infty E_k \right)$ then there must be an $n \geq 1$ such that $x \in \bigcap_{k=n}^\infty E_k$, but then $x \in E_k$ for all $k \geq n$, and therefore if $x \notin E_k$ it must be that $k$ is among $1,2,\ldots,n-1$.
In the opposite direction, if $\{ k \geq 1 : x \notin E_k \}$ is finite, then it has a maximum element $n$.  It then follows that $x \in E_k$ for all $k \geq n+1$, and so $x \in \bigcap_{k=n+1}^\infty E_k \subseteq \bigcup_{n=1}^\infty \left( \bigcap_{k=n}^\infty E_k \right)$.
Answer: This is a limit-infimum of a collection of sets $E_k$. Think of $\cap_{k=n}^\infty E_k =E_n\cap E_{n+1}\cap\ldots$, so taking the union over $n$ defines those points $x$ which belong in some tail $E_n\cap E_{n+1}\cap\ldots$. More specifically, a point $x$ belongs to $\cup_{n=1}^\infty \left(\cap_{k=n}^\infty E_k\right)$ if there exists a $n=n(x)$ (that depends on $x$) with $x\in \cap_{k=n(x)}^\infty$. In other words, $x$ belongs to every $E_i$ for all $i\geq n(x)$.

Union of an Intersection Notation


Should you let PVC primer (purple) dry before applying cement?

Question: Should you let PVC primer (purple) dry before applying cement or is it okay to apply cement over wet primer?
Answer: No - PVC Primer does not need to 'dry' before use - in fact, it needs to be wet to do it's job and not impede the cement - remember, plumbers in a hurry use this daily and aren't sitting around waiting for the primer to dry before grabbing the cement.
I make sure everything fits first, then grab the primer and swab it on, set it down and grab the cement and swab it on.  If you wait - it's likely no more the 10 seconds.  If you've waited a few minutes because you've gotten distracted, made a mistake or something and it's fully dry, just reprime to be sure the plastic is accessible and softened for the cement.  If you don't- it can prevent the cement from bonding as well to the plastic.
The cure-times listed on the can are for after the cement cures- typically 2 sets of times will be listed - one for handling and one for pressure testing.
Comment: This answer is correct, not the the previous one.  See Oatey's instructions on the can or at http://www.oatey.com/products/plastic-pipe-cements-and-primers/oatey-primers - it reads "Additionally, after application of the primer, the solvent cement should be applied immediately before the primer dries."
Comment: Actually the brand I use (weld on purple) says you must wait 20-30 seconds at 70-100f,  60-90 seconds at 40-69f  pipes larger than 1 " a second application is required. This comes from the Weld-on label if you don't wait long enough the plastic will not be softened (primers job)
Answer: The primer needs time to do its work. In the summer time I wait for it to be dry. In systems that are using higher pressure or cold weather I really do wait several minutes. The instructions do provide times for size and temps but my can is not readable. I have only had 4" at 90 psi fail but after that I did start waiting longer after reading all the instructions. I think there is some safety built into the suggested times.


A firm mousse with juice with my cream whipper

Question: Can I create a firm mousse (dense self holding foam) with juice and no fat or dairy with my cream whipper?
Answer: It's very difficult to create a firm anything with a cream whipper, since by definition what it does is whip. It's meant for preparations that incorporate a lot of air - i.e. light and fluffy. Most mousse recipes don't only use cream, they also use eggs and/or gelatin and that is what gives it its body.
There are certainly ways to whip things without cream - for a gel preparation (as opposed to a foam) you're generally looking at egg whites (or equivalent), gelatin, or carrageenan. Gelatin is already a very common ingredient in mousses, but I think carrageenan might be a better choice for what you're trying to do, because of its shear-thinning property; whereas with gelatin you have to heat it in order to loosen it up, carrageenan you can just shake a bit.
I think you'd do well to start off with a meringue-based mousse and forget the whipper, just to see if it's a texture you like. You make the base and then fold in the other ingredients. It's not going to be the same as a traditional mousse at all, but nothing will be without fat. Italian meringue has more of a frosting/icing-like quality, so you could try that as well.
Then you could try incorporating iota carrageenan (kappa isn't shear-thinning) or gelatin. I don't think I'd recommend a whipper for this, though. Typically you'd make this by first preparing the meringue, then folding in egg yolks and other flavours. The gelling agent would probably go in with the latter half, since I'm not sure if it's possible to whip egg whites with gelatin or carrageenan already incorporated (I've never tried, but it sounds dubious). If you do it in a whipper, I'm not sure how you could separate these steps. You could try to do them together if you don't mind the possibility of throwing away ingredients; my guess is that it might fail to whip at all, or if it does whip, then might be too thick to dispense.
You might also consider more traditional dairy substitutes - for example, there's a recipe for coconut oil chocolate mousse that you should be able to adapt to fruit. Coconut oil is a fat, of course, but I'm assuming your real issue is dairy - you don't explain your reason why you can't have fat or dairy and without details, it sounds like an unnecessarily arbitrary restriction - if this has something to do with not wanting a "fattening" dessert then it's the sugar, not fat, that you should be concerned about.
Anyway, one last thing - you probably will not meet with much success trying to use actual juice for this. I suggest using an extract and some food colouring if you want it to look right - or maybe some frozen juice concentrate, so you don't need to use as much. If you're whipping egg whites, you can't water it down, and you don't want to lower the pH too much either.
Answer: Aaronut's answer is spot on, and gives lots of details, but if you are not experienced with foams, you might need some more general information before you read the details.
The simple answer is: no, you can't. There are very few substances in the kitchen which do foam, and even less whose foam doesn't dissipate after a few seconds.
The two most common foams in the kitchen are whipped cream and meringue. Whipped cream works because cream is a fat-based emulsion; you need at least 30% of fat in your food to create this type of foam (and, if it isn't already emulsified the way cream is, you might need to add emulsifiers, such as the egg yolk in mayonnaise).
The second common foam is meringue. It is protein-based. As Aaronut's answer says, it only works as long as it is not watered down. If you add stuff to it, the proteins cannot hold to each other any more, your additional liquid gets in the way. This is why he suggests working with an extract and food coloring.
Any other foam must be created by adding a thickening agent capable of achieving firmness, and forcing bubbles into your mixture. A cream whipper cannot force bubbles into anything; it does mix liquid with air, but it only creates bubbles if it is a bubble-friendly liquid like cream or egg whites. You'd need a special foaming device and thickeners to firm the foam. This is what the other part of Aaronut's answer explains - the gelatin/carrageenan part of it.


Shrink or remove swap with 4GB RAM and SSD?

