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BUS 335 Complete Test Bank Chapter 1 Through 14 – Strayer – A+ Graded
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Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Human capital refers to the knowledge, skill, and ability of people and their motivation to use them successfully on the job. True False
2. For the average organization, employee costs (wages or salaries and benefits) are under 10% of its total revenue. True False
3. Staffing is the process of acquiring, deploying, and retaining a workforce of sufficient quantity and quality to create positive impacts on the organization's effectiveness. True False
4. Acquisition activities involve external staffing systems that govern the initial intake of applicants into the organization. True False
5. Internal staffing systems work in fundamentally different ways than external staffing systems. True False
6. Organizations should attempt to eliminate all employee turnover if at all possible. True False
7. Employee turnover does not represent a significant cost to most organizations. True False
8. Staffing is more of a process than an event. True False
9. Staffing the organization requires attention to both the quantity and quality of people brought into, moved within, and retained by the organization. True False
10. Staffing systems exist primarily to fill specific vacancies, and are not closely linked to overall organizational profitability and growth. True False
11. Quantity or quality labor shortages can mean lost business opportunities, scaled-back expansion plans, an inability to provide critical consumer goods and services, and even threats to organizational survival. True False
12. Employee shortages seldom require job reassignments or overtime for current employees. True False
13. When the federal government needed to hire airport security screeners, applicants started the process of getting a job with a structured interview and physical ability test. True False
14. Pfizer has concluded that it cannot project what kind of talent it needs in the next 10 years and then select employees whose skills matched these long-range future talent needs. True False
15. The process of acquiring, deploying, and retaining a workforce of sufficient quantity and quality to create positive impacts on the organization's effectiveness is called ________. A. staffing B. recruitment C. selection D. placement
16. Which of the following statements is true regarding staffing? A. The organization is the only active player in the staffing process. B. The staffing process is composed of a series of interrelated parts including recruitment, selection, decision making and job offers. C. The staffing process should only be viewed from the perspective of the individual (line) manager. D. None of the above
17. The process that involves the placement of new hires on the actual job they will hold is called ___________. A. acquisition B. deployment C. retention D. none of the above
18. The purpose of retention systems is to __________. A. attract qualified applicants to job openings in the organization B. establish a good person-job match C. manage the flow of employees out of the organization D. establish a good person-organization match
19. Staffing systems exist, and should ultimately be used, to __________. A. ensure that day-to-day operations run smoothly B. ensure that procedural, transactional, and routine activities are accomplished C. reduce costs regardless of the effects on quality or quantity D. contribute to the attainment of organizational goals such as survival, profitability, and growth
20. The quantity portion of the staffing definition means that organizations must be concerned about staffing levels and their adequacy. True False
21. When head count requirements exceed availabilities, the organization will be overstaffed. True False
22. The person/job match model says that jobs are characterized by their level of qualifications and motivation. True False
23. The person/job match model says that individuals are characterized by their level of qualifications and motivation. True False
24. The person/job match model states that it is more important to match job rewards to individual motivations than to match job requirements to KSAOs. True False
25. Matching concerns that involve the larger organization include organizational values, new job duties, multiple jobs, and future jobs. True False
26. In organizations where technology and globalization have caused jobs to change at a rapid pace, person/organization match is more important than person/job match. True False
27. It is usually wise to just focus on task and KSAO requirements when staffing, because job requirements almost never extend beyond task and KSAO requirements. True False
28. The three stages of entering an organization (in order) are selection, recruitment, and employment. True False
29. The initial stage in the staffing system components model is recruitment. True False
30. The recruitment stage of the staffing process involves identification and attraction activities by both the organization and the individual. True False
31. The selection stage of the staffing process emphasizes the assessment and evaluation of job applicants. True False
32. Self-selection refers to employee decisions about whether to continue in or drop out of the staffing process. True False
33. Organizational strategy usually dictates HR strategy, and HR strategy seldom has an impact on organizational strategy. True False
34. Support activities for HR include legal compliance, planning, and job analysis. True False
35. Core activities for HR include legal compliance, planning, and job analysis. True False
36. According to the staffing quantity model, an organization will be __________ when availabilities exceed requirements. A. fully staffed B. understaffed C. overstaffed D. none of the above
37. The staffing quantity model uses _________ to determine whether a condition of being overstaffed, fully staffed, or understaffed exists. A. projected staffing requirements B. projected staffing availabilities C. projected economic trends D. A and B are both needed
38. Which of the following are portions of person-job match? A. Jobs are characterized by their requirements. B. Jobs are characterized by their embedded rewards. C. Individuals are characterized by their level of qualification and motivation. D. All of the above.
