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Believe it or not, but there used to be a time in our history when
being overweight and especially obese was considered something good.
These were the times when most people could not afford to get obese
and when overweight people flaunted their excess weight as symbols
of their affluence. If you were to look at the works of baroque
and romanticist painters, you would see that the idea women were
those with extra wide hips and with extra "meat on their bones"
which meant that they ate well and that they would be very successful
at bearing children. However, over time, this point of view disappeared
and for very good reasons.
As medicine progressed and as most people in the West started earning
enough that they can afford food and extra food, people started
noticing that obesity is not exactly something that should be seen
as positive and this has become especially apparent in the last
couple of decades that have seen a large number of people in the
Western world and especially in the United States and the UK becoming
overweight and obese. And it is now a well-known fact that obesity
actually leads to a shorter life expectancy and to a number of medical
conditions. Obesity and being overweight is not just about how we
look when we check ourselves out in the mirror; it is about how
healthy we are and how long we have to live.
There is no doubt that life today is much more comfortable than
is was a hundred years ago, or even 40 or 50 years ago. Many of
us work in jobs that do not require physical work and most of us
get around using motor vehicles, be that public transportation or,
in larger numbers, our own personal cars that we use to get everywhere.
In combination with the accessibility of cheap and not that healthy
foods, we have become receptacles for fat, which seems to mount
up on us as soon as we are born. We have simply stopped being physically
active as most of us spend our free time sitting down or even lying
down, without doing anything physically. All of this contributes
to our gaining extra weight and it all starts when we are children.
The children today, even preschool children, are becoming more and
more overweight and it has become an epidemic. Not even to mention
the grownups which have become mostly overweight. Yes, today it
is less likely to see someone who is not overweight than someone
who is, especially in the US and the UK where obesity has become
a health issue #1.
Obese people and to a lesser extent overweight people need to be
worried mainly for their health. When your body mass index is over
30, the chances of developing high blood pressure or high cholesterol
levels in the blood or even type 2 diabetes increase dramatically.
It is estimated, for instance, that over 80% of people who have
type 2 diabetes are obese and the similar percentages are associated
with hypertension and hypercholesteromia as well.
Even without any complications, all of these conditions (and a
few others that are also more likely in obese people) can be profoundly
negative for the quality of life and can produce symptoms of their
own that can be very bothersome. However, there are innumerable
complications and events that can occur as result of these conditions
that are even more dangerous and which have been identified as the
most common reasons for premature death in the Western countries,
US and UK in particular. Heart attacks, strokes, congestive heart
failure and a number of other events and conditions (mostly of the
cardiovascular nature) are far more likely to occur in obese people.
In short, one needs to start losing weight. One must start losing
weight if one has BMI of over 30.
Before you can start losing weight and before you commit to a single
weight loss program, it is essential that you find out more about
losing weight. And there is plenty of information about this, plenty
with a capital P. It seems that everywhere you look; someone is
trying to sell you or hook you up with a weight loss program that
"definitely works". Other people will tell you how it
is easy as cake to lose weight and that everyone can lose weight
in a few heartbeats. The truth is that it is never that simple and
that there is no sure shot method or a magical weight loss program.
In essence, you need to eat fewer calories than you spend and that
is basically that. However, there are always people for whom this
is particularly difficult and who do not have the time or the will
to exercise for days on end, which is what you will have to do if
you wish to lose weight. Or at least, this is what used to be true.
We said that this used to be true for a very simple reason. And
this reason is that we are living in the 21st century where we have
pills for absolutely everything. We have pills that will help men
keep their hair; we have pills that will help women with their menopause
symptoms. We have pills that can make you numb to pain that would
otherwise have turned your brain into mush and so on. Of course,
we also have pills and products that can help you lose weight and
some very, very efficient ones at that. It is foolish to think that
there is no one out there looking out to make it easier to lose
weight and of course earn tons of money on that. Whenever there
is a potential market, there are hundreds of experts and pharmacists
working on coming up with a product that fills the need of the marketplace.
And that is why weight loss products out there and why they are
The various weight loss products have been on the market for decades
and over the years, experts have come up with new and better ones
that can be used by anyone who wishes to lose weight. And one of
the best things about them is that they can work so well that you
are not even needed to quite doing what you like and that allow
you to keep living the life you always wanted, without having to
put on extra weight and even lose it.
The way in which our body processes food that we ingest and the
way in which our body creates excess weight is a complex one and
it involves much more than just your stomach. It involves your brain,
it involves the liver, it involves the gastrointestinal system and
much, much more. Because of this, there are innumerable variants
of weight loss products that are targeting specific processes in
order to help people lose weight.
For example, there are the so-called anorectic drugs which work
by affecting the neurological processes in the brain and the rest
of the central nervous system. These drugs work by affecting certain
neurotransmitters, thus causing the person to feel less hunger.
In short, they make you feel full and help you stop the food cravings
that are one of the most difficult things to overcome when losing
There are also weight loss products that reduce the amount of fats
that are absorbed from the foods. These drugs help people lose weight
by negating some of the fattening effects of certain foods. Orlistat
is a perfect example of this sort of drugs, allowing people to eat
delicious and otherwise fattening foods without worrying that they
are getting more and more overweight.
There are also those weight loss medications that help people speed
up their metabolism and thus enhance their weight loss program.
These drugs are known as fat burners as they seem to burn fats and
help people get rid of the accumulated fats on their body.
Of course, there are also natural products, formulations that use
the beneficial properties of certain natural ingredients to help
people lose excess weight. One of the most efficient of these is
definitely Phenamax, which contains green tea extract, citrin, yerba
mate and a number of other ingredients which help it be one of the
most efficient products for weight loss.
One of the most intense debates about weight loss products is whether
to go for pharmaceutical drugs or for natural products. There are
many people who have a very singular opinion and who say that either
one or the other type of weight loss products is the best and the
only one you should go for. Proponents of pharmaceutical drugs say
that only these drugs have been recommended by the doctors while
the proponents of natural products say that these are usually unsafe
and that it is a much better idea to use natural products.
The truth is somewhere in the middle and nowhere near these opinions.
It may sound a bit complicated, but it is not. The simple fact is
that there are both pharmaceutical drugs like Obestat and Xenical
that will work perfectly and that will be perfectly safe as long
as you use them as recommended and natural products like Phenamax
that will work just as well as natural products. It is only important
that you learn about which of the weight loss products are efficient
and which have a great track record for being safe as well as efficient.
Of course, it goes without saying that you also need to make sure
that you are getting original products from the licensed manufacturers
which guarantee the quality of their products and the ingredients
that are used to make them. These are the most efficient and safe
ones that you will find on our website - Acomplia, Obestat, Phenamax,
Sibutramine and Xenical. If you choose any of these, you will not
make a mistake.
The place where you get your weight loss drugs is online. The main
reason for this is that you save money that way and a lot of it.
Namely, you will most likely be using your weight loss product of
choice for a long time and you will find out that the costs soon
accumulate and you start spending a lot of money on them. When you
buy weight loss drugs online, you save money as the prices are lower
and you often find great discounts when you by them in larger quantities.
You need to make sure that you have checked out the online pharmacy
where you intend to order the best fat loss drugs to make sure that
you will be getting what you ordered and that the products will
come from certified manufacturers.
When taking weightloss drugs properly is in question, there are
a few things that you need to keep in mind. First of all, you need
to make sure that you have read everything that the instruction
manual says and that you are always taking the recommended dosages.
You should never take more of the weight loss pill of your choice
as you will not get anything and you might harm your health. Also,
most of the weightloss drugs work best when they are combined with
a light, healthy weight loss diet and with exercises. You do not
have to starve yourself or run a marathon every day, but it would
probably be best to include these weight loss practices in your
Once your fast weightloss drugs start taking effect, you will be
amazed and your entire life is going to change. Not only will you
once again be healthy as a whistle and reduce the chances that something
might happen to your health, but you will also look better. You
will be losing fat extra fast and you will feel like an entirely
new person. The weight loss that can be achieved with these products
is more than dramatic and you will soon be seeing a slimmer, more
in shape version of your old you.
Your confidence will skyrocket and you will once again be the hunk
or the hottie that you once were or that you always wanted to be.
It is all about staying slim, staying healthy and staying attractive.
That is what weight loss drugs are all about and what they can do
for you.
Generic vs Brand drug
There are a number of things that absolutely everyone should be
aware of when weight loss is in question. The first of these things
is to realize that obesity and being overweight kills. It shortens
one's life expectancy, it reduces the quality of life and it destroys
one's confidence and one's picture of themselves as someone attractive
and sexy. The health issues are even more concerning as obesity
dramatically increases the likelihood of experiencing various medical
issues, many of them potentially lethal.
The second thing that everyone should be aware of when weight loss
is in question is that it is often much more difficult than most
people will want you to know. There are billions of TV shows, books
and websites that will try and sell you the quip that weight loss
is easy and that losing weight can be done in matter of weeks. For
most people, strenuous exercise and eating only healthy foods is
something that is not that easy and something that can be very,
very difficult. Perhaps there are people who can commit their every
waking hour to exercising and watching their diet, but these people
are a minority and for most of us, losing weight is something that
we could use help with.
The third thing that everyone should be aware of is that there
are weight loss drugs that can help people lose weight. Today, in
fact, there are plenty of weightloss drugs that one can use and
that have been shown to be extremely helpful and essential to their
weight loss programs. And these drugs come from two main sources.
First of all, there are pharmaceutical drugs like Obestat, Xenical
or Sibutramine which were developed by pharmaceutical companies
and there are also natural products, like Phenamax which use natural
ingredients that have been proven to result in weight loss if used
properly and in substantial enough amounts.