Question: I wasn't exactly sure so I created a swap partition 4100MB in size. Now I have swappiness at 0 and it's highly unlikely I'll ever need swap because I don't use any memory intensive apps. I also don't hibernate. My SSD is large enough at 256GB but not huge with half of it used by Win 8.1. Should I shrink swap and if yes to what size or should I get rid of it altogether.
Answer: 4GB RAM isn't that much actually, if you run chrome or firefox and you have multiple tabs opened for a while you can get to 4GB usage quite quickly.
You can monitor your ram usage with the "System Monitor" application. If you find that you never really exceed 4GB and your swap remains empty you might consider shrinking it. I wouldn't recommend getting rid of it altogether, since Ubuntu will randomly close applications if you run out of RAM and you have no swap.
I have installed myself a little indicator which always shows me how much RAM i use, which I find quite handy. You can find the instructions how to install it in this post: https://askubuntu.com/a/40019/255967
Answer: No specific rule for the optimum size of a swap partition exists. If it did, we'd all be using it and installers would offer to set things up automatically.
If a machine has no swap partition and the amount of code and data that attempts to be loaded into memory exceeds the size of that memory , there's a very good chance that things will just stop until the user manages to close something. If the machine does have a swap partition, chuncks of code and data will be written and read to and from the swap file until the demand on RAM decreases.
Adjusting the size of the partition may affect the number of disk accesses, but it can't work magic. Writing to and reading from a drive is orders of magnitude slower than shuffling bits around in RAM.
Red hat recommends setting as follows for RHEL 5:
The reality is the amount of swap space a system needs is not really a function of the amount of RAM it has but rather the memory workload that is running on that system. A Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5 system will run just fine with no swap space at all as long as the sum of anonymous memory and system V shared memory is less than about 3/4 the amount of RAM. In this case the system will simply lock the anonymous and system V shared memory into RAM and use the remaining RAM for caching file system data so when memory is exhausted the kernel only reclaims pagecache memory.
Considering that 1) At installation time when configuring the swap space there is no easy way to predetermine the memory a workload will require, and 2) The more RAM a system has the less swap space it typically needs, a better swap space
Conclusion
If Linux kernel is going to use more than 2GiB swap space at a time, all users will feel the heat. Either, you get more RAM (recommend) and move to faster storage to improve disk I/O. There are no rules, each setup and configuration is unique. Adjust values as per your requirements. Select amount of swap that is right for you.
Install from the Ubuntu software center> Gnome system monitor.  Select tab where it say\
Resources . See where you have swap > You can monitor this when you have a lots of applications or huge work load on your CPU to see if or when it is time to increase swap size. I personally have as much swap as i have RAM for specially when you have many app's open your system will be slow. Specially when you play online games or in general game playing.
If you wanna adjust your swap depends on if you encrypted the disk or not in your initial installation. Type Gparted in terminal ctrl+alt+T if it is missing you can install it from the software center and run it to increase swap.


Job opportunities

Question: Does anyone know the difference in job opportunities between video game sound design and film sound design. Which one has more opportunities to get a job, know from experience? Is the pay any different?
Answer: As an active job seeker, I've seen more game audio jobs than film jobs. But, lately, there have been more internships in audio post as well as entry level positions as a runner in an audio post facility.  But, I just started looking so my answer may not be all that accurate.

Job opportunities


How do you find new venues to publish your work?

Question: With 5000+ markets what strategies and tactics have you found useful to pinpoint your submissions and find new markets to publish your work more efficiently than Duotrope's basic search function?
Comment: Duotrope has a good search, I think. You can narrow things down by how you want to submit, genre, payment, publication medium, etc. If you get a list that's too long, either add more criteria or save the search and go through it in chunks.
Answer: Some of this depends on what type of writing you do. Literary-type writing (poetry, fiction, creative nonfiction, hybrid) is probably easier to narrow down — or else I have a better idea about it — than articles of an informative nature one published, say, on the internet or in niche magazines.
Your first step is to narrow your writing down into the smallest possible category; if fiction, is it sci-fi, young adult, mystery, romance, etc; if poetry, is it formal, free verse, humorous, experimental, etc; if nonfiction, is it memoir, research, lyric essay, etc. Duotrope has a pretty good listing, but you need to check out publications yourself. The question to ask is, do you like what you read there? Then your taste runs close to the editors, so consider that venue. Then, does the type of work they publish seem similar to yours?
Don't be afraid of trying more daunting submissions. Some recommend collecting rejections: aim for 100 in a year. That will keep you busy, and odds are you may get an acceptance, maybe a number of them. Also sometimes editors respond with comments even for rejections. This experience can help you assess future submissions. Or if this all seems too time-consuming, check out Writers' Relief which you can google; they offer submission services and assess your work and can advise as to where to send it for best results. They charge for this, but some say it was worth it. I'm more of a diy type and also use Facebook to network with publishers and editors and have gotten placements that way, but it's not for everyone.
Answer: If you're looking for journals for publishing stories, go to your bookshelf. Pull a story collection by your favorite author. Somewhere in that book you'll probably find a list of places where these stories have been published before. If your writing is like theirs, then this is a good starting point for you. Repeat with the other story collections on your shelves.
Once you have a list of journals, get your hands on as many as possible to verify that they publish work like yours. Then submit with confidence. Good luck.
(I don't know anything about markets or Duotropes but this technique has helped me put together a spreadsheet of journals I'm now sending work to.)


Libraries disappeared from Navigation Pane

Question: On my Windows 7 installation, the Library view disappeared from my navigation pane in Windows Explorer. They can be accessed via Desktop still, but is there a way to get the library back as a separate item in the Navigation Pane?
Answer: If the navigation pane only shows the Desktop, and the Libraries as child item, this is easy to fix:

Just right-click on the free area below the icons in the navigation pane and de-select the option "Show all folders".
Then, the Libraries are again shown as a separate item in the navigation pane:
Answer: I am not sure this will work in your case but I think its better to try something than nothing. After I disabled it purposely this procedure is what I followed to enable Libraries again.
1) WinKey+R
2) Type regedit and Click OK
3)  Navigate to HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT\CLSID{031E4825-7B94-4dc3-B131-E946B44C8DD5}\ShellFolder
4) Select the Shell Folder Folder then Go to Edit Menu  >>  Select Permissions. Permissions Widow will pop -up , Under security Tab  >> Select Administrator >> Tick Full Control >> click Apply and  OK.
5) When you select the Shell Folder, in the right pane you will find Attributes  >> Select The Attribute  >> go to Edit Menu >> Click on Modify >> Input this value  b080010d
6) Make sure the Base is opted for Hexadecimal
7) Click OK
8) Restart


SCCM app install method

Question: I was wondering if it was possible to have SCCM install items on restart like msi's via GPO objects?
Thanks.
Answer: Kvad,
I don't believe that you can set up an install to occur ONLY at startup, if that's what you mean.  You can, however, set up maintenance windows defining when an install can occur.  You can also force the install to occur, or simply allow the user that act at their convenience.
If you want a reboot immediately before the installer launches, set up the install as a task sequence.  As the first step, have the system restarted.  Then, run the app installed on the second step.
Answer: If you don't want to do an SCCM task sequence the only other option is to setup a scheduled task with the "At startup" trigger. You still need to perform an SCCM task sequence, but your only step would be to run "schtasks.exe". That would run the task at the next startup.
I must warn you in advance that the SCCM option that @newmanth suggested is a better choice in most cases. Scheduled task is more geared towards repetitive tasks that need to happen multiple times a year.
Hope this helps

SCCM app install method


Can the same input for a plain neural network be used for a convolutional neural network?

Question: Can the same input for a plain neural network be used for CNNs? Or does the input matrix need to be structured in a different way for CNNs compared to regular NNs?
Answer: There is no restriction on how you input a data to a NN. You can input it in 1D arrays and do element-wise multiplication using 4-5 loops and imposing certain conditions(which will be slow and hence $nD$ matrix notations are used for a CNN).
Ultimately, the library you are using (TensorFlow, NumPy might convert it into its own convenient dimensions).
The main thing different of a CNN from a normal NN is:

The number of parameters of a CNN in a convolutional layer is less than the number of input features.
$parameters \le features$ (in general it is less than).