39. Which of the following statements is false regarding person-job match? A. Jobs are characterized by their requirements and embedded rewards. B. Individuals are characterized by their level of qualification. C. Organizational culture is an important aspect of person-job match. D. Individuals can be characterized by their motivation levels.
40. The person/job match model says that there must be a match between _______. A. job requirements with KSAOs and job rewards with individual motivation B. job requirements and individual motivation C. KSAOs and individual motivation D. none of the above
41. Regarding the person/job match model, _______. A. staffing is only concerned with the job requirements-KSAO portion of the match B. job requirements should be expressed in terms of only tasks involved and not KSAOs C. It applies only to tasks that have been identified and written down D. none of the above are correct
42. In terms of the person/organization match ________. A. the "organization" includes only tasks to be performed that are written down as part of the job description B. attempts to match people to organization values should not be made C. there is a concern with the "fit" of people to multiple jobs or future jobs D. all of the above are correct
43. Which of the following matching concerns arise in person-organization match? A. values, new job duties, multiple jobs, and future jobs B. values, qualifications, and motivation C. person, process, and principle D. all of the above are correct
44. The staffing system components model says that the phases of the staffing process occur in which order after the initial interaction between the applicant and the organization? A. selection, recruitment, employment B. recruitment, selection, employment C. recruitment, employment, selection D. employment, recruitment, selection
45. According to the overall staffing organizations model, one support activity is ________. A. external staffing B. job analysis C. internal staffing D. labor relations
46. According to the overall staffing organizations model, an example of a core staffing activity is ______. A. HR strategy and planning B. job analysis C. internal recruitment D. none of the above
47. According to the overall staffing organizations model, HR and staffing strategy are driven by _____________. A. the mission, goals and objectives of the organization B. support activities C. legal compliance activities D. all of the above are correct
48. Which of the following is a part of the recruiting phase of the staffing process? A. drawing up job offers B. completing application blanks C. developing and conducting job fairs D. both A and C
49. Which of these activities is most directly associated with the employment phase of the staffing process? A. screening job applications B. deciding on finalists for a job C. advertising a job opening D. evaluating the results of a job aptitude test
50. Staffing system management involves _________. A. assessing applicant qualifications B. facilitating employee retention C. guiding, coordinating, controlling, and evaluating staffing activities D. day-to-day legal compliance activities
51. Sound staffing strategy should always focus on acquiring employees who can hit the ground running and be at peak performance the moment they arrive. True False
52. Small and midsized organizations have increasingly turned to outsourcing as a way to improve the quality of certain recruiting and hiring processes. True False
53. Organizations choose to follow an internal staffing strategy if they want to cultivate a stable, committed workforce. True False
54. An organization's core workforce is composed of workers who are used on an as-needed, just-in-time basis. True False
55. Some organizations accept a certain level of turnover as inevitable and frequently hire replacements to fill vacancies. True False
56. Outsourcing is when an organization sets up its own operations in another country. True False
57. Some organizations understaff in order to avoid costly layoffs. True False
58. When forced to choose between addressing short-term labor shortages and identifying talent for the long term, most organizations focus on developing the long-term concerns. True False
59. A person/organization match is likely to be more important than a person/job match when jobs are poorly defined and fluid. True False
60. Examples of job-specific KSAOs include flexibility and adaptability, ability to learn, written and oral communication skills, and algebra/statistics skills. True False
61. An active diversity strategy might be pursued as a way of acquiring workers who can help identify products that might be received favorably by various segments of the marketplace. True False
62. A _____________ staffing strategy would have an organization concentrate on acquiring new employees who can "hit the ground running." A. pure acquisition B. pure development C. lead system D. lag system
63. The ___________ is composed of more peripheral workers who are used on an as-needed, just-in-time basis. A. core workforce B. high performance workforce C. flexible workforce D. none of the above
64. Outsourcing is _________. A. setting up operations in another country B. typically prohibited by law in most states C. a strategy that is being used less and less D. moving a business process to another vendor
65. Organizations often __________ when they choose to ride out dips in demand for goods and services or to stockpile talent. A. understaff B. overstaff C. attract D. relocate
66. A _____________ staffing strategy is when organizations decide to go to locations where there are ample labor supplies. A. transfer system B. relocate system C. factional system D. extrinsic system
67. When jobs are highly fluid, it is probably advisable for organizations to focus more on: A. person-job match B. person-organization match C. recruiter-recruit match D. dynamic equilibrium