With these medications and products, it is easier than ever to
lose weight. They aid your body in losing weight and they make it
your ally and not your adversary if you are looking to lose weight.
Without these products, keeping a fat loss diet is very difficult
as you constantly have cravings for foods that are not that beneficial
for the weight loss program you are on. Without these medications,
it is difficult to stay organized and focused enough to stick with
the program and lose weight. Without these products, your body is
constantly pulling your back, refusing to melt those pounds away
as you go through the hell that is fat loss.
With a little bit of help from these products, however, losing
weight is much, much easier. For one, they will help you stave off
the food cravings and get your gastrointestinal system to work with
you. They will also help you absorb less fat from the foods that
you eat and they will also help your body melt the pounds away through
enhancing the process called thermogenesis which helps your metabolism
flush out the fats.
In short, weight loss is these days an easier task than ever and
that has everything to do with the information that is available
to us and with products and weight loss drugs that make losing weight
something everyone can accomplish.
Obesity is currently one of the biggest problems that the modern
medicine faces if not the leading problem. The modern way of life
has lead to the majority of population in the US becoming overweight
if not obese which leads to a number of health issues and premature
deaths that have become so common that it is estimated that more
people die from cardiovascular problems associated with obesity
than from anything else. In short, more and more people are looking
for ways in which they can have the most efficient weight loss program
possible and that is where weightloss drugs come in.
The good news is that today, there are more weight loss drugs than
ever before and that there are new ones coming out and joining the
existing ones that have become very popular among people who wish
to lose weight, improve their health and look more attractive. Currently,
there are a few products that are considered the best fat loss drugs
and these include Xenical, Sibutramine, Phenamax, Obestat and Acomplia
among others.
There are different ways in which these weight loss drugs work.
Some of them help you curb the feeling of hunger and stick with
the weightloss diet, there are some that help by binding the fats
in the stomach and preventing them from being absorbed by the gastrointestinal
system and there are those which help the body burn fats. Most of
these weightloss products are pharmaceutical drugs which means that
they have gone through extensive clinical trials that showed they
are efficient and safe and there is also a natural fat loss drug,
Phenamax which has been lauded as the best weight loss drug to come
out of the world of natural medicine.
These drugs affect the weight loss programs in dramatic ways, helping
people lose substantially more weight than they would without these
drugs. They help people reach their goal weight more quickly and
they help them feel better about themselves, stimulating them and
inspiring them to keep losing weight and really make the difference.
Without these various weightloss drugs, losing weight is an ordeal
and with them, it is something everyone can accomplish, no matter
how much they are committing to their weight loss program. Of course,
they still work best if you keep a healthy diet and exercise, but
with these products, these are far less important than before.
When considering buying these drugs, it is essential to remember
that the best way to buy weightloss drugs is online. There are numerous
reputable websites and online pharmacies that offer these medications
and that allow you to save huge amounts of money on your orders.
These online pharmacies employ fewer people and have smaller offices,
which enables them to offer better deals, especially if you order
weight loss drugs in bulks, getting your yearly supplies at once.
You need to be careful to find the reputable websites, of course,
which will ensure that you get exactly what you paid for.
Losing weight has truly become something that everyone can do and
with the incredible help that these weight loss products can offer,
you will be more successful than ever. Before you know it, you will
have your weight in check, you will be able to flaunt that new figure
and you will be healthier than ever as well.
More Weigth Loss Articles >


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Blank City Movie Reviews
User reviews on Blank City
I really liked this doc**entary and I highly recommend seeing it in the theaters. It is a well researched and well made doc**entary about No Wave movement in New York city. The film has people like Jim Jarmusch, Deborah Harry, John Lurie, Ann Magnuson, Steve Buscemi, Mark Boone Junior and Vincent Gallo). I was a punk myself in my teenage years and this film was definitely dear to my heart and reminded me of my rebellious years. The doc**entary was very informative and interesting and had great camera shots and interviews. Overall, I think it is a great film and i urge you to go and see it.
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Your Adrenal Glands Part II: Testing For and Recognizing Adrenal Gland Problems
Unless you've been to a physician trained in natural therapies, you've probably never directly heard about the adrenal glands and their role in health. Essentially, adrenal gland problems, outside of pathology, don't exist in conventional medicine, even in the eyes of endocrinologists. The main reason adrenal gland problems go unaddressed is because standard medical tests do not identify problems until hormonal levels are greatly altered, most often due to some pathology of the glands or reaction from a medication. There are a few reasons why medical tests are insufficient, and typically a waste of time and money, when it comes to evaluating the health of these hormones.
Testing For Adrenal Gland Problems
First, as discussed in Part I, is that the adrenal glands release their hormones in a circadian rhythm, which is a 24-hour cycle. The hormonal levels should normally be highest in the morning around 6-7am and lowest at night around 11pm-12am. So it's normal for your hormonal levels to fluctuate throughout the day; actually if they don't then you'll have problems. When a person has their adrenal hormone levels checked (typically cortisol), and the results come back as "normal", all that means is that the level was normal for that specific time of the day. It's very common for someone with adrenal gland dysfunction to have certain times of their circadian rhythm impaired. Just because a blood test at noon says everything is fine doesn't mean that they're working well at 8am or 10pm.
The second reason that medical blood tests often miss adrenal gland problems is that the standard medical ranges for "normal" are expanded to such lengths that there has to be a great overproduction or under production of hormonal levels to be flagged as abnormal. So with such wide ranges, it's hard to fail the test.
The third reason has to do with the actual blood tests when it comes to testing the hormonal levels, and this holds true for other hormonal levels too, particularly sex hormones such as testosterone, estrogen, and progesterone. Blood labs are testing for the total blood-bound hormone levels which do not have a significant influence on the body's tissues as the unbound free hormone levels. This means that checking blood levels often does not reveal a problem because it is looking at the total amount of hormone in the bloodstream which again, isn't often a factor until the patient is in dire health. The free hormone levels, which today can be easily and accurately (and affordably) measured through saliva, tend to be much more indicative of the individual's true state of hormonal health as it is testing the free levels, (approximately 8-10% of the total), which are actually having an effect on the human body and overall health. And, due to the circadian rhythm of all hormones, saliva testing allows for testing multiple times at home to get a total picture of a gland's function throughout the day, rather than a single spot-check.
Common Signs and Symptoms of Adrenal Problems
Recognizing various signs and symptoms of adrenal gland problems can help you not just realize that there is a health issue which needs to be addressed, but hopefully deal with the problem before it becomes more severe. Here are some common adrenal gland signs and symptoms alerting your body it is under more stress than it can handle.
- Allergies -> Both food and environmental allergies can be a sign that your adrenal glands are stressed. If you're unable to go through normal seasonal changes without sneezing or getting sick or if you're sensitive to certain foods, your adrenal glands may need a tune-up.
- Dizzy standing up quickly -> This problem, known as orthostatic hypotension, occurs when your blood pressure drops when you stand up too quickly. No, the way to alleviate this problem is not to stand up more slowly, but deal with the hormonal stress so your blood pressure can be regulated immediately no matter what your positional movement is.
- Bright lights and loud noises -> If you're sensitive to bright lights, such as you can't go from a dark space to a bright space without being temporarily blinded, then that's an adrenal issue as your pupils are slow to constrict and stay constricted. If you often need to wear sunglasses especially on overcast days then that's a sure sign of adrenal gland problems too. Ideally a healthy person should not need to wear sunglasses even on a sunny day unless the sun is directly in the eyes. If you're overly startled by loud noises, such as if someone drops something on the ground creating a loud bang, most likely your adrenal glands are too stressed.
- Hangnails -> Getting hangnails or brittle fingernails can often be a sign of fatigued adrenal glands. They can be from thyroid problems too.
- Sleep issues -> Most sleep issues are at least somewhat tied into adrenal gland problems whether due to the adrenal-pineal link or due to the adrenal-pancreas-liver relationship in controlling blood sugar. Both of these will be discussed in Part III.
- Craving salt -> If you crave salt then your adrenal glands are most likely fatigued as you're losing too much sodium in your sweat and urine. Yeah, if you crave potato chips and pretzels then it's probably because of the salt.
- Low energy, especially in the evening -> Typically people with adrenal gland problems have lower energy as the day goes on and they crash around 4-7pm but then get their second wind later at night and tend to be night owls. Often they feel the need to drink coffee or some other caffeinated beverage throughout the morning to get them going and then they may need to resort to alcohol at night to calm them back down; it's a classic adrenal-dysfunction pattern.
- Low Sex and Athletic Performance -> If your sex drive is low and if you can't perform, then the adrenals may be to blame. The same goes for performance out of the bedroom, as in athletic performance. Athletes who are suffering performance problems, especially if they have chronic nagging injuries, often have adrenal gland problems.
- Sick often -> Those who seem to get sick often and catch multiple infections throughout the year may have a suppressed immune system from the adrenals constantly secreting high levels of cortisol. This is similar to when someone is prescribed a corticosteroid such as Prednisone to help lower inflammation via suppressing the immune system, as is often the treatment with auto-immune diseases.
- Pain – especially pelvis, knee, foot, and ankle -> The adrenal glands have a strong muscle relationship with the muscles which support the inside of the knee as well as the lower legs (calf muscles). Therefore, if you're suffering from knee pain, especially on the inside or outside of the knee, or if you have problems with plantar fasciitis, shin splints, or Achilles tendonitis, then your adrenal glands may be partly or fully to blame. Back pain can also be due to adrenal gland problems due to the impact of the glands on the muscles which connect the pelvis to the knees. For more, see this article.