Different people have different ways of viewing how the convolutional layer work but the general consensus is that the weights of the convolutional layers of a CNN are like digital filters. It will be a $nD$ filter if input dimension is $nD$. The  output is obtained by superimposing the filter on a certain part of the input and doing element-wise multiplication of the values of filter and the values of the input upon which the filter is superimposed upon. How you implement this particular operation depends on you.
So the answer to your question will be same network cannot be used, but it might be used with modifications (a normal NN is the limiting case of a CNN where $features=parameters$.
Comment: What does parameters mean here? The weights and bias?
Comment: @Iamanon yes. Optimizable variables.
Comment: "So the answer to your question will be same network cannot be used, but it might be used with modifications (a normal NN is the limiting case of a CNN where features=parameters." I've never thought about it this way. This is an interesting conclusion.
Comment: @Iamanon in pretty much every beginner tutorial you would see they use a NN with 784 connections for the MNIST dataset with 784 pixels which means that a NN can be thought of a cnn with filter size same as input
Answer:
Neural networks generally deal with 1 D data. For example, the data for a NN would be ( 10 , 12 ) , where 10 is the number of samples.
Convolutional neural networks generally deal with 1D, 2D and 3D data. For example, a 2D CNN would have input as shape ( 10 , 28 , 28 , 3 ) where 10 is the number of samples and ( 28 , 28 , 3 ) is the image size. ( if the input is a image )


Whey Protein or Recovery Formula?

Question: I'm doing P90X and Insanity. I've been taking Amplified Wheybolic Extreme 60 (a whey isolate formula), and it works amazing. I also got the results and recovery formula from beachbody.com when I ordered the workouts, but I haven't used it at all. I'm wondering if it would do me any good to take both, or if I should just stick to the protein. Also, I do one exercise in the morning and one in the evening; should I take both the protein and recovery formula after each exercise, or just stick to one or the other?
Answer: I looked at the ingredients in the P90X Recovery Formula and they included a number of known elements:

Dextrose & Maltodextrin: a sugar to help provide an insulin spike (40g carbs / serving)
Whey Protein Concentrate: protein (10g / serving)
Citric Acid: vitamin C
L-Carnatine & L-Glutamine: Amino acids associated with fat burning and recovery
Creatine Monohydrate: helps get energy back into your muscles (500mg / serving)
Magnesium Oxide: probably the form of magnesium supplement with the lowest absorption rate

An insulin spike after an intense workout helps push energy where it is sorely needed: your muscles.  The common prevailing thought is that that conveys to other needed nutrients like protein.  Whether it truly is cause and effect or simply correlation, your muscles are ready to absorb protein as well post workout.
Without knowing what the percentages of the different ingredients are, these are pretty good recovery supplements.  The problem is the amounts.
Let's contrast this with the AMP Wheybolic Extreme:

Glutamine, Arginine, Leucine, L-Carnitine: Amino acids associated with fat burning and recovery (Leucine is a Branched Chain Amino Acid)
AMP marketing ingredients: carbogen and aminogen don't mean anything outside of AMP products, but I'm guessing it provides the same effect as the dextrose/maltodextrin in the P90X Recovery Formula (note: carbs are only 7g / serving)
Whey Isolate blend: 60g protein / serving

The Wheybolic Extreme supplement is giving you a lot more protein, and some BCAAs which are known to help with recovery.  Between the two supplements this provides a better recovery solution.  The only thing that concerns me are the marketing ingredients.  There really isn't any way to tell what they do for or to you without relying on the AMP marketing hype.
What's missing that could make it better is some Creatine Monohydrate (the only form of Creatine with loads of research behind it and proven results).  The recommended dose of Creatine Monohydrate is about 5g / day.  When you exercise your muscles burn ATP with a byproduct of ADP and lactic acid.  Creatine helps convert the ADP back to ATP, allowing you to do more work.  It is hydroscopic which means you'll have some water weight gain with this supplement--but that does not negatively affect your body composition.
As to completing the supplement profile, as long as you have a multivitamin designed for athletic people and possibly a good magnesium supplement you'll have an even better formula than the P90X Recovery Formula.  Chelated magnesium is probably the gold standard and Optimum Nutrition has a very reasonably priced multivitamin.
Answer: Honestly I think one or the other is good. In my opinion, stick with the Amplified Wheybolic Extreme 60. Whey protein formulas are usually among the best, if not the best. I'm not sure exactly what this recovery formula from beachbody.com is, but I can't imagine it being better than Whey, or adding to your results by taking both.
In terms of taking your protein two times a day. I think you should. I remember when I used to work out at P3...a pretty popular training facility for athletes, I got some info from those guys, some of which had PhDs in kinesiology and such. What they told me was this: It's important to take protein 15-30 minutes after a workout if you want to recover fastest and get the most out of your exercise. I can't tell you exactly why, but I'm going to take their word for it. I always had thought up till then as long as you eat within an hour or hour and a half after a workout, you're fine, but they stressed getting a good protein shake in you DIRECTLY after the workout. They even had their own protein mix at the P3 facility to make sure you got it in you.
So as long as you're doing two different types of workouts (training different muscles) I would take the protein right after each workout. I wouldn't recommend  working out the same muscles twice a day though....that can lead to problems down the road.
Answer: I would drink something after each workout.
You are doing P90X so I am guessing you are trying to get lean/ripped.  If you start dabbling into multiple kinds of supplements I would recommend monitoring your bowel movements.  Your body can only handle getting so much bigger or processing so much protein but it can take in tons of calories.  If you have too much #2 you need to cut the supplements down/out.
Also nothing wrong with 16 ounces of chocolate milk after a workout.

Whey Protein or Recovery Formula?


How address balance is calculated?

Question: It does not seem practical to scan every transaction on a block chain to determine the balance for an account.  As the block chain grows this seems even more difficult and resource consuming. Perhaps all the transactions are grouped into what we used to call a record, specifically a variable length record.
address..trans1, trans2, etc...transN  for the last transaction.
Comment: Note that to bitcoin, "address" and "account" are separate things - which one are you talking about?
Answer: Bitcoin uses the so called UTXO (Unspent Transaction Output) model.
The first time it is not very intuitive because it is different from the traditional accounting model where you just spend from and send to an account.
Think about full piggy banks that can't be filled more than they are and that you have to break open before being able to spend the content:

Bob has 1 piggy bank, he wants to pay Alice with half of the piggy bank's content.
He breaks his piggy bank.
He takes half of it and gives it to Alice, who will put it all in a new piggy bank belonging to her.
You put the remaining half in a new smaller piggy bank belonging to you and which is waiting to be broken open.