ch1 Key
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The employer-employee relationship is the most prevalent type of employment relationship. True False
2. Employment contracts may be written but not in oral form. True False
3. The specificity of the language used in an employment contract must be very extensive. True False
4. The formal agreement which specifies the employment terms and conditions for the employee and employer is called an employment contract. True False
5. An employer does not incur any legal responsibilities or liabilities regarding its employees. True False
6. The common law principle of employment-at-will says that, in the absence of any contract language to the contrary, either the employer or employee may terminate the employment relationship at any time, but only for certain reasons. True False
7. There are some restrictions on employment-at-will, such as statutory requirements for nondiscriminatory termination. True False
8. An independent contractor is legally considered an employee of the employer who hired him/her. True False
9. If an employer hires an independent contractor, it may reduce the employer's exposure to laws and regulations governing the employment relationship. True False
10. A person is more likely to be considered an independent contractor if they work without supervision or oversight from the employer. True False
11. Temporary employees are considered to be employees of the temporary help agency that obtained them through its own staffing process. True False
12. Court cases suggest that permatemps (employees from a staffing agency who have been with the employer for extended period of time) are still exclusively considered employees of the staffing agency. True False
13. Regarding employment contracts, ________. A. both written and oral contracts are enforceable B. employment-at-will is defined under set-term contracts C. most employees have a contractual right to be discharged only for cause D. all of the above are correct
14. The most prevalent form of the employment relationship is _________. A. independent contractor B. employer-employee C. temporary employee D. employer-employer
15. The common law principle which states that, in the absence of any contract language to the contrary, either the employer or employee may terminate the employment relationship at any time is called _________. A. employment-at-will B. affirmative action C. equal employment opportunity D. a consent decree
16. An example of an exception to the principle of employment-at-will would be _________. A. employers cannot discharge employees on the basis of poor performance B. employers cannot discharge employees on the basis of race C. employers cannot discharge employees for stealing from the company D. none of the above
17. Which of the following statements is true regarding independent contractors? A. An independent contractor is a legal employee of the company which hired him/her. B. Using an independent contractor increases the employer's exposure to laws and regulations governing the employment relationship. C. Using an independent contractor frees an employer from the tax withholding and tax payment obligations it has for its employees. D. Using an independent contractor substantially increases the right of the employer to control the contractor.
18. Which of the following factors increase the likelihood that a worker will be considered an independent contractor? A. The independent contractor works without supervision or oversight from the employer. B. The independent contractor sets his or her own work hours. C. The independent contractor is paid by the project rather than by the time spent. D. All of the above.
19. Which of the following is true regarding temporary employees? A. Temporary employees are considered to be employees of the organization which is using their services, not the temporary help agency. B. During job assignments, temporary workers are on the payroll of the organization using their services. C. Use of temporary workers can often raise issues of "co-employment." D. All of the above are correct.
20. What can employers do to ensure that permatemps, that is, individuals from staffing firms who have long-term relationships with an employer, are not considered employees of their firm? A. Never exercise direct control over these people and treat them separate from regular employees. B. Ensure they provide sufficient training and supervision. C. Provide permatemps with special hats indicating their status as temporary. D. None of the above are correct.
21. Employment laws and regulations exist, in part, to reduce or limit the employer's power in the employment relationship. True False
22. Laws and regulations provide protections to employees that they could not possibly acquire individually in an employment contract. True False
23. The Civil Rights Act specifically mentions employment practices that are permitted for employers. True False
24. The majority of common law decisions are made at the federal level. True False
25. Constitutional law supersedes any other source of law or regulation. True False
26. Examples of common law include the Fifth and Fourteenth Amendments to the Constitution. True False
27. The Civil Rights Act is a statutory source of law/regulations. True False
28. Agencies that enforce staffing laws typically do not rely on written documents to perform their functions. True False
29. Which of the following statements is true regarding the laws and regulations which govern the employment relationship? A. Their purpose is to create a reasonable balance of power between the employer and employee. B. Their purpose is to create a reasonable power advantage for employees. C. Their purpose is to create a reasonable power advantage for employers. D. Their purpose is to provide protections for employees only.