Next in Part III, I'll discuss the many interactions of the adrenal glands with other hormones, and their influence on overall health.
7 CommentsLeave a comment
SteveL permalink
Are you going to let us know in future articles where we can get tested?
SteveL permalink
Are there any labs worth mentioning that we could use a mail in kit from home or is it always through a Doc?
Pam E permalink
As I just woke up from the 2 hr nap I had to take, even though I had a ton of things to do, I saw your column.What is the treatment for this daily issue?
Kelly permalink
Words cannot express how incredibly thankful I am to have found your website. I have always been a competitive distance runner. In recent years, I have also become a fitness instructor and a mother (two very difficult jobs!), all while continuing to run and train competitively (all while not sleeping enough and probably not eating enough calories). In April of 2014, I crashed. My body tightened up, I had injury after injury, I had a plethora of symptoms and until recently, I had to give up running. I went from doctor to doctor. I was finally put on synthroid by an endocrinologist due to my newly discovered hypothyroidism. Life was miserable and I had finally come to terms that his as hellish as it might be, was my new life. After researching, I honestly believe I suffered from adrenal fatigue thus causing my thyroid to be off balance. For the last few weeks, I cut out caffeine, dairy and anything artificial (sweetners and processed foods). I always thought I was a healthy eater before, but I had a coffee habit I could not kick (with sweet and low and creamer). I focused on good fats, meats, LOTS of vegetables, fruits and taking in lots of vitamin C. I tried to sleep more, reduce stress and live a better life. I am happy to report that on my low dose of thyroid meds, I feel "hyper." I firmly believe that thanks to you, I am going to be able to reduce my dosage and eventually get off of them all together. Thanks! Wish you were in Texas! This might have been discovered 9 months ago!


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Yaron Herman: Army Of Me
Army Of Me
Yaron Herman (piano)
A Time for Everything (Laborie 4)
Yaron Herman (piano), Matt Brewer (bass), Gerald Cleaver (drums).
Composed by Bjork and Graham Massey.
Recorded: Pompignan, France, January 29-February 1, 2007
Rating: 92/100 (learn more)
Simply put, "Army of Me" is Bjork at her best. The lead track off of 1995's Post, "Army" is brash, catchy, and full of fire and attitude. Plus, it features a distorted and snarling bass ostinato that you'll never quite get out of your head. So it was only a matter of time before someone tackled this one. And, fortunately, that someone's version is a fine re-imagining. The young pianist Yaron Herman, from Paris (but born and raised in Israel), featured this tune on his 2007 trio album A Time for Everything, and took it to that fuzzy middle ground between jazz and rock most often occupied by bands like The Bad Plus and Sex Mob. Herman, a tasteful and sprightly player, nearly swings the tune at times, but the intensity and feel of the arrangement is more in line with rock music. He is supported here by the double bassist Matt Brewer and driving drummer Gerald Cleaver. Other cover tunes on A Time for Everything include Leonard Cohen's "Hallelujah" and Britney Spears' "Toxic."
Reviewer: Brad Farberman
Tags: 2000s jazz · björk covers · bjork covers · piano
Comments are closed.


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Charlestown Office
4137 Old Post Road
Charlestown, RI 02813
Hours of Operation:
Lobby & Drive Up Hours
Monday - Thursday, 8:30 a.m. - 5:00 p.m.
Friday, 8:30 a.m. - 6:00 p.m.
Saturday, 8:30 a.m. - 12 noon
Walk-Up & Drive-Up ATMs available
Phone: 401-364-4000
or 1-800-475-2265 ext. 5101
Email: firstname.lastname@example.com
Ann Cook is Vice President and Branch Manager of the Washington Trust branch in Charlestown, R.I. Ann assists with the branch's overall operations, including customer service and consumer loans. She joined Washington Trust in 1982. Ann received her associate's degree in business administration from Community College of Rhode Island and holds a bachelor's degree in management from Providence College. She holds a diploma from the American Institute of Banking (AIB) and is a member of the Alpha Sigma Lambda Honor Society, a national honor society for adult continuing education students. She resides in Charlestown, R.I.


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Ranked among the nation's most integrated healthcare systems, Community Health Network is Central Indiana's leader in providing convenient access to exceptional healthcare services, where and when patients need them—in hospitals, health pavilions, workplaces, schools and homes.
Traveling with children can bring great rewards as well as great challenges for parents. With worldwide travel becoming more and more common, many families are taking children with them to all parts of the globe. Many of the same precautions that apply to adults also apply to children. However, because of children's limited immunity to diseases, food and water precautions, as well as limiting their exposure to disease, are even more important.
It is important to contact your child's physician regarding immunizations that are required for your child as early as possible before travel. The timetable for certain immunizations may need to be accelerated and there may be other special immunizations that are necessary, depending on the region of the world to which you are traveling.
For more information, refer to the Immunizations section of this module.
Be especially careful about exposing children to different foods and water. Children should not be fed any food that is uncooked, and should avoid fruits and vegetables in developing countries, as children are particularly susceptible to traveler's diarrhea and other gastrointestinal infections. Also take extra precautions when mixing infant formula with water.
Keeping children away from insects and animals is also important in preventing the transmission of disease. While insect repellents are advised in many areas, consult your physician regarding the use of these, as many of the repellents recommended for adults are too strong for young children.
Airplane travel can be exciting, yet frightening and painful for young children. Children are especially vulnerable to the sensation of "popping" ears during take off or landing, and often experience pain with this. Due to an air pocket in the middle ear that is sensitive to air pressure changes, the changing altitude as the plane takes off or lands can cause discomfort in the ears. Small children are especially affected by blocked ear canals because their Eustachian tubes - the tube which connects the middle ear with the nasopharynx - are narrower than those of adults.
Swallowing or yawning usually can help "pop" the ears (activating the muscle that opens the Eustachian tube) and ease the discomfort. Use of a bottle or pacifier in very young children can also help "pop" the ears. Do not allow a baby to sleep as the plane descends.
Older children may be helped by chewing gum or drinking a cup of juice.
Children seem to be more prone to motion sickness than adults. Further, while antihistamines can be effective in preventing or relieving motion sickness, their use is restricted by age. If your child suffers from motion sickness, discuss this with his/her physician before you travel and ask what medications may be appropriate for your child. Other ways to relieve motion sickness include the following:
Click here to view the
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Thunder Jacket Review – Womens
How can a jacket weigh so little yet manage to provide so much warmth? The women's Thunder Jacket from the TNF is a must-have down jacket for sub-zero temperatures and negative windchills.
Women's Thunder Jacket at a Glance
- Temperature Rating: 0 degrees and lower
- Climate Compatibility: Windproof, waterproof, snow
- Designed for: Snow sports, backpacking/camping, campuses, everyday wear
Get Women's Thunder Jacket at the Lowest Price
Women's Thunder Jacket Construction
Shell and Insulation
The shell of the Thunder Jacket is made out of nylon ripstop cire with DWR (durable water repellent). It effectively blocks on wind, snow, and other elements.
The real insulating power of the Thunder Jacket, however, is derived from its air. The jacket's 800 fill goose down traps plenty of air within the jacket, which insulates you against the bitter cold. At the same time, the fine goose down weighs little and is highly compressible, making the Thunder Jacket one of the lightest jackets on the market. Weighing just under 12 oz., you will barely feel its existence.
Because of the fine texture of the fill goose down, the jacket is light-weight and high compressible. You can easily stow the jacket by compressing it into its pocket. When you feel the chill, simply fluff it up and you are ready to go.
Other Features
The Thunder Jacket comes with some standard athletic features, including a hideaway hem cinch-cord, elastic-bound cuffs, and two hand pockets. The jacket runs on the small side, so it may be a good idea to go a size up for saving room for additional layers.
Temperature Range and Activites
You can expect the Thunder Jacket keep you toasty down to sub-zero conditions. And because the shell is water-repellent, it is suitable for skiiing and other outdoor activities.
Summary on Women's Thunder Jacket
The Thunder Jacket is a great winter jacket. Don't let its weightlessness scare you. The North Face is exceptional at designing light and warm gear. If you want a light-weight jacket that is suitable for both everyday use and sporting activities, the Thunder Jacket will not disappoint.
Users' Ratings on Women's Thunder Jacket


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AT&T Nokia Lumia 925 officially launching on September 13
Today, AT&T has officially announced the Nokia Lumia 925 – a Windows Phone 8 handset that's currently available in the US only via T-Mobile (which launched it more than a month ago).
The Lumia 925 will cost $99.99 (with a new 2-yr contract agreement) at AT&T. It will be available only starting next month, on September 13, but interested customers can pre-order it as soon as tomorrow, August 28.
The 925 is AT&T's fifth Nokia Windows Phone 8 device, coming after the Lumia 920, Lumia 820, Lumia 520, and the Lumia 1020 (which is the best among them, featuring a 41MP PureView camera – and costing $299.99 on contract).
"AT&T has sold more Windows Phones than any other US carrier and the Nokia Lumia 925 makes a great addition to our growing portfolio. It packs the outstanding camera performance Nokia is known for with an affordable price point that makes it a solid deal for anyone in the market for a new smartphone," said Jeff Bradley, Senior Vice President of Devices at AT&T.
After the Lumia 925, the second largest US carrier might also release Nokia's first phablet – the Bandit (possibly called Lumia 1520). This will obviously be more expensive than the 925, since it's supposed to be the very first WP8 device to feature a 1080p display and a quad-core processor.