Each piggy bank/UTXO is linked to an address.
A Bitcoin user can of course have several UTXOs related to his address. The sum of the UTXOs gives the amount of bitcoins owned by the address (which is one of the function of wallets).
Each transaction input is the output of a previous transaction.
Although wallet software gives the feeling that you "transfer" bitcoins or satoshis, you don't spend from an account you spend UTXO.
You spend from transactions previously made to you.
Answer: A somewhat more intuitive way to think about balance calculations is to think of you you use an actual fiat wallet.
If you want to look at how much money you physically have right now, you would open up your wallet, take out all the notes of varying denominations, and sum them up. This gives you your balance.
Bitcoin does something similar, where an address is similar to your physical wallet. A single address may have multiple utxos linked to it. The balance for that address is the sum of all the utxos.
The key thing here is that bitcoin only tracks unspent transaction outputs. Thus, to arrive at the balance for the address, it just needs to iterate through the blockchain, add new outputs when they are created, and remove old ones when they are spent. Moreover, this is a extendable process. If you know the utxo set as of block 100, you do not need to recalculate from block 0 to update with data from block 101. You can simply update your set from block 100.
This again is similar to how we use physical wallets. No one keeps track of all the notes and coins they have had in the past (spent transaction outputs). They only keep track of what they have currently (utxo). When a new transaction occurs (say you buy milk), you only update the current state of your wallet by removing a note, and putting the change back. You don't need to calculate it from the first time you used money.
Bitcoin takes this a step further and has a concept of accounts, which are multiple addresses that act as one wallet. A similar analogy would be if everyone in your house pooled the money from all of their wallets, so that you can spend it as one. Again, the balance of an account is simply the sum of the balance of the addresses in it.
Answer: Edit:
Address Balance Calculation
An address balance is calculated by adding up all of the values of the unspent transaction outputs (UTXOs) that are spendable by the key pair corresponding to that address.
Storage Structure
To answer the broader question: "why do you scan every transaction on the entire blockchain to determine your balance?"
Bitcoin core does not need to know the balance of an address in order to do validation. It does, however need to be able to scan through all previous transaction outputs in order to validate new ones. To do this, it scans a generated indexed database (by txid) of all transactions for the previous outputs referenced by a new transaction, and verifies that the signature satisfies the previous output (UTXO). Note this only requires scanning unspent outputs not all transactions.
Optimizing this data storage for balance calculation by indexing by address and txid might make balance calculation easier, but it isn't necessary for validation and would be at the expense of transaction verification efficiency. It is better to leave this to a wallet application for the sake of the network.
Previous Answer:
The previous answer explains how to index transactions in bitcoin core which can help a wallet or block explorer determine an address balance more efficiently.
You can index the transactions on the blockchain to make it more easily searchable. Bitcoin-core allows this using the -txindex=1 flag.
From the Bitcoin Wiki:
txindex | Maintain a full transaction index, used by the getrawtransaction rpc call (default: 0)
Comment: This has nothing to do with address balances.
Comment: I agree, the title doesn't seem to match the question. The question talks more about the practicality of scanning all transactions and how that could be done.
Comment: And the answer has no relation to that, because the txindex isn't used for validation even.
Comment: Yeah that makes sense, the question is more high level
Comment: Just updated the answer to better address the question.
Comment: There is no index of txids (or index whatsoever) used at any point in time during validation.
Comment: Is this answer referring to a different utxo index, then? https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/a/29782/60443
Comment: Bitcoin Core maintains a database of all unspent transaction outputs. It isn't an index, as it doesn't index into anything else. The original transactions or blocks that created the outputs being spent are not accessed. It's just adding new outputs to the database, and removing the ones that are spent.

How address balance is calculated?


How can I make Ubuntu only boot from SSD?

Question: I have two drives and I want it so that the ssd drive is only for Ubuntu boot. Nothing saved on it, not even system files just have it boot from ssd and I have a hdd to put storage and any other stuff. how would I go about doing that?
Answer: 2 Options:
Option One:
I would remove the HDD, install Ubuntu on the SSD, and once the installation is done, connect the HDD again.  Open Disks from Dash, and partition and format the HDD if needed.
Image below is instructional only

Option Two:
Now if you want to have /home on the HDD, then leave the drive connected, and choose Something else, and assign /home to the HDD, or maybe /data
Answer: when you install ubuntu, choose "somehing else" install ubuntu, "/" on the ssd and "/home" on the hhd, you can look this link http://www.howtogeek.com/116742/how-to-create-a-separate-home-partition-after-installing-ubuntu/
it show you how to do to other partition, but it work too for other driver,


Time to exit Mumbai (BOM) Intl Airport (Terminal 2)

Question: I will be travelling to Mumbai with an E-Visa and will arrive on Tuesday 10pm. My question is how long it would take to exit the airport(including immigration clearance, customs and baggage claiming)?
Recent experience of anyone with e-visa would be greatly appreciated.
The flight is Thai Airways (Bangkok-Mumbai).
Comment: In 2016 and 2017, I was through in under 45 minutes. The queue for persons with e-Visas was very short. Most passengers either had regular visas in the passport or were Indian nationals. I may have been lucky with baggage claim.
Answer: Frequent traveler to BOM (Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport) here. I would say 45 mins would be a best case scenario in BOM. My previous experiences at BOM are as follows:

There is always an imminent tarmac delay at BOM. You plane lands but ATC does not provide any gate for the flight causing the delay process to begin. Assume here to be ~10-20 mins delay
All gates are significantly far from the Customs/Immigrations and hence I would assume another ~15-20 mins walk from gate to Immigration area

Worst Part begins here:

If one is not an Indian National, one has to fill an immigration form AFAIK. So consider ~1-2 minutes to fill up the form
There are a lot of gates at the immigration checks however people keep pouring in more and more. I expect it requires ~15 minutes (best case scenario ~7 mins) to go up to the counter to the immigration officer
Expect ~2 mins till the immigration officer clears you and then the you are off to the baggage clearance
Good thing is during this time your baggage will be on the conveyors and you will save a few minutes here
Customs check: even if you have nothing to declare there will be a decent line at no declarations customs check where you will be asked by a Customs Officer to place a bag (handbag/check-in bag) on the conveyor for scanning. Expect ~5 mins.

All-in-all it takes one close to ~1.5 Hour from tarmac to get out of BOM. Over the years flight frequency has increased a lot and I do not see any decrease of time at BOM.
Comment: I'm assuming that the airline gives immigration card in the flight itself
Comment: I have seen some airlines do it, but for the past 2 times they don't have the forms and you can get them easily before you enter the immigration area
Answer: I have travelled now and so I can say that it took me 45 minutes to exit the airport after landing. However there was 20 minutes delay for landing, but the flight was 30 minutes early anyways. The E-Visa queue wasn't long and customs check and luggage collection was quick. It took me 10 minutes to walk from the gate to the immigration queue. Immigration form was provided on the flight.


Can a Diesel Aircraft engine be run on Car Diesel?

Question: What are the operational differences between normal diesel fuel used in cars and the Jet-A diesel type fuel used for some prop aircraft such as the Diamond DA62? I know that aircraft use Jet-A fuel, but could an airplane be run on car diesel?
Comment: related? https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/12184/1467
Comment: I don't see that the supposed duplicate answers this question; it does lay out some of the characteristics of a few aviation fuels, but does not answer the question: can an aircraft diesel engine run on auto diesel instead of Jet-A? The answer to that is: it depends, but generally yes. I understand that the SMA diesel, for example, was largely designed to run on auto diesel, but the operators I have worked with use Jet-A due to availability and fuel quality.
Comment: @Federico not just related, already answered there too
Comment: @JonathanWalters I do not agree that the original version was mainly about running aircraft with diesel. With your edit I agree that it can be reopened.
Comment: According to [this](http://generalaviationnews.com/2011/03/17/jet-a-versus-diesel-fuel/) it seems like Jet-A is actually _worse_ for diesels. The reason to use it is that it is already available at airports (in Europe more than in US).
Comment: @JonathanWalters I agree with Federico, your edit significantly changed the question which was asked.
Answer: In at least some cases, yes. Continental's CD-155 diesel engine will run on auto diesel, Jet A or any mixture of both:

The CD-155 is certified for the use of both jet fuel and diesel (DIN
  EN590) and is running with the two fuels in any mixture ratio.