30. The primary source of common law is ________. A. the Constitution B. federal statutes C. past court decisions D. federal agency guidelines
31. Due process rights have their primary source in _________. A. EEOC guidelines B. federal statutes C. state statutes D. the U.S. Constitution Amendments
32. A _________ is a civil wrong that occurs when the employer violates a duty owed to its employees or customers that results in harm or damages. A. tort B. crime C. constitutional law violation D. failure of due process
33. Statutory law is derived from ________. A. court cases B. the US constitution and its amendments C. written documents passed by legislative bodies D. agencies at the federal, state and local levels
34. Agencies that regulate fair employment practice exist at which level? A. federal B. state C. local D. all of the above
35. The role of federal agencies is to __________. A. develop, create, and implement the law B. interpret, administer, and enforce the law C. facilitate greater communication between courts D. render decisions in court cases regarding employment law
36. Whether an organization is covered by the Civil Rights Act, Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA), and Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) depends on its number of employees. True False
37. When determining if an organization large enough to be covered by ADA law, only full-time employees should be included in the employee count. True False
38. Company officials and individual managers can be held personally liable for discrimination under the Civil Rights Act, the ADA, or the ADEA. True False
39. The Civil Rights Act prohibits discrimination on the basis of age or disability status. True False
40. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act covers individuals over the age of 40. True False
41. Employers are required to post notices to all employees advising them of their rights under the laws EEOC enforces and their right to be free from retaliation. True False
42. Claims of disparate treatment focus on the effect of employment practices, rather than on the motive or intent underlying them. True False
43. Claims of disparate impact focus on the effect of employment practices, rather than on the motive or intent underlying them. True False
44. Applicant flow statistics look at differences in selection rates (proportion of applicants hired) among different groups for a particular job. True False
45. The EEOC's preferred method of settlement for employment discrimination claims is a lawsuit. True False
46. In disparate treatment cases, the employee attempts to demonstrate that the defendant's stated reasons for a practice are a pretext, or smoke screen, for the discriminatory intent of practice. True False
47. The consent decree usually contains only an agreement to halt certain practices, and seldom extends to providing monetary relief or AA programs. True False
48. Enforcement mechanisms used by the OFCCP closely mirror those used by the EEOC. True False
49. Which of the following is(are) true regarding federal EEO/AA laws? A. They are very narrow in their coverage of employers. B. Specific agencies exist which regulate administration and enforcement. C. They cover only women, minorities, and certain religious groups. D. None of the above are true.
50. Which of the following is not covered by the Civil Rights Act ________? A. race B. sex C. disability status D. all of the above are covered by the Civil Rights Act
51. The Age Discrimination in Employment Act focuses on individuals over the age of ________. A. 40 B. 30 C. 20 D. 50
52. Disparate treatment focuses on _________. A. allegations and evidence about the effects of discriminatory actions B. allegations and evidence about intentions to discriminate C. adverse impact D. quotas
53. The initial burden of proof in discrimination claims lies ______. A. with the defendant B. with the court C. equally with the court and the federal agency D. with the plaintiff
54. When using stock statistics in job selection discrimination cases, the comparison being made is __________. A. differences in proportions of groups hired B. percentages of groups concentrated in certain job categories C. percentages of groups in job categories relative to their availability in the population D. percentages of union versus non-unionized employees
55. The key to a successful rebuttal in a disparate treatment case is _________. A. to prove adverse impact B. to provide nondiscriminatory reasons for the practice(s) in question C. to show the presence of a "mixed motive" D. to prove discrimination
56. In EEOC cases, a consent decree is ________. A. mandated by law B. court approved C. limited to non-monetary relief D. limited to affirmative action remedies
57. Enforcement mechanisms used by the OFCCP ________. A. rarely involve employer site visits B. are identical to those used by the EEOC C. are unrelated to specific AA plans D. may involve conciliation agreements
58. It is unlawful to discriminate in hiring, firing, compensation, or classification of employees on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. True False
59. Staffing practices that may seem unfair, outrageous, or of dubious value to the employer, but that do not cause adverse impact, are legal. True False
60. If an employer has a selection system in which applicants first take a written test and those who pass it are interviewed, the plaintiff must show adverse impact for the two components combined. True False
61. A prison with mostly male inmates might successfully use the concept of BFOQ to argue that it is a business necessity to hire only male prison guards on the grounds that by doing so it ensures the safety, security, and privacy of inmates. True False
62. Although civil rights legislation does not explicitly mention the use of tests in staffing, most courts have found that the use of such tests is permissible. True False
63. Employers can adjust the scores of employment-related tests on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. True False
64. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 explicitly permits the use of seniority and merit systems as a basis for applying different terms and conditions to employees. True False
65. The Age Discrimination Act of 1967 prohibits all discrimination on the basis of age. True False
66. It is permissible to use terms or phrases that express a preference for older workers, such as "over age 60," "retirees," or "supplement your pension" in employment advertising. True False
67. Recovering former drug users and recovering alcoholics are covered by the Americans with Disabilities Act. True False
68. A broken arm or leg would be considered a covered, short-disability for ADA coverage purposes. True False
69. The Americans with Disabilities Act does not cover individuals with psychiatric disorders, such as depression or schizophrenia. True False
70. Examples of reasonable accommodations under the Americans with Disabilities Act include work schedule changes, modifications to company policy, adjusting supervisory methods, and medication monitoring. True False
71. Accommodations such as job restructuring, telework, changes in work schedules, or purchase of adaptive devices for those with disabilities are considered undue hardships. True False
72. Employers may refuse to hire an individual who poses a direct threat to him/herself or the health and safety of others. True False
73. The law prohibits the use of genetic information in employment. True False
74. Which of the following is prohibited discrimination under civil rights law? A. discrimination in hiring B. discrimination in compensation C. discrimination in classification D. all of the above
75. The essence of a BFOQ is that _________. A. it is always illegal B. it reduces discrimination C. it justifies discrimination based on reasonable necessity of the job D. it prohibits selection through use of a protected characteristic (e.g., gender)
76. Regarding the use of tests in staffing, it can be said that ______. A. they are permitted by law B. they are illegal C. they should be adjusted by protected characteristics to be fair D. they should be "race normed" for fairness
77. The legal status of seniority and merit systems is that _______. A. seniority is legal B. merit systems are legal C. both are legal D. both are illegal
78. The Age Discrimination In Employment Act (1967) prohibits discrimination against individuals who are ____ years or older. A. 40 B. 50 C. 60 D. 65
79. Employers can use which of the following techniques without violating the Age Discrimination in Employment Act. A. using reasonable factors other than age in making employment decisions B. using seniority systems C. using terms or phrases that express a preference for older workers D. all of the above
80. Where the Americans with Disabilities Act is concerned, ______? A. the law only applies to disabled individuals who are otherwise qualified B. the law requires the hiring of all disabled people C. the law prohibits refusal to hire a disabled person D. the law provides advantages to disabled people
81. Where reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals are concerned, it can be said that _______? A. accommodation is always required for an otherwise qualified individual B. specific examples of accommodations are rarely indicated in laws and regulations C. the issue of "undue hardship" to the employer is not addressed by the law D. the need to accommodate often hinges on whether or not a given job function is necessary or essential
82. Which of the following is not prohibited by the ADA? A. medical exams of job applicants B. asking a job applicant if he/she is disabled C. asking a job applicant to undergo a medical exam after a job offer has been made D. refusing to interview a person who is disabled
83. Executive Order 11246 covers _________. A. local government employers B. private employers with under 15 employees C. federal contractors with contracts in excess of $10,000 D. private employers with 20 or more employees E. Other Staffing Laws
84. Substantive assessment methods are used to reduce the applicant pool to candidates. True False
85. It is unlawful to recruit an unauthorized alien for employment in the United States. True False
86. The Immigration Reform and Control Act prohibits employment discrimination on the basis of national origin or citizenship status. True False
87. Nearly everyone who wishes to work in the United States is eligible for an H-1B visa. True False
88. Those who get an H-1B are typically employed in occupations such as architect, engineer, computer programmer, accountant, doctor, and professor. True False
89. Most private employers cannot legally require applicants or employees to take a polygraph test, except in special circumstances. True False
90. Polygraphs cannot be used to investigate theft, embezzlement, or sabotage that causes economic loss to the employer. True False
91. Employers are allowed to take actions like terminating or demoting members of the uniformed services if they have to serve for an extended period of time overseas. True False
92. Some state laws prohibit discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation and gender identity or expression. True False
93. Both private and public employers have a legal mandate to test applicants only for KSAOs that are directly job related. True False
94. Applicants for jobs covered by civil service laws and regulations often have rights to appeal hiring decisions, testing processes, or test contents and methods. True False
95. Noncompliance with the Immigration Reform and Control Act (1986) could result in __________. A. imprisonment for up to six months B. fines equal to $50,000 for each unauthorized alien employed C. summary closing of a business D. imprisonment of the alien for up to five years
96. Which of the following is true regarding EEO laws? A. State (but not local) government employees are immune from lawsuits by employees who allege violation of ADA or ADEA. B. States must pursue age and disability discrimination claims under applicable state laws. C. A foreign company which is owned or controlled by an American employer and is doing business overseas generally also must comply with Title VII, the ADA, and the ADEA. D. All of the above