Via Press release


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Khmer Rouge was formed to fight foreigners, not kill its own, the former public face of the regime said. "Why would it kill its own people?" Khieu Samphan asked. "For what reason? Who would live in the country then?" Khieu Samphan, who has already selected a foreign attorney to defend him against possible indictment by Cambodia's hybrid tribunal, said he had not heard of the killing fields, of the starvation suffered by his countrymen, until at least the 1980s. Cambodians "were hungry and dug up tubers. I didn't know it was like that. I found out at the end of 1989." Given room to speak, Khieu Samphan raises points that have been raised before, shifting blame from the Khmer Rouge for its autogenocide to foreign powers, often the Vietnamese and the Americans. The Khmer Rouge "fighting movement experienced plight, hunger, sickness, slept in trenches," Khieu Samphan said. "B-52 bombs were dropped [and] when you were just near them, you became crazy because you were so frightened." The Khmer Rouge rose out of loyalty to its leaders, he said, as much as the bombing. "Leaders would ask us to crawl into a crab hole," he said, a common Cambodian expression that describes loyalty. The Khmer Rouge had loyalty structure where each person had a group, or strand, and every strand spied on the other, he said. Khieu Samphan said the evacuations in 1975, when the Khmer Rouge took power, were Pol Pot's idea. So too was discipline. "Those who were good and worked hard, should be encouraged," he said, "and those who opposed, should be dealt with accordingly." Vietnamese interference might have been the reason so many people began starving once they were forced out of the city and into agricultural work camps, Khieu Samphan said. "What did the starvation from 1975 to 1976 come from?" he said. "Not from Pol Pot. Could Pol Pot do it alone?"
On their side, the rebellious soldiers considered the townsmen with a sovereign contempt: they was the "enemies" (khmang) which one had spoken to them, "capitalists" (nay tun) which refused to join the revolution. Less than twenty-four hours after, all the inhabitants of Phnom Penh accepted the order to leave the city. At that time, the Khmer Rouges could hardly but erect scaffolding of the plans and dream with the victory. Seen Office 100, the Kampuchean revolution appeared quite remote. To start, the Kampuchean Communist Party was not armed.
Laura Summers: The evacuation of Phnom Penh, which was roundly criticized by the rest of the world as "barbaric" was really justified according to the standard total academic view which she supported. As her justification, she writes "By all accounts, however, universal conscription for work prevented a postwar famine," but admits that "It also appears that some work groups, in lieu of other forms of re-education, are obliged to work harder and longer than others." One must wonder how she knows this, given that she has not been inside the country. Does she have a reference? No source is listed. With respect to statements from refugees and Khmer Rouge defectors sponsored by resistance groups abroad, Summers dismisses them entirely. She writes: These public pleas for support and the public concern raised by sensational, but false, documents finally provoked the Paris Mission of Democratic Kampuchea to protest that some journalists were degrading their profession and that the French held a major share of the responsibility for allowing these activities to continue. Some of the documents to be discredited were, for instance, several faked photographs and interviews which between 1976 and 1977 were published in newspapers from Australia to America. Furthermore, evidence that the evacuation was planned well before April suggests that strategic advantage, not the well-being of the citizens mattered to the Khmer Rouge. Hou Youn's dissertation had sufficiently maligned cities as to make them appear useless to the country. Not only was class order reversed, but city dwellers would be made to farm the land, in a complete occupational reversal.
Porter and Hildebrand conclude from this that the "death march" characterization was "unfounded." Finally, leaving nothing to chance, Porter and Hildebrand hold that "the temporary clearing of most hospitals, far from being inhumane, was an act of mercy for the patients." They argue that the hospitals of Phnom Penh had become overcrowded and unhealthy. It was thus necessary, for the well-being of the patients, to evacuate them. And what could they expect onto the elsewhere?
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Chief Information Security Officer,Chartered Accountant, Information Technology Officer ,Agriculture Field Officer,Official Language Officer ,Technical Officer, Jobs & Vacancy in Officer at Punjab & Sind Bank, Delhi May 2012
Job or Vacancy Description:
Punjab & Sind Bank invites applications from Indian citizens for following Officers level posts :
Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) : 01 post in SMGS-V scale
Chartered Accountant : 15 posts in MMGS-III Scale
Chartered Accountant : 35 posts in MMGS-II Scale
Information Technology (IT) Officer : 125 posts in JMGS-I Scale
Agriculture Field Officer : 100 posts in JMGS-I Scale
Official Language Officer (Rajbhasah-Hindi) : 15 posts in JMGS-I Scale
Technical Officer : 10 posts (Civil-8, Electrical-2) in JMGS-I Scale
How to Apply : Apply online at PSB
General Instructions:
1. The compensation amount shall be fixed as the last drawn pay and allowance drawn by theofficer less the amount of pension to be drawn
2. While applying for the posts, the applicant should ensure that he / she fulfills theeligibility and other norms mentioned above and that the particulars furnished
information or has suppressed any material fact(s), his / hercandidature will automatically stand cancelled. If any of the above shortcoming(s) is /are detected even after appointment, his / her services are liable to be terminatedwithout any notice.
3. Candidates are advised to indicate preference of districts. Bank shall try toallocate the preferred district,
4. In case of suitable and deserving cases, any of the requirements and conditions ofeligibility mentioned above, may be relaxed at the discretion of the Management.
5. Mere submission of application against the advertisement and apparently fulfillingthe criteria as prescribed in the advertisement would not bestow on him / her right tobe called for interview.
6. Institutions set up for the benefit of blind, physically handicapped and disabled individuals are allowed, collection of up-country instruments at par. Similarly, payments made by these institutions to their own beneficiaries by way of drafts,
7. In the event a cheque or an instrument accepted for collection is lost in transit or in clearing process or at the paying bank's branch, the bank shall immediately on coming to know of the loss , bring the same to the notice of
Tentative Last Date: 15-06-2012
About the organization:
It was in the year 1908, when a humble idea to uplift the poorest of poor of the land culminated in the birth of Punjab & Sind Bank with the far-sighted vision of luminaries like Bhai Vir Singh, Sir Sunder Singh Majitha and Sardar Tarlochan Singh. They enjoyed the highest respect with the people of Punjab.The bank was founded on the principle of social commitment to help the weaker section of the society in their economic endeavours to raise their standard of life.Decades have gone by, even today Punjab & Sind Bank stands committed to honor the social commitments of the founding fathers.These accounts are designed to help the individuals (personal customers) to inculcate habit of saving money and to meet their future requirement of money.
Address :
Punjab & Sind Bank (PSB)
(A Government of India undertaking)
Head Office : "Bank House", 21 Rajendra Place, New Delhi- 110125
Click above to download
the vacancy details


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Get the most out of the Deadsea Salt Softening Butter Salt Scrub by Ahava for exfoliating and hydrating effects it helps you achieve. The Dead Sea salt crystals work with other natural ingredients for a maximum exfoliating process. The scrub starts as a butter-textured body exfoliator then turns into a light pampering lotion with water provide proper skin hydration. Ingredients such as Osmoter, Dunaliella algae, minerals, jojoba, and coconut oils all work together keeping skin reinforced, moisturized and retain a certain glow. Use it regularly and see results quickly. You won't have to go far and pay a whopping amount just to get the treatment your skin deserves.
Directions: Massage onto wet body skin. Rinse off.
Net Weight: 235 ml / 8 oz.
Ingredients: Caprylic/Capric Triglyceride, Cocos Nucifera (Coconut) Oil, Cocamide Mea, Sucrose, Maris Sal (Dead Sea Salt), Pentaerythrityl Stearate/Caprate/Caprylate/Adipate, Copernicia Cerifera (Carnauba) Wax, Candelilla Cera, Simmondsia Chinensis (Jojoba) Seed Oil, Parfum (Fragrance), Sesamum Indicum (Sesame) Seed Oil, Dunaliella Salina Extract, Hydrogenated Polydecene, Butylphenyl Methylpropional, Citral, Citronellol, Coumarin, Hydroxycitronellal, Limonene, Linalool.
Disclaimer: Ingredients are subject to change at the manufacturer's discretion. For the most complete and up-to-date list of ingredients, please refer to the product packaging.
If you need any help for applying these offers or any other issue please call us toll-free at 1-866-830-6161.
Gift with Purchase: FREE AHAVA Gift Set with the purchase of AHAVA products. Some restrictions apply. See details �
Gift with Purchase: FREE AHAVA Gift Set with the purchase of AHAVA products. Some restrictions apply. See details �


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86 Osprey Cir., Okatie, SC 29909
- $7,500
- 4+ Years on site
- Beds: n/a
- Baths: n/a
- Raw Land
One half acre wooded homesite overlooking Magnolia #7 on exclusive Callawassie Island. This island paradise is surrounded by 3 rivers leading to the Intracoastal waterway and offers resort like living with no time restrictions to build. Island membership features tennis fitness kayak and boating docks clubhouse dining and optional golf. Click here to learn more about this listing..
- Raw Land
- Beds: n/a
- Baths: n/a
Local Info
| Median Household Income
| Median Years In Residence
| Median Homeowner Age
| Households with Children
| Percent of Homes Rented
Nearby Elementary Schools
- St Gregory The Great School
- 323 Fording Island Rd
- Okatie Elementary
- 53 Cherry Point Rd
- Red Cedar Elementary
- 11 Box Elder St
Nearby Primary Schools
- Hilton Head Island Early Childhood Center
- 165 Pembroke Dr
Nearby Middle Schools
- St Gregory The Great School
- 323 Fording Island Rd
- Bluffton Middle
- 30 New Mustang Dr
- H. E. Mccracken Middle
- 250 He Mccraken Cir
Nearby High Schools
- Beaufort-Jasper Academy For Career Excellence
- 80 Lowcountry Dr
- Bluffton High
- 12 He Mccraken Cir
- Beaufort Christian School
- 378 Parris Island Gtwy
These are the closest schools to your requested location. Proximity does not guarantee enrollment eligibility. Please consult your real estate agent or school district to confirm the schools you are zoned to attend.