EN590 is the European standard for auto diesel. The Gemini 125 engine can run on Jet A and diesel according to their website, as can the Austro AE300. So it seems that in general, aircraft diesel engines can indeed run on auto diesel.
Answer: Yes, and diesel cars can run on aviation jet fuel. Have heard delightful testimony of this from some owners of diesel cars who worked at an airport.
The Austro diesel engine in a Diamond aircraft is an adaptation of a Mercedes car diesel engine. Runs fine on both car diesel and jet A-1.
Comment: There is an airframe modification required (at least on the DA42) to use diesel, but I don't know the extent of it (it may be a simple placard swap).
Answer: Some more examples of (ultra-light) planes running on car diesel:

FlyEco developes a diesel engine (derived from the Mercedes-Benz Smart car), running on diesel and jet A-1.
The FlyEco engine was further incoperated with Siemens into a hybrid experimental plane, which unfortunately crashed.


Scope for one click deploy

Question: So one of the goals of a software company is to have one click deploy.  I think this is a major responsibility of the dev ops team.  Whether or not it is should be reserved for another conversation.  My question is that our company has multiple individual artifacts that make up a release.  Should the developers be able to one click deploy all these artifacts at once, or should each artifact be deployed individually?
Answer: The answer is: it depends.
Before I answer, I need to provide definitions for a couple of terms to prevent ambiguity.
1) Deploy is defined as the act of changing executables in an environment. This might mean that new source is copied over, and some process is restarted. Or a new version of a docker container is placed into an orchestrator - doesn't really matter.
2) Release is defined as the act of making new functionality available to users of the system.
Do note that while in most organizations release and deploy happen together, they definitely don't have to be.

Every released change (usually) requires new code to be deployed. But not every deployment of code means new changes were released to be used.

Let us first look at the best case possible. Where you don't have any button that requires pushing, to get a deployment to happen. Every change sent to your version control system - automatically gets tested for correctness and is automatically deployed to your system.
Now your question is optionally several different questions:

Do I have a way to release a new feature and is that way manual? (button)
Do I release ALL available (multiple) features at the same time when that button is pushed?
Do my feature releases require changes to happen in multiple decoupled parts of the system?

Since releasing new functionality requires some business approval. For example, the UX and correctness of the new functionality must actually bring value to your customers. It makes sense to have a "dark" release that only some friendly customers can see and provide feedback for. Then when these customers are happy with the value they get, your business can decide to make this new functionality generally available (GA).
Should this feature break the system when released, it is possible to turn off the switch that made it released in the first place. All of which does not require any new code (or old code) to be deployed to the system, because the code is already there.
When you consider that deploy and release are separate, it makes the decision to deploy everything together or separately simpler.

The manufacturing world and Toyota Production System specifically have taught us that having small batches is much more beneficial than batching work items together. TPS even goes as far as to strive for single-piece-flow, where each work item is delivered to the next work center alone and not in a batch.
Agile methodologies have taken a cue from TPS and also describe the benefits of having small-batches. These would be described as a "sprint" with a definite deployed deliverable at the end and striving to keep the sprints as short as possible. This allows to run short experiments and receive feedback regarding the value of the changes created as soon as it is possible to do something about them.
Continuous Delivery is taking this even further by saying that any finished code, should be deployed to your systems as soon as it was auto-tested. And a release can happen at any time when someone decided to do so. And experiments can be validated as part of the development cycle. Moving the definition of "done" for a developer away from "I finished writing my code" and towards "I received feedback from customers that they received value". The shorter the feedback cycle is - minutes, seconds, etc... the better. And batching is a deterrent to short feedback.
By having a button that by definition batches things together, would mean that risk of problems is higher. Learning from TPS, Agile and CD means that single-piece is far superior and has many benefits.

The answer "it depends" is correct because all of what I wrote above highly depends on the maturity of your organisation. The amount of automation you have. The amount of communication you have. And many other factors.
Separating release from deployment requires continuous integration and deployment. As well as a system that enable to select which features to release. For example https://github.com/intuit/wasabi or https://www.infoq.com/presentations/etsy-deploy
Comment: It depends, indeed. That includes the superiority of the single-piece deployment. For some critical systems it may be better to deploy multiple/all pieces in a monolithic manner, to significantly reduce the number of combinations that need to be tested and validated prior to deployment.
Answer: All these artifacts should be deployed at once. Otherwise, it is not truly "one click."
Comment: these are like micro services.  So all micro serves that talk to one another need to be deployed at once?  That doesn't seem right.
Comment: As opposed to deploying a microservice that can't do anything because it can't talk to another needed microservice that has yet to be deployed?
Comment: It is actually the better practice to have microservices handle failure to talk to another missing one gracefully. Having microservices decoupled from each other means exactly this. Then even when you deploy a new version for a hundred new services, the single one which fails to work correctly will not affect the other 99 because of loose coupling and graceful failure handling.

Scope for one click deploy


What Place was Jesus going to prepare

Question: In John 14 Jesus tells the disciples that he was going to prepare a place for them. Isn't it that heaven was already founded from creation?  So, what place was he referring to? Was this just a figure of speech?
Answer: Technically, I don't know of any place in the Bible that says that the saved go to Heaven when they die. It says they go to "paradise", that they go to be "with Jesus", etc, but I don't know any verse that says this is Heaven. Exactly what the place where the saved go is called is not entirely clear.
Perhaps the place that Jesus went to prepare is the New Jerusalem of Revelation.
Or if it is the same Heaven mentioned throughout the Bible, this would not really cause a problem with this verse. To "prepare" a place does not necessarily mean that you are creating it from nothing. He might have meant that he was preparing Heaven to receive the saved. Like someone might say, "Oh, I have to get home to prepare the house for the party tonight." They don't mean that they're building a new house, but that they are going to decorate their existing house, arrange furniture, put out clean towels, etc.
Answer: Jay's answer has got the general idea right, but the meaning of what Jesus said is much deeper and much more significant. I first heard about this in a sermon earlier this year, but you can find corroboration of this online (like here).
In Biblical times, the Jewish custom of marriage was such that even after the bride and bridegroom were married (after the bride accepted the cup), the bride didn't go and live with her "husband" nor did they build a new house and move there. Rather, the man went back to his father's house and built a room that added on to his father's house. When the room was finished, the husband could go back and get his wife. However, it was the man's father who decided when the room was done, when it was satisfactory. Once the father finally said that the man's room was done, then the man could go and get his bride with much fanfare, bring her back to his house, and they would have a feast - the wedding feast.
I love this stuff!
Sound familiar? It should! Jesus offering the Cup of the Covenant is His proposal! However, His bride couldn't go and be with Him just yet; He had to prepare a place for us first.

John 14:2 (CEV)
2 There are many rooms in my Father's house. I wouldn't tell you this, unless it was true. I am going there to prepare a place for each of you.

When His Father finally tells Him that everything is ready, then He'll come back and get us.

John 14:3 (NLT)
3 When everything is ready, I will come and get you, so that you will always be with me where I am.