97. Which of the following is true regarding discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation? A. there are no laws covering sexual orientation discrimination B. federal law prohibits all discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation C. although such discrimination is not covered by federal law, it is covered by some state and local laws D. some state and local laws encourage discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation
98. Which of the following is true regarding H-1B visas? A. Employers may apply for permanent H-1B visas for foreign workers. B. There is a cap of 50,000 workers per year who can obtain such visas. C. H-1B visa holders may not change jobs as soon as their employer files an approval petition and they are restricted to their current geographic area. D. None of the above
ch2 Key
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The four major source of external influence on HR and planning are economic conditions, labor markets, technology, and labor unions. True False
2. Job creation and growth is largely independent of the overall economic climate. True False
3. Most data suggest that there will be job growth in the service sector, the education sector, and in business/professional services. True False
4. Data collected by the Bureau of Labor Statistics suggest the demand for individuals with college degrees or more peaked a while back, and will decrease in the near future. True False
5. There is a trend toward increasingly fewer new entrants to the labor force. True False
6. The American workforce is increasingly made up of young people. True False
7. HR professionals generally report that high school graduates have sufficient basic skills in reading comprehension, writing, and math for entry-level jobs. True False
8. The apparent skills gap in the American workforce appears to be arising because of an increase in demand for highly skilled workers. True False
9. Very few people prefer part-time work, as surveys suggest 88% of part-time workers are seeking full-time employment. True False
10. Technology can serve to create new jobs and eliminate old jobs. True False
11. There has been a major workforce trend in reduced costs of health care for employers. True False
12. Human resource managers are concerned that as the workforce ages, increases in retirement, will lead to shortage of skilled workers in some fields. True False
13. Federal laws prohibit labor unions from bargaining regarding any practices related to human resources planning. True False
14. Which of the following are likely to occur during job expansion periods? A. New hire rates increase for entry level jobs, but decrease for higher level jobs B. Departure of some employees to take opportunities at other firms C. Stagnation of movement through internal labor markets D. Reductions in turnover rates
15. Projections suggest that there will be growth in which of the following sectors of the economy? A. Manufacturing B. Education C. Health services D. Both B and C
16. In general, the labor force is becoming ____. A. younger B. older C. less skilled D. less diverse
17. What percentage of employers believe high school graduates are deficient in work habits such as professionalism, critical thinking, personal accountability, and time management? A. 70% B. 15% C. 40% D. 95%
18. Which of the following are likely responses to labor shortages? A. Decreased pay and benefits packages B. Hiring bonuses and stock options C. Decreased use of temporary employees D. Higher hiring standards
19. Which of the following is a likely effect of technology on employment demand? A. Changes in the skill requirements of the workforce B. Elimination of some jobs C. Creation of new jobs D. All of the above
20. What proportion of the workforce is unionized? A. About 7% of the private sector and about 36% of the public sector B. About 36% of the private sector and about 7% of the public sector C. About 12% of the private sector and about 12% of the public sector D. About 30% of the private sector and about 30% of the public sector
21. In human resources planning, a comparison is made between labor force requirements and labor availability. True False
22. The gap between current workforce size and available workforce size is a critical part of the reconciliation process. True False
23. In plan-based HR planning, the organization's representatives set up a system that is integrally related to the organization's strategic planning process. True False
24. In project based HR planning, the organization's representatives set up a system that looks far into the future and tries to avoid consideration of short term perturbations in the market. True False
25. Planning based on a specific group of employees, such as faculty in specialized areas of a university or nursing employees, is called population-based HRP. True False
26. The unit of human resource planning and analysis is the KSAO. True False
27. Counting the number of employees on payroll may be a misleading indicator of the workforce because it ignores the amount of scheduled time worked by each employee relative to a full workweek. True False
28. Statistical techniques are of little importance to HR managers and should usually be rejected as methods for evaluating HRP needs. True False
29. In regression analysis, historical predictors of workforce size, like sales or new customers, are used to predict staffing levels. True False
30. Trend analysis directly takes into account external factors that might change trends. True False
31. Manager judgment is an ideal method for forecasting workforce availabilities for companies with large numbers of employees in many job categories. True False
32. Markov Analysis is used to assess a previous period's workforce demands on the basis of historical patterns of external applications. True False
33. When conducting Markov analysis, it is desirable to have 20 or more employees in each job category/level. True False
34. The key to ratio