Mortgage Rates
Data provided by Informa Research Services. Click here for financial product parameters. Click here for the Privacy Policy. California Department of Real Estate, Lic. #01937608.
Property Contact Info
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Please fill out this form to request more photos or more information regarding this property.


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Did you know?
- The oldest horse in history lived to be 62. His name was Billy and he lived in 1760. (The average life span of a horse is 20-25 years).
- A newborn foal's legs are already 80-90% of full grown length.
- Only one hour after birth, prescription a foal is already able to stand.
- There are approximately 175 bones in a horse's body.
- Horse hooves grow at approximately 1cm per month.
- Mares are more likely to give birth at night.
- Horses enjoy classical music.
- Horses cannot vomit.


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Beautiful, colorful & quirky photos depicting life in Sayulita through the eyes of photographer Donna Day, who has lived in Sayulita since 2009.
Just north of Puerto Vallarta in Nayarit, Mexico, Sayulita started out as a sleepy little fishing town in the 1940's and has evolved into a destination for surfers, hipsters and tourists who want to wander off the map, but still have good restaurants to choose from .
Donna Day has been a professional photographer for 25 years. She has lived and worked in LA, NYC, Seattle, and now lives and works in Sayulita. She has a stock photo agency "Big Cheese Photo" that she shoots images for and shoots assignments as well as portraits and weddings in Sayulita, Mexico. She's been shooting photos in Sayulita for years and shoots a weekly photo column for El Sayulero, the weekly online "paper" for Sayulita.
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Pamela & Brando December 3, 2011 Published March 14, 2012
S a y u l i t a Published February 02, 2011


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For many people, travel is a big part of enjoying life. Unfortunately, for in-center dialysis patients travel can be challenging at best. Travel may be confined to short trips during the days off on the weekend, or may involve spending weeks or months arranging for treatments at travel locations. For some, traveling is simply not an option.
This benefit stems from the portability of the NxStage System One.
Here's how more frequent home hemodialysis with the NxStage System One is different:
The innovative design of the NxStage System One makes it uniquely portable – and the therapy schedule is highly flexible. This combination allows dialysis patients wonderful travel opportunities for those who desire them. With the approval of their doctor and dialysis center, many home hemodialysis patients have enjoyed travel with their therapy.
Despite the health benefits that more frequent home hemodialysis may provide to those with chronic kidney disease, this form of therapy is not for everyone. The reported benefits of more frequent home hemodialysis may not be experienced by all patients. The risks associated with hemodialysis treatments in any environment include, but are not limited to, high blood pressure, fluid overload, low blood pressure, heart-related issues, and vascular access complications. The medical devices used in hemodialysis therapies may add additional risks including air entering the bloodstream, and blood loss due to clotting or accidental disconnection of the blood tubing set. Certain risks are unique to the home. Treatments at home are done without the presence of medical personnel and on-site technical support. Patients and their care partners must be trained on what to do and how to get medical or technical help if needed.
To learn more about the responsibilities and risks of more frequent home hemodialysis, please click on Responsibilities & Risks of More Frequent Home Hemodialysis, and talk to your doctor to see if more frequent home hemodialysis with NxStage is right for you.


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Westboro Baptist Church Dating Website Releases Shocking Video
The last few hours of the workday are always the hardest to get through, but not anymore!
The last few hours of the workday are always the hardest to get through, but not anymore!
How long does this group of hate mongers get to survive?
Those morons didn't even bother to park their car!
Attention Westboro .......
On Aug. 30th, 2011 Westboro Baptist Church called for a picket of the Foo Fighters show in Kansas City.
Only the Foo Fighters could put on a show that surpasses any yelling and protesting the westboro morons could provide...
The Foo Fighters will likely have some unsolicited attention next week from some of the country's most notorious protesters.
The fundamentalist and anti-gay Westboro Baptist Church has announced plans to picket funeral services in California and Michigan for former first lady Betty Ford, who died Friday at age 93...
When are we as Americans going to stop the stupid shit going on with our soldiers and the first amendment??
Westboro Baptist Church, the Topeka church known for its inflammatory anti-gay protests, plans to picket the funerals of the six people killed in Arizona.


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by jojoprecy
Which of the following combinations of procedures would an auditor most likely perform to obtain evidence about fixed asset additions? A. Observing operating activities and comparing balances with prior-period balances. B. Confirming ownership and corroborating transactions through inquiries of client personnel. C. Inspecting documents and physically examining assets. D. Recomputing calculations and obtaining written management representations.
Answer (C) is correct. The auditor's direct observation of fixed assets is one means of determining whether additions have been made. Tracing to the detailed records determines whether additions have been recorded. Inspection of deeds, lease agreements, insurance policies, invoices, canceled checks, and tax notices may also reveal additions.
The independent auditor's plan for an audit in accordance with GAAS is influenced by the possibility of material misstatements. The auditor will therefore conduct the audit A. With an attitude of professional skepticism. B. With the attitude that all evidence in support of assertions must be conclusive. C. On the assumption of the unquestioned honesty of management. D. On the assumption that management is dishonest.
Answer (A) is correct. Due professional care requires the auditor to exercise professional skepticism. Professional skepticism is an attitude that includes a questioning mind and critical assessment of audit evidence. Regardless of past experience with the entity or belief in management's honesty, the audit must be conducted with (1) an awareness that a material misstatement due to fraud may exist and (2) ongoing questioning of whether the evidence suggests that such fraud has occurred (AU 316).
Which of the following procedures is an auditor most likely to include in the planning phase of a financial statement audit? A. Obtain an understanding of the entity's risk assessment process. B. Perform cutoff tests of the entity's sales and purchases. C. Evaluate the reasonableness of the entity's accounting estimates. D. Identify specific controls designed to prevent fraud.
Answer (A) is correct. According to the second standard of field work, "The auditor must obtain a sufficient understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal control, to assess the risk of material misstatement of the financial statements whether due to error or fraud and to design the nature, timing, and extent of further audit procedures." An auditor must obtain an understanding of the entity's risk assessment process as well as the other components of internal control when planning a financial statement audit (AU 314).
Which of the following statements concerning the parallel simulation approach when testing a computerized accounting system is false? A. Only real, not fictitious, transactions are reprocessed. B. It tends to be a very costly method. C. Transactions from throughout the period may be reprocessed. D. Transactions are reprocessed only by the client's computer programs.
Answer (D) is correct. Parallel simulation is a test of the controls in a client's application program. An auditor-developed program, not the client's program, is used to process actual client data and compare the outputs and exceptions report with those of the client's application program. If the client's programmed controls are operating effectively, the two sets of results should be reconcilable.
An auditor concludes that a substantive auditing procedure considered necessary during the prior year's audit was omitted and there are persons currently relying on the auditor's report. The auditor most likely would promptly apply the omitted procedure if A. The omission of the procedure impairs the auditor's present ability to support the previously expressed opinion. B. Control risk was assessed at a high level for the relevant financial statement assertions. C. The auditor's working papers will be subject to post-issuance review in connection with a peer review program. D. The results of other procedures that were applied tend to compensate for the one omitted.
Answer (A) is correct. If the auditor determines that the omission impairs his/her current ability to support the opinion and (s)he believes persons are currently relying or are likely to rely on the report, the auditor should promptly undertake to apply the omitted procedure or alternative procedures that would provide a satisfactory basis for the opinion (AU 390).
A CPA is engaged to examine management's assertion that the entity's schedule of investment returns is presented in accordance with specific criteria. In performing this engagement, the CPA should comply with the provisions of A. Statements on Standards for Accounting and Review Services (SSARS). B. Statements on Auditing Standards (SAS). C. Statements on Standards for Consulting Services (SSCS). D. Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE).
Answer (D) is correct. The AICPA's Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE) cover attest engagements. Examining management's assertion that the entity's schedule of investment returns is an example of an examination engagement that falls under the guidelines of the SSAE.
Which of the following is a term for an attest engagement in which a CPA assesses a client's commercial Internet site for compliance with principles such as online privacy, security, and confidentiality? A. TechSafe. B. EDIFACT. C. WebTrust. D. ElectroNet.
Answer (C) is correct. The WebTrust seal provides assurance about compliance with the principles of online privacy, security, processing integrity, availability, and confidentiality. It is a modular service that allows the practitioner to express an opinion about compliance with individual principles or combinations of principles. Online privacy is the protection of the collection, use, disclosure, and retention of personal information. Security is the protection against unauthorized access to the system (both physical and logical). Processing integrity is the assurance that system processing is complete, accurate, timely, and authorized. Availability is the assertion that the system is available for operation and used as agreed. Confidentiality is the protection of information from being viewed by non-authorized parties.
May an accountant accept an engagement to compile or review the financial statements of a not-for-profit entity if the accountant is unfamiliar with the specialized industry accounting principles but plans to obtain the required level of knowledge before compiling or reviewing the financial statements? Compilation Review A. No Yes B. Yes Yes C. No No D. Yes No
Answer (B) is correct. The accountant may accept a compilation or review engagement for an entity in an industry with which the accountant has no previous experience. Acceptance, however, places upon him/her a responsibility to obtain the required level of knowledge prior to performing the engagement.