When the rooms are completed, Jesus will be released to come and get His Bride - the Church!
The exact identity of this place (God's mansion) isn't explicitly given in the Bible, but it's most likely the New Jerusalem (where 20 billion inhabitants could each have a room that was a cube half a mile long, wide, and high). Heaven may have been one of the first things God created, but by no means does that mean Jesus can't continue creating, either in Heaven or on Earth. If anything, God consistently and frequently shows that He likes to be intimately involved with His creation, fiddling with the little details and enjoying watching things unfold.
So, to directly answer your questions, Jesus was talking about Heaven, and He wasn't using a figure of speech at all. He meant it literally.
Answer: Jesus went to prepare a place for us. In the Temple of God. The Body of Christ.
He prepared it by sending the Holy Spirit at Pentecost.
We each are living stones, fitted together.
This doesn't preclude an afterlife in "Heaven".
But it emphasizes our responsibilities in the present.
Answer: My conclusions are that Jesus referred to a new spiritual function within the souls of the apostles,and eventually within all those souls who live a holy life, from Pentecost onwards,and their soul was and is, the new place Jesus prepared and took to himself, and in the same time the apostles,and all those who live a holy life,were,and would also be with Jesus,AS ONE!
THis is even emphatically more clear further down in
John 14:18:I will not leave you orphans, I will come to you.
and in:
14:23 Jesus answered, and said to him: If any one love me, he will keep my word,
The above is a clear reference to Jesus' presence within humans as "THE WORD" to all those who live a holy life.
and my Father will love him, and we will come to him,
The above is a reference to the presence of the Paraclete, the Holy Spirit within a human soul when a person lives a holy life continually.
and will make our abode with him.
The above is a reference to Jesus Christ our Lord God,  in the glory of the Father, within the human soul, once a person has achieved union with God WHILE ON EARTH!
Jesus made sure that he would be understood, in John17:20 when while praying he asserted this and said:
20 And not for them only do I pray, but for them also who through their word shall believe in me;
21That they all may be one, as thou, Father, in me, and I in thee; that they also may be one in us;
that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.
AS CLEAR AS CRYSTAL:
ALL THE ABOVE COULD AND WOULD BE ACHEIVED ON EARTH BY HUMANS ONCE THEY LIVE A HOLY LIFE IN THE TRUTH! and those who experience this would be aware that
JESUS WAS SENT BY THE FATHER
I hope I am clear enough!
Comment: Welcome Charles!  Sadly, this answer seems to just express your opinion, which isn't what this site is about: please take a minute to learn [how this site is different from others](http://meta.christianity.stackexchange.com/a/1809/21576), and review [how to write a good, supported answer](http://meta.christianity.stackexchange.com/q/692/21576).

What Place was Jesus going to prepare


Can a software defined radio with a frequency range of 300 MHz – 3.8 GHz detect AM (535 to 1705 KHz) and FM signals (88 to 108 MHz)?

Question: I am interested in knowing whether BladeRF SDR with a frequency range of (300 MHz - 3.8 GHz) detect AM and FM frequencies? Also, how important is the sampling rate of the SDR. For example, BladeRF has a sampling rate of 80 KSPS - 40 MSPS. What does this number signify? will every signal going out/in the SDR be sampled with this sample rate? Similarly, what does the maximum bandwidth signify?
Comment: In addition to an upconverter (I have [this one](https://www.nuand.com/product/hf-vhf-transverter/)), the main challenge in receiving AM will be getting a suitable antenna.
Answer: For those given specs, without additional hardware (upconverters) or modifications to the SDR circuit, it's not possible to detect AM or FM (88-108 MHz) range of frequencies. As you might have also seen, there are frequency range extenders (especially on the low frequency range) available as kits.
Also, the sampling rate determines the maximum bandwidth of simultaneous detection (or spectrum analysis if you prefer to use the SDR for that purpose). So, the bigger the sampling rate the larger will be the spectral bandwidth that you can capture instantaneously. This means, more radio channels are observed at once and more carriers are searched without changing the central tuning frequency of the SDR tuner chip. Which makes it faster in spectrum scanning applications.
However, using a large bandwidth (high sampling rate) mode of SDR, might bring the problem of transmitting the data from SDR to PC, especially on a USB 2.0 interface. (this is not a problem on most ubiquitous SDR receivers used at 2.4 MSPS rates) Also more processing and interrupting than necessary (provided a narrow bandwidth radio channel is to be demodulated) is done at those high sampling rates, to decode just a small portion of the analysis bandwidth.


Is there any cockpit procedure used to avoid shutting the good engine, instead of the bad one (on fire, for example)?

Question: Reading some reports, about the failure of crew members to fully understand the fault on engines, rarely, but it happens, the crew can misjudge the engine on fire, shutting down the good one. On airlines where you fly, is there any standard procedure to avoid this event, I mean, shutting the good engine, instead of the bad one?
Comment: As a PPL, I was watching a CFII in a twin-sim when he was given an engine out situation.  He ended up shutting down the good one.  When we talked about his thinking later, one major factor was that in his mind, one engine was dead... and you don't bother giving control inputs to a dead engine. (kinda seems common-sense, right?)   So he ended up going through the shutdown sequence, but on the good engine.  Obviously, task saturation was another major factor.
Comment: The question that Simon points to is itself marked as duplicate, however the answer given in it before it was so marked is the answer that I believe would be given here, so I agree with this duplicate marking.
Comment: @CGCampbell After reading your comment I've just nominated the linked question to be reopened. I don't see any reasonable way that a question about shutting down an engine can be a dupe of one about bank angles. It looks like over-generalizing to me. Others may disagree, of course :-)
Comment: I'm not sure about a standard procedure, but I was taught to say aloud "dead leg, dead engine", meaning that the leg you are not pushing with to maintain directional control is the one with the problem. Only works on twins of course, and only if they have lost power.
Comment: [This](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=U9zjD-odM40) video might be interesting: note that both pilots have to agree (affirm) before 1) thrust to idle, 2) engine master switch off and 3) engine fire switch on.
Answer: Procedures exist
If you read about the Kegworth crash you will see that the pilot started to follow a procedure he has been trained on but was interrupted by an ATC call and failed to complete the procedure. The procedure involves checking the engine vibration meters and reviewing decisions.
So, yes, procedures exist.

Procedures vary
Procedures vary depending on exact aircraft model and on the airline operating the aircraft. Some airlines use more memory checklists than other airlines. So it isn't possible to list a specific procedure that is used by all pilots of multi-engined aircraft.
Identifying problems
Pilots don't start from the point "we need to shut down engine No 2" they start from some observable event like "smoke in the cockpit" (as in the example incident above)
There are instruments on the instrument panel that show engine temperatures, vibration and other parameters that should usually make it evident which engine is not performing normally.
Here's an example procedure - note that this isn't the one for the airline and plane model in the incident above but it is probably similar

Note the points

Eliminates No 2 engine as source ...
...
Eliminates No 1 engine as source ...
Comment: The main problem as I recall was that their systems knowledge was not up to date on the 734 and they had received no type training.  On 731, 732 and 733, cabin conditioning air was drawn from engine 2.  On the 734, it is drawn from engine 1.  They could smell smoke co-incident with the engine failure and the bad systems knowledge was a strong driver in their decision that engine 2 had failed.
Comment: @Simon: Yes, however the Q was "are there procedures" - so I decided the actual contributing factors in this incident were not especially relevant to my answer.
Comment: There are also the instruments which might be able to tell the pilot(s) if an engine is goofing up.
Comment: I still have a question: Suppose, engine number 1 fire (twin engined aircraft). For any reason (poor training or poor CRM), the crew shut the engine number 2 down. TO AVOID THIS, is there any procedure (standand one) to be followed, to avoid this to happen?
Comment: @user12207: See update
Answer: The point is to be sure that the affected engine is shut down. Boeing has inserted a recommendation for that in their Flight Crew Training Manual (FCTM), mentioning explicitly:

Mistakes were done in the past.
Don't hurry in the engine shutdown.
PF must coordinate with the PM in the procedure.