Analytical procedures performed in the overall review stage of an audit suggest that several accounts have unexpected relationships. The results of these procedures most likely would indicate that A. Additional tests of details are required. B. Irregularities exist among the relevant account balances. C. The communication with the audit committee should be revised. D. Internal control activities are not operating effectively.
Answer (A) is correct. Analytical procedures are required to be performed in the final review stage of the audit. They assist in assessing the conclusions reached and in evaluating the overall financial presentation. When analytical procedures have unexpected results, the auditor should investigate the causes. Thus, additional tests of details should be performed to gather additional evidence (AU 329).
Usually, the decision to notify parties outside the client's organization regarding an illegal act is the responsibility of the A. Independent auditor. B. Outside legal counsel. C. Internal auditor. D. Management.
Answer (D) is correct. Deciding whether to contact parties other than personnel within the client's organization about an illegal act is the responsibility of management. However, the auditor's responsibility to report externally may be expanded in special engagements. For example, in audits of governmental units in accordance with the Single Audit Act, the auditor may be required to report on the unit's compliance with laws and regulations applicable to federal financial assistance programs (AU 317).
An auditor would consider a cashier's job description to contain compatible duties if the cashier receives remittances from the mail room and also prepares the A. Monthly bank reconciliation. B. Remittance advices. C. Daily deposit slip. D. Prelist of individual checks.
Answer (C) is correct. Preparing the bank deposit slip is a part of the custodial function, which is the primary responsibility of a cashier. The cashier is an assistant to the treasurer and thus performs an asset custody function. The preparation of a bank deposit slip is an integral part of the custodial function, along with the depositing of remittances daily at a local bank.
Which of the following circumstances most likely would cause an auditor to suspect that there are material misstatements in an entity's financial statements? A. Senior management has an excessive interest in upgrading the entity's information technology capabilities. Senior financial management participates in the selection of accounting principles and the determination of significant estimates. B. Related party transactions take place in the ordinary course of business with an entity that is audited by another CPA firm. C. D. Supporting accounting records and files that should be readily available are not produced promptly when requested.
Answer (D) is correct. An auditor must assess fraud risk throughout the audit. Conditions observed during field work that may change or support the assessment include difficult or unusual relationship with management, for example, denial of access to records, unusual delays in providing requested information, and unwillingness to facilitate access to computer files (AU 316).
The financial statements of KCP America, a U.S. entity, are prepared for inclusion in the consolidated financial statements of its non-U.S. parent. These financial statements are prepared in conformity with the accounting principles generally accepted in the parent's country and are for use only in that country. Which is an appropriate report on the financial statements for KCP America's auditor to issue? I. A U.S.-style report (unmodified) II. A U.S.-style report modified to report on the accounting principles of the parent's country III. The report form of the parent's country A. II only. B. II and III only. C. I, II, and III. D. I only.
Answer (B) is correct. According to AU 534, if financial statements prepared in conformity with accounting principles generally accepted in another country are prepared for use only outside the U.S., the auditor may use either a U.S.-style report modified to report on the accounting principles of the other country or, if appropriate, the report form of the other country. An unmodified U.S.-style report is inappropriate because of the departures from GAAP contained in statements prepared in conformity with principles generally accepted in the other country.
Which of the following procedures would an entity most likely include in its computer disaster recovery plan? A. Translate data for storage purposes with a cryptographic secret code. B. Store duplicate copies of critical files in a location away from the computer center. C. Maintain a listing of all entity passwords with the network manager. D. Develop an auxiliary power supply to provide uninterrupted electricity.
Answer (B) is correct. Off-site storage of duplicate copies of critical files protects them from a fire or other disaster at the computing facility. The procedure is part of an overall disaster recovery plan
On August 13, a CPA dated the audit report on financial statements for the year ended June 30. On August 27, an event came to the CPA's attention that should be disclosed in the notes to the financial statements. The event was properly disclosed by the entity, but the CPA decided not to dual-date the auditor's report and dated the report August 27. Under these circumstances, the CPA was taking responsibility for A. All subsequent events that occurred through August 13 and the specific subsequent event disclosed by the entity. B. Only the subsequent events that occurred through August 13. C. All subsequent events that occurred through August 27. D. Only the specific subsequent event disclosed by the entity.
Answer (C) is correct. Subsequent events are material events or transactions that occur after the balance sheet date but prior to the issuance of the financial statements; they require adjustment or disclosure in the financial statements. If the auditor dates the report August 27, the auditor is assuming responsibility for all subsequent events that occurred through August 27.
Which of the following is an analytical procedure that an auditor most likely would perform when planning an audit? A. Comparing the current-year account balances for conformity with predictable patterns. B. Scanning accounts receivable for amounts over credit limits. C. Confirming bank balances with the financial institutions. D. Recalculating inventory extensions of physical inventory counts.
Answer (A) is correct. The auditor performs analytical procedures during the planning stage of the audit. These procedures include the auditor developing expectations of recorded balances and comparing these predictions to financial information from comparable prior period(s).
For several years, a client's physical inventory count has been lower than the books have shown at the time of the count, and downward adjustments of the inventory account have been required. Contributing to the inventory problem could be weaknesses in internal control that led to the failure to record some A. Cash purchases. B. Sales returns received. C. Purchases returned to vendors. D. Sales discounts allowed
Answer (C) is correct. Purchases returned to the vendor but not recorded overstate inventory records. The goods are reflected in inventory but are not on hand.
Kelly Corporation needs an internal communication network that provides high speed communication among nodes. Which of the following is appropriate for Kelly? A. Local area network (LAN). B. Wide area network (WAN). C. File server. D. Value-added network (VAN).
Answer (A) is correct. Local area networks are privately owned networks that provide high speed communication among nodes. They are usually restricted to limited areas, such as a particular floor of an office building.
An entity engaged a CPA to determine whether the client's web sites comply with defined WebTrust principles and criteria. In performing this engagement, the CPA should apply the provisions of A. Statements on Auditing Standards. B. Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements. C. Statements on Assurance Standards. D. Statements on Standards for Management Consulting Services.
Answer (B) is correct. An attest engagement involves reporting on subject matter, or an assurance about subject matter, that is the responsibility of another party. When providing WebTrust assurance, the accountant must address written assertions by management. Thus, Statements on Standards for Attestation Engagements are applicable.
To obtain evidential matter about the effectiveness of control risk, an auditor ordinarily selects tests from a variety of techniques, including A. Confirmation. B. Reperformance. C. Analysis. D. Comparison.
Answer (B) is correct. According to AU 314, the auditor selects tests of controls from a variety of techniques such as inquiry, observation, inspection, and reperformance of a control that pertains to an assertion. No one specific test of controls is always necessary, applicable, or equally effective in every circumstance.
Which of the following activities is most likely to prevent the improper disposition of equipment? A. The use of serial numbers to identify equipment that could be sold. A separation of duties between those authorized to dispose of equipment and those authorized to approve removal work orders. B. C. Periodic comparison of removal work orders with authorizing documentation. D. A periodic analysis of the scrap sales and the repairs and maintenance accounts.
Answer (B) is correct. Segregation of duties reduces the opportunity for an individual both to perpetrate and to conceal errors or fraud. Accordingly, the authorization, recording, and asset custody functions should be separated (AU 314). Thus, the same individual should not approve removal work orders (authorization) and dispose of equipment (asset custody).
Which of the following auditing procedures is ordinarily performed last? A. Confirming accounts payable. B. Testing of the purchasing function. C. Obtaining a management representation letter. D. Reading of the minutes of the directors' meetings.
Answer (C) is correct. According to AU 333, the written representations by management should be dated as of the date of the auditor's report because the auditor is concerned with events occurring through that date that may require adjustment to or disclosure in the financial statements.
For effective internal control purposes, the vouchers payable department ordinarily should A. Establish the agreement of the vendor's invoice with the receiving report and purchase order. B. Stamp, perforate, or otherwise cancel supporting documentation after payment is mailed. C. Ascertain that each requisition is approved as to price, quantity, and quality by an authorized employee. D. Obliterate the quantity ordered on the receiving department copy of the purchase order.
Answer (A) is correct. A voucher should not be prepared for payment until the vendor's invoice has been matched against the corresponding purchase order and receiving report. This procedure provides assurance that a valid transaction has occurred and that the parties have agreed on the terms, such as price and quantity.
A principal advantage of statistical methods of attribute sampling over nonstatistical methods is that they provide a scientific basis for planning the A. Expected population deviation rate. B. Risk of assessing control risk too low. C. Sample size. D. Tolerable rate.
Answer (C) is correct. Statistical theory permits the auditor to measure sampling risk and to restrict it to an acceptable level. Statistical methods determine the sample size that will accomplish the auditor's objectives.
In statistical sampling methods used in substantive testing, an auditor most likely would stratify a population into meaningful groups if A. The population has highly variable recorded amounts. B. The standard deviation of recorded amounts is relatively small. C. The auditor's estimated tolerable misstatement is extremely small. D. Probability-proportional-to-size (PPS) sampling is used.
Answer (A) is correct. The primary objective of stratification is to reduce the effect of high variability by dividing the population into subpopulations. Reducing the effect of the variance within each subpopulation allows the auditor to sample a smaller number of items while holding precision and the confidence level constant.
In the confirmation of accounts receivable, the auditor would most likely A. Request confirmation of a sample of the inactive accounts. B. Seek to obtain positive confirmations for at least 50% of the total dollar amount of the receivables. C. Require that confirmation requests be sent within 1 month of the fiscal year-end. D. Require confirmation of all receivables from agencies of the federal government.
Answer (A) is correct. When the combined assessed level of inherent and control risk is at an acceptably low level, the auditor will confirm only a sample of receivables. The sample should include inactive or past due accounts. If such accounts are to be regarded as assets, acknowledgment of the debts must be obtained. Confirming inactive accounts may also detect lapping or establish what amounts are in dispute.
Which of the following best describes the reference to the expression "taken as a whole" in the fourth generally accepted auditing standard of reporting? A. It applies equally to each item in each financial statement. B. It applies only to a complete set of financial statements. C. It applies equally to a complete set of financial statements and to an individual financial statement. D. It applies equally to each material item in each financial statement.
Answer (C) is correct. The phrase "taken as a whole" applies equally to a set of financial statements and to an individual financial statement, e.g., to a balance sheet. The auditor may express an unqualified opinion on one of the financial statements and express a qualified or adverse opinion or disclaim an opinion on another if the circumstances call for such treatment (AU 508).
If a client will not permit inquiry of outside legal counsel, the auditor's report ordinarily will contain a(n) A. Adverse opinion. B. Unqualified opinion with a separate explanatory paragraph. C. Qualified opinion. D. Disclaimer of opinion.
Answer (D) is correct. A disclaimer of opinion states that the auditor does not express an opinion on the financial statements. It is appropriate when the auditor has not performed an audit sufficient in scope to enable him or her to form an opinion. The client has imposed a scope limitation by refusing to allow performance of a procedure that the auditor considers necessary to the audit.
In connection with the audit of financial statements, an independent auditor could be responsible for failure to detect a material fraud if A. The fraud was perpetrated by one client employee, who circumvented existing internal control. The auditors performing important parts of the work failed to discover a personal relationship between the treasurer and the cashier. B. C. Statistical sampling techniques were not used on the audit engagement. D. The auditor planned the work in a hasty and inefficient manner.
Answer (D) is correct. If the auditor had planned the work in a hasty and inefficient manner, thus violating the first standard of field work (adequate planning and supervision) as well as the third general standard (due professional care), (s)he would be responsible for failure to detect a material fraud.
Which of the following best describes what the auditor means by the rate of occurrence in an attribute sampling plan? A. The estimated frequency with which a certain characteristic occurs within a population. B. The dollar range within which the true population total can be expected to fall. C. The number of deviations that can be estimated to be contained in the sample. D. The degree of confidence that the sample is representative of the population.
Answer (A) is correct. Attribute sampling is used to estimate the rate of occurrence of a specific attribute in a population, e.g., the number of invoices paid twice by a client. In effect, the auditor attempts to estimate the number (or percentage) of times this specified deviation occurred in the population based upon results from the sample.
A client who recently installed a new accounts payable system assigned employees a user identification code (UIC) and a separate password. Each UIC is a person's name, and the individual's password is the same as the UIC. Users are not required to change their passwords at initial log-in nor do passwords ever expire. Which of the following statements does not reflect a limitation of the client's computer-access control? A. Employees are not required to take regular vacations. B. Employees can circumvent procedures to segregate duties. C. Employees are not required to change passwords. D. Employees can easily guess fellow employees' passwords
Answer (A) is correct. To be effective, passwords should consist of random letters, symbols, and numbers. They should not contain words or phrases which are easily guessed. Proper user authentication by means of passwords requires procedures to ensure that the valid passwords generated are known only by appropriate individuals. Moreover, passwords should be changed frequently so that the maximum retention period (the period during which they may be compromised) is relatively short. However, a minimum retention period should be required so that users cannot change passwords back to their old, convenient forms. Another weakness in access control is that different passwords are not required to perform different functions, e.g., to obtain access, to read certain files, or to update certain files. Use of separate passwords is a means of segregating duties. However, the password security system is unrelated to the absence of a requirement to take vacations. Nevertheless, such requirement may be appropriate for personnel in a position to embezzle funds.
The primary purpose of sending a standard confirmation request to financial institutions with which the client has done business during the year is to A. Detect kiting activities that may otherwise not be discovered. B. Request information about contingent liabilities and secured transactions. C. Provide the data necessary to prepare a proof of cash. D. Corroborate information regarding deposit and loan balances.
Answer (D) is correct. The AICPA Standard Form to Confirm Account Balance Information with Financial Institutions is used to confirm specifically listed deposit and loan balances. The form confirms the account name, account number, interest rate, and balance for deposits.
A CPA is most likely to refer to one or more of the three general auditing standards in determining A. Requirements for a sufficient understanding of internal control. B. The nature of the CPA's report qualification. C. Whether the CPA should undertake an audit engagement. D. The scope of the CPA's auditing procedures.
Answer (C) is correct. The three general standards require the auditor 1. To have adequate technical training and proficiency as an auditor, 2. To have an independent mental attitude, and 3. To use due professional care in planning and performing the audit and preparing the report. An auditor who cannot meet any one of these requirements should not accept the audit engagement. Conduct Rule 201, General Standards , requires an AICPA member to "undertake only those professional services that the member or the member's firm can reasonably expect to be completed with professional competence."
Due to a scope limitation, an auditor disclaimed an opinion on the financial statements taken as a whole, but the auditor's report included a statement that the current asset portion of the entity's balance sheet was fairly stated. The inclusion of this statement is A. Not appropriate because it may tend to overshadow the auditor's disclaimer of opinion. B. Appropriate provided the auditor's scope paragraph adequately describes the scope limitation. C. Appropriate provided the statement is in a separate paragraph preceding the disclaimer of opinion paragraph. D. Not appropriate because the auditor is prohibited from reporting on only one basic financial statement.
Answer (A) is correct. "Piecemeal opinions (expressions of an opinion as to certain identified items in a financial statement) should not be expressed when the auditor has disclaimed an opinion or has expressed an adverse opinion on the financial statements taken as a whole because piecemeal opinions tend to overshadow or contradict a disclaimer of opinion or an adverse opinion" (AU 508).
The predecessor auditor, who is satisfied after properly communicating with the successor auditor, has reissued a report because the audit client desires comparative financial statements. The predecessor auditor's report should A. Refer to the report of the successor auditor only in the scope paragraph. B. Not refer to the report or the work of the successor auditor. C. Refer to the work of the successor auditor in the scope and opinion paragraphs. D. Refer to both the work and the report of the successor auditor only in the opinion paragraph.
Answer (B) is correct. A predecessor auditor who has been asked to reissue his/her report should (1) read the current-period statements, (2) compare the statements (s)he reported on with other statements to be presented comparatively, (3) obtain a letter of representations from the successor auditor, and (4) obtain a representation letter from management. The predecessor auditor may also wish to consider the professional reputation and standing of the successor auditor and other matters discussed in AU 543, but the reissued report should not refer to the report or work of the successor auditor.
In testing controls over cash disbursements, an auditor most likely would determine that the person who signs checks also A. Returns the checks to accounts payable. B. Is responsible for mailing the checks. C. Reviews the monthly bank reconciliation. D. Is denied access to the supporting documents.
Answer (B) is correct. The person responsible for signing the checks should also be responsible for assuring that the checks are mailed. This precaution assures limited access to the checks once they are signed.
The likelihood of assessing control risk too high is the risk that the sample selected to test controls A. Contains proportionately fewer deviations from prescribed internal controls than exist in the balance or class as a whole. B. Contains misstatements that could be material to the financial statements when aggregated with misstatements in other account balances or transactions classes. C. Does not support the auditor's planned assessed level of control risk when the true operating effectiveness of internal control justifies such an assessment. C. D. Does not support the tolerable misstatement for some or all of management's assertions.
Answer (C) is correct. According to AU 350, one aspect of sampling risk in performing tests of controls is the risk of assessing control risk too high. It is the risk that the assessed level of control risk based on the sample is greater than the true operating effectiveness of the control.
An auditor most likely would limit substantive audit tests of sales transactions when control risk is assessed as low for the existence or occurrence assertion concerning sales transactions and the auditor has already gathered evidence supporting A. Shipping and receiving activities. B. Cash receipts and accounts receivable. C. Opening and closing inventory balances. D. Cutoffs of sales and purchases.
Answer (B) is correct. Cash receipts and accounts receivable have a direct relationship with sales. A cash sale results in a debit to cash and a credit to sales. A sale on account results in a debit to accounts receivable and a credit to sales. Thus, evidence related to cash receipts and accounts receivable provides assurances about sales.
Which of the following statements is not true of the test data approach to testing an accounting system? A. The test data must consist of all possible valid and invalid conditions. B. Test data are processed by the client's computer programs under the auditor's control. C. The test data need consist of only those valid and invalid conditions that interest the auditor. D. Only one transaction of each type need be tested.
Answer (A) is correct. The test data approach includes preparation of dummy transactions by the auditor. These transactions are processed by the client's computer programs under the auditor's control. The test data consist of one transaction for each valid and invalid condition that interests the auditor. Consequently, the test data need not consist of all possible valid and invalid conditions.
Comparative financial statements include the financial statements of a prior period that were audited by a predecessor auditor whose report is not presented. If the predecessor auditor's report was other than a standard report, the successor auditor must A. Express an opinion on the current year statements alone and not refer to the prior year statements. B. Issue a standard comparative audit report indicating the division of responsibility. C. Obtain written approval from the predecessor auditor to include the prior year's financial statements. D. Disclose the reasons for any modification of the predecessor auditor's report.
Answer (D) is correct. If the financial statements of a prior period have been audited by a predecessor auditor whose report is not presented, the successor should indicate in the introductory paragraph (1) that the prior period statements were audited by another auditor; (2) the date of his/her report; (3) the type of report issued; and, (4) if the report was other than a standard report, the substantive reasons therefor (AU 508).