The procedure also includes to retard thrust on the affected engine slowly. It gives time to feel something unexpected, like the aircraft loosing power on both engines (for a twin).
You can find such recommendation in the Boeing 737 NG FCTM and the 777 FCTM, like this one, page 308 (this is logical page 8-8 in both manuals).
Recommended technique for in-flight engine shutdown
Extract for convenience:

These FCTM are usually customized by operators / airlines before being used for crew training, so the recommendation may be improved or edited to better fit the company standards, but that's the idea.
The recommendation is not to be confused with the checklist for shutting down an engine, which depends on the cause of the problem. The checklists are part of the non-normal checklists (referenced in the extract above as NNC). E.g. if there is a fire detected, the crew will apply the related NNC which is found in the Quick Reference Handbook (QRH), like this one, page 170. Extract for convenience:

While the NNC in the QRH just provides steps like:
<code>Thrust lever (affected side) . . . . . .  Confirm. . . . . . . . . .  Idle
</code>
the FCTM recommendation provides a way to train crews to ensure the affected side is properly identified.
Comment: This is similar to what I was taught, and some have the PIC guard the good engine(s) before the bad one is shut down as well.
Answer: The design of the cockpit itself shows that there is a procedure.
If you look in places like Airliners.net the upper panel in an Airbus, you will find that the extinguishers have a cover to prevent the unintentional activation.
Beyond that, a common approach is asking the pilot monitoring for confirmation about which engine has problems before pressing the button. Of course, to make it work, it has to be emphasized in the training process. I have been a witness in a situation where the pilot asking for confirmation had already the finger on the switch...if that is not corrected, you can be sure that, whatever the answer of the other pilot should be, he would press that button.
Comment: According to the 737NG flight manual that mins [shared](http://aviation.stackexchange.com/a/23075/5517), the PM _should_ have his hand on the switch/button when confirming with the PF that the correct one has been selected. Therefore, witnessing a situation where this happened doesn't seem all that unusual.


Talking during Torah reading

Question: Is one permitted to talk during the communal Torah reading?
Comment: There is a letter from the Tzemach Tzedek, the third Lubavitcher Rebbe, which warns against talking during the torah reading. It was printed in one of the older Chabad Siddurim (Either "Siddur Im Dach" or "Siddur Torah Ohr" - I think). I don't have access to either now, so I can't look it up.
Answer: While it proceeds to list leniencies/exceptions, the Shulchan Aruch Orach Chaim 146:2 states initially that it is prohibited even to speak Divrei Torah even in between aliya's (i.e. while the Torah reading has paused).
One leniency is for one for whom "Torah is his occupation" but the M.B. 9 cites the Elya Rabba (who cites many Rishonim) that no one today is technically included in this category.
Some permit one to study Torah quietly. Some permit one to study if there are ten people (a tzibur/congregation/minyan/etc) listening to the reading, but even then it must be done quietly (M.B. 8)
According to all opinions (M.B. 11) one may read Shnayim Mikra v'Echad b'Targum (2x in the Torah and 1x in the Aramaic translation) during the Torah reading since one is covering the same material.
There are some other issues but I see no basis to discuss other matters which are not related to Divrei Torah, even between aliyos.
Likewise the above leniencies are inapplicable to certain readings such as parshas "Zachor" or parshas "Parah" (see M.B.12, 13).
Needless to say in an area such as this where there are so many different opinions and variables one should discuss the issue with a competent Rav.
Comment: Re: Shnayim Mikra during the public reading, see my investigation here: http://mi.yodeya.com/questions/118/how-to-deal-with-the-parts-of-the-torah-reading-that-are-pre-empted-by-the-congre It seems to me that it's allowed according to many opnions, but not all.
Comment: I'll try to look closer later, but I only see you mention that it is forbidden to do so during parshas Zachor and Parah (etc.) which I noted above. The Mishneh Berurah say "all" agree one may reat Shnayim Mikra v'Echad b'Targum. I'm not arguing that all can't be lav davka, but I don't see it in my quick reading of your link?
Comment: I read somewhere (Don't recall where it was) that one of the reasons that the prophetic reading is called "haftarah" is that it "frees" (*poter*) a person from now being allowed to study *Divrei Torah* on the parsha. So, you can see that listening to the public reading is so important, that you can't even study or read *Rash"i* etc during that time.
Answer: Consult your local Orthodox Rabbi.
The other answer already gave reasons to forbid. I'll give a broader picture as to why one might permit.
1
The basic gemara in question regarding speaking during leining or between one aliyah and the next is in Sotah 39a:

Raba son of R. Huna said: When the Torah-scroll is unrolled it is forbidden to converse even on matters concerning the law; as it is said: 'And when he opened it all the people stood up', and standing up signifies nothing else than silence, as it is said: 'And I wait because they speak not, because they stand still and answer no more.'  R. Zera said in the name of R. Hisda: [It may be derived] from this passage, 'And the ears of all the people were attentive unto the book of the law.'

The bolded phrase is כיון שנפתח ספר תורה, once the sefer Torah is 'opened'. This might refer to unrolling, or to actual reading. If actual reading, then there is no prohibition even of devarim beteilim, non-Torah speech, between aliyot.
The Aruch HaShulchan (who some people follow rather than the Mishnah Berurah) writes in Orach Chaim 146 -- the same siman cited in the other answer:

ודע שזה שאמרה הגמרא "כיון שנפתח ספר תורה אסור לדבר" – הכוונה משעה שמתחילין לקרוא. וכן כתב הרמב"ם בפרק שנים עשר.
  ויש שרוצה לומר דמשעה שנפתחה, גם קודם קריאתה – אסור (עיין מגן אברהם סעיף קטן ג'). ואינו כן, דלהדיא פירש רש"י שם: כיון שהתחיל לקרות, עיין שם. וכן פסקו הגדולים (מעיי"ט ואליה רבה סעיף קטן ג').ש
ודע דרבינו הבית יוסף כתב דאסור לספר אפילו בין גברא לגברא. ויש מתירין בין גברא לגברא, ובפרט האידנא שמאריכין ב"מי שבירך" (ב"ח ומגן אברהם). ובאמת גם כוונת רבינו הבית יוסף הוא מטעם דאתי לאמשוכי (אליה רבה), ולכן עניין קצר – מותר. ובכל זה אין חילוק בין שכבר קרא "שנים מקרא ואחד תרגום" או לא (בית יוסף).ש

To translate:

And know that this that the gemara stated 'once the sefer Torah is opened it is forbidden to speak' -- the intent is from the time they begin to read. And so writes the Rambam in perek Shnaim Asae. And there is one who wants to say that it is from the time it is unrolled, even before reading, it is forbidden (see the Magen Avraham seif karan 3). And it is not so, for explicitly does Rashi explicitly explains there -- once he begins to read, see there. And so pasken the Gedolim.
And know that Rabeinu the Beis Tosef wrote that it is forbidden to speak even between one aliyah and the next. And there are those who permit between one aliyah and the next, and specifically nowadays that they extend in Mi Shebeirachs (see Bach and Magen Avraham). And in truth even the reason of the Beit Yosef is because he will come to extend (Eliah Rabba), and therefore, a short matter is permitted. And in all this there is no difference between whether he read Shnayim Mikra or not.