When audited financial statements are presented in a document containing other information, the auditor A. Has an obligation to perform auditing procedures to corroborate the other information. B. Has no responsibility for the other information because it is not part of the basic financial statements. C. Is required to express an "except for" (qualified) opinion if the other information has a material misstatement of fact. D. Should read the other information to consider whether it is inconsistent with the audited financial statements.
Answer (D) is correct. AU 550 states that the auditor should read the other information and consider whether it and its manner of presentation are consistent with the financial statements on which (s)he is expressing an opinion or whether it contains a material misstatement. AU 550 is not applicable, however, to registration statements.
The purpose of segregating the duties of hiring personnel and distributing payroll checks is to separate the A. Authorization of transactions from the custody of related assets. B. Human resources function from the controllership function. C. Operational responsibility from the record-keeping responsibility. D. Administrative controls from the internal accounting controls.
Answer (A) is correct. In principle, the payroll function should be divided into its authorization, recording, and custody functions. Authorization of hiring, wage rates, and deductions is provided by personnel. Authorization of hours worked (executed by employees) is provided by production. Based upon these authorizations, accounting calculates and records the payroll. Based on the calculated amounts, the treasurer prepares and distributes payroll checks.
A successor auditor should request the new client to authorize the predecessor auditor to allow a review of the predecessor's Engagement Letter Audit Documentation A. No No B. No Yes C. Yes Yes D. Yes No
Answer (B) is correct. The predecessor's engagement letter is not useful for the successor auditor in evaluating whether to accept a new client. However, the audit documentation provides useful information for a successor auditor in the process. Therefore, the client should comply with the auditor's request for the predecessor's audit documentation upon gaining the client's authorization.
A financial forecast consists of prospective financial statements that present an entity's expected financial position, results of operations, and cash flows. A forecast A. Presents estimates given one or more hypothetical assumptions. B. Is based on the most conservative estimates. C. Unlike a projection, may contain a range. D. Is based on assumptions reflecting conditions expected to exist and courses of action expected to be taken.
Answer (D) is correct. According to AT 301, a financial forecast consists of prospective financial statements "that present, to the best of the responsible party's knowledge and belief, an entity's expected financial position, results of operations, and cash flows." A forecast is based on "the responsible party's assumptions reflecting conditions it expects to exist and the course of action it expects to take."
Before accepting an audit engagement, a successor auditor should make specific inquiries of the predecessor auditor regarding A. The degree of cooperation the predecessor received concerning the inquiry of the client's lawyer. B. Disagreements the predecessor had with the client concerning auditing procedures and accounting principles. C. The predecessor's assessments of inherent risk and judgments about materiality. D. The predecessor's evaluation of matters of continuing accounting significance.
Answer (B) is correct. The successor auditor should make specific and reasonable inquiries of the predecessor auditor that include specific questions regarding, among other things, disagreements with management as to accounting principles and auditing procedures.
The scope of an audit is not restricted when an attorney's response to an auditor as a result of a client's letter of audit inquiry limits the response to A. The probable outcome of asserted claims and pending or threatened litigation. B. The attorney's opinion of the entity's historical experience in recent similar litigation. C. Matters to which the attorney has given substantive attention in the form of legal representation. D. An evaluation of the likelihood of an unfavorable outcome of the matters disclosed by the entity.
Answer (C) is correct. AU 337 states that two limitations on the lawyer's response will not be considered scope limitations. The response may be limited to matters to which the lawyer has given substantive attention on behalf of the client in the form of legal consultation or representation. Also, if the lawyer and auditor have reached an understanding as to the limits of materiality, the response may be limited to matters that are individually or collectively material.
When an auditor increases the planned assessed level of control risk because certain controls were determined to be ineffective, the auditor will most likely increase the A. Level of inherent risk. B. Level of detection risk. C. Extent of tests of controls. D. Extent of tests of details.
Answer (D) is correct. An auditor considers internal control to assess control risk. The greater (lower) the assessed level of control risk, the lower (greater) the acceptable level of detection risk. In turn, the acceptable level of detection risk affects substantive testing. For example, as the acceptable level of detection risk decreases, the auditor changes the nature, timing, or extent of substantive tests to increase the assurance they provide.
When the client fails to include information that is necessary for the fair presentation of financial statements in the body of the statements or in the related footnotes, it is the responsibility of the auditor to present the information, if practicable, in the auditor's report and express A. An adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion. B. A qualified or an adverse opinion. C. A qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion. D. A qualified or an unqualified opinion
Answer (B) is correct. Presenting statements in conformity with GAAP includes adequate disclosure of material matters related to the form, arrangement, and content of the statements and notes. If management omits information required by GAAP, the auditor should provide the necessary disclosures in the report, if practicable, and express a qualified or adverse opinion (AU 431).
Analytical procedures performed in the final review stage of an audit generally would include A. Reassessing the factors that assisted the auditor in deciding on preliminary materiality levels and audit risk. B. Summarizing uncorrected misstatements specifically identified through tests of details of transactions and balances. C. Calculating projected uncorrected misstatements estimated through audit sampling techniques. D. Considering the adequacy of the evidence gathered in response to unexpected balances identified in planning.
Answer (D) is correct. To be effective, analytical procedures in the overall review stage should be performed by a manager or partner having a comprehensive knowledge of the client's business and industry. This manager or partner should read the financial statements and notes and consider (1) the adequacy of evidence gathered in response to unusual or unexpected balances identified in planning or conducting the audit, and (2) unusual or unexpected balances or relationships not previously identified (AU 329).
In connection with the examination of bonds payable, an auditor would expect to find in a trust indenture the A. Company's debt-to-equity ratio at the time of issuance. B. Names of the original subscribers to the bond issue. C. Issue date and maturity date of the bond. D. Yield to maturity of the bonds issued.
Answer (C) is correct. A bond trust indenture is the contractual agreement between the bondholders and the bond issuer. It contains the date of issue and the date of maturity of the bond issue as well as the amount of the bonds, interest rates, payment dates, descriptions of collateral, provisions for conversion or retirement, trustee duties, sinking-fund requirements, and restrictions on the borrower.
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Going into Saturday, Tulsa had won seven straight games at home. The streak came to an end Saturday when it fell 70-63 to UAB at the Reynolds Center.
The Golden Hurricane (9-11 overall, 4-2 in Conference USA) led 35-33 at halftime but fell into a hole it could not overcome in the second half.
James Woodard led TU with 12 points and Rashad Ray scored 10.
Chad Frazier and Rod Rucker led the Blazers (13-6, 2-3) with 21 points each. C.J. Washington also had 10 rebounds for UAB.
"UAB is a team that came in here without the record that they would like, and they came out and dominated us on the glass," Tulsa coach Danny Manning said. "They played big boy ball in terms of rebounding the ball. That is one of the areas that we feel contributed to us losing the game. Give them credit. They went after the ball. Frazier got going in the second half and made some tough shots like is known to do. Rucker got into the paint, reverse pivoted, made the buckets, and shot the ball at a high clip. The backboard, to me, was an issue. We didn't rebound or box out throughout the course of the game."
Tulsa, which was out-boarded 50-35, shot 37 percent (23-of-63) from the floor, 25 percent (4-of-16) from 3-point range and 62 percent (13-of-21) from the 3-point line.
UAB shot 38 percent (23-of-61), 42 percent (5-of-12) in 3s and converted 79 percent (19-of-24) from the foul line.
A 3-point play from Rucker gave the Blazers a 61-51 advantage with 3:59 left in the game.
TU would go on a 12-5 run, drawing to within 66-63 after an inside layup from Woodard with 29 seconds to go. TU could not do any more.
The Golden Hurricane continue the last of a 3-game homestand on Saturday against North Texas. That game tips off at 3:05 p.m.


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Jets in sectional finals again
Adams Central will play in the championship round of a girls' tennis sectional for the seventh consecutive season after knocking off South Adams 4-1 in the semi-final round of the Norwell Sectional Thursday night.
The Jets (12-3), winners of three previous sectional titles, lost 3-2 to Huntington North in last year's championship match. Central will try to exact some revenge as they take on the Vikings in the trophy match tonight at 5 p.m. Huntington North beat Bellmont 4-1 in the other semi-final bracket.
The Jets last title came during the 2012 campaign.
Adams Central swept the two doubles matches from South Adams, getting a 6-3, 6-1 win at number one as Katie Carr...
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Ted Post Movies and Career Information
- Movies Directed by Ted Post
- Go Tell the Spartans 1978
- Magnum Force 1973
- Beneath the Planet of the Apes 1970
- Hang 'em High 1968
- Baby
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It was announced yesterday that the spring game for the University of Michigan's football team will be held on Saturday, April 16, 2011, at 12:00 pm.
This annual event is a great opportunity to watch the Michigan football team play for free. It's also a great chance to see what Brady Hoke has done with the team so far, and fans may be able to get a sneak peek at what's to come in the 2011 football season.
Last year, this event drew about 35,000 fans to catch the Wolverines in action. It's an event suitable for the whole family, and it's a great time to get into the Big House (without paying high ticket prices) and cheer for your Wolverines.
Admission is free to this event, but donations will be accepted to support Mott Children's Hospital.
If you can't make it to the game, it will also be broadcast live on the Big Ten Network.
As more information is released, the Ann Arbor Bargains Examiner will update this story. To receive notifications directly to your inbox, subscribe to the Ann Arbor Bargains Examiner, or follow her on Twitter.