2
In terms of studying other material during leining, there is the gemara in Berachos 8a:

R. Shesheth used to turn his face to another side and study. He said: We [are busy] with ours, and they [are busy] with theirs.

The peshat in the gemara, IMHO, is just what Soncino writes:

They are engaged in listening to the public reading and we, more profitably, with more advanced study.

That is, the common folk need to hear the public reading of the Torah. But we can learn at a more advanced level, and should learn gemara. This rather radical approach was at odds with expectations, as well as the statement in Sotah, that even in matters of Torah it is forbidden to speak, and so many Rishonim limited this statement in various ways. See a listing in Aruch Hashulchan. For example, that this is only once he had already fulfilled Shnayim Mikra; or only one on the caliber of Rav Sheshet; and to limit this radical approach, people tend to adopt all of the restrictions simultaneously.
3
Returning to the topic of #1, about speaking bein gavra legavra, consider the following:

28 Machatzis ha-Shekel, Aruch ha-Shulchan, and Shulchan ha-Tahor maintain that the Bach permits even idle talk between aliyos. See also Pri Chadash who permits conversing bein gavra l'gavra. Obviously, they refer to the type of talk which is permitted in shul and on Shabbos.

Finally:
That does not mean that one should talk. But on the other hand, it is more complicated than simply saying (as in the other answer) that:

I see no basis to discuss other matters which are not related to Divrei Torah, even between aliyos.

There is a basis, and there is reason to judge others favorably.
Comment: Since the question is not about Shabbos,I don't think a restriction to Shabbos-dik conversation is necessary. Shul-appropriate conversation is another story, of course.
Answer: Halachically Speaking Volume 3, Issue 3 discusses this. It brings many sources for further study.
Some points:

Once the sefer Torah is opened it is forbidden to talk - even words of Torah.
One is not allowed to speak between Aliyot, since he might end up missing part of the reading.
Shnayim Mikra during the Torah reading is permitted, but not recommended.
The poskim say regarding one who talks during the Torah reading: "what will he answer on the Day of Judgment?"

See there for for more details and sources.

Talking during Torah reading


What is the difference between kilesas and asavas?

Question: What is the difference between kilesas and asavas? Or are they synonyms?
Comment: I think that might answered in the answers to this question: [What is effluent?](http://buddhism.stackexchange.com/q/9414/254)
Answer: Good question.
My view is 'kilesa' is the general or broad term referring the mental impurities or toxins.
Therefore, anusaya (underlying tendencies) are kilesa; asava (outflows) are kilesa; hindrances (nirvarana) are kilesa; and the various forms of tanha (craving), attachment & becoming (bhava) are kilesa.
The most subtle level of kilesa is anusaya (underlying tendencies). When the anusaya flow-out of the substratum of the mind, this flowing-out, leakage or fermentation ('bubbling-up') is called 'asava'. The anusaya flow-out as the five hindrances (nirvarana). If the five hindrances take control of the mind and push the mind to engage in external sense objects - craving, attachment & becoming will arise in relation to those sense objects.
In MN 9, the asava are included within the condition of ignorance in the dependent origination.

There are these three fermentations (asava): the fermentation of
  sensuality, the fermentation of becoming, the fermentation of
  ignorance. This is called fermentation. From the origination of
  ignorance comes the origination of fermentation. From the origination
  of fermentation comes the origination of ignorance.
http://www.accesstoinsight.org/tipitaka/mn/mn.009.than.html
Answer: Now that you have got your answer in the earlier post by Dhammadhatu, let me give you this little story from Supreme Buddha's life. How He recognized and overcame these to attain nibbana.
Supreme Buddha admits His past wanderings in existence which entailed suffering, a fact that evidently proves the belief in rebirth. He was compelled to wander and consequently to suffer, as He could not discover the Master Builder that built this house, the body. In His final birth, while engaged in solitary meditation which He had highly developed in the course of His wanderings, after a relentless search He discovered by His own intuitive wisdom the elusive Master Builder, residing not outside but within the recesses of His own heart. It was craving or attachment, a self-creation, a mental element latent in all. How and when this craving originated is incomprehensible. What is created by oneself can be destroyed by oneself. The discovery of the builder/architect is the eradication of craving by attaining Arhantship (perfect one), which in these verses is alluded to as "end of craving."
The rafters of this self-created house are the passions (kilesa) such as attachment (lobha) aversion (dosa), illusion (moha), conceit (māna), false views (ditthi), doubt (vicikicchā), sloth (thīna), restlessness (uddhacca), moral shamelessness (ahirika), moral fearlessness (anottappa). The ridgepole that supports the rafters represents ignorance, the root cause of all passions. The shattering of the ridge-pole of ignorance by wisdom results in the complete demolition of the house. The ridge-pole and rafters are the material with which the builder/architect builds this undesired house. With their destruction the builder/architect is deprived of the material to rebuild the house which is not wanted. With the demolition of the house the mind, for which there is no place in the analogy, attains the unconditioned state, which is Nibbāna. Whatever that is mundane is left behind, and only the Supramundane State, Nibbāna, remains.
Comment: It only proves the scriptures say he was previously subject to myriad 'births' ('jati'). This does not necessarily conclude 'jati' refers to physical birth. For example, at least today in India, the word 'jati' does not mean physical birth.


Overhead of using loop-mounted images under Linux

Question: Is there a CPU/RAM overhead associated with using loop-mounted images versus using a physical partition under Linux?
Comment: I have a choice between creating a partition as an image file and then loop-mounting it, or creating a physical partition. They would both be used the same way.
Comment: When you loop-mount, it is usually because the thing you are mounting is not already a block device. So it comes down to comparing mounting a physical partition and mounting... something else. So it completely depends what that other thing is. This is not a meaningful comparison.
Comment: Could we assume, for argument's sake, that we have a choice of using the image file as a storage device and creating a partition for it?
Comment: I don't follow. You are in possession of a filesystem image in a (regular) file? Then you basically don't have a choice but to use loopback. You say "creating a partition for it" by which I assume you mean "creating a block device for it", and that it *exactly* what a loopback device does for you!
Answer: On Linux <4.4, there is significant overhead when using loop devices on Linux: data accessed through the loop device has to go through two filesystem layers, each doing its own caching so data ends up cached twice, wasting much memory (the infamous "double cache" issue)
Aside from casual use, other alternatives would be to use a dedicated partition or a chroot so that data can be accessed directly.
Release notes for the first version with improved performance:

Faster and leaner loop device with Direct I/O and Asynchronous I/O support
This release introduces support of Direct I/O and asynchronous I/O for the loop block device. There are several advantages to use direct I/O and AIO on read/write loop's backing file: double cache is avoided due to Direct I/O which reduces memory usage a lot; unlike user space direct I/O there isn't cost of pinning pages; avoids context switches in some cases because concurrent submissions can be avoided. See commits for benchmarks.
Comment: I found the quoted text [here](https://kernelnewbies.org/Linux_4.4#head-3cc86ac8e0d9bd425cf00a78234248f1e72d6b26) and the [commit with the benchmarks](https://git.kernel.org/cgit/linux/kernel/git/torvalds/linux.git/commit/?id=bc07c10a3603a5ab3ef01ba42b3d41f9ac63d1b6), but I am having trouble reading them... it seems that IO is actually faster using loopback than using ext4? I'm guessing that using loopback for hibernate to swapfile with btrfs will make no noticable difference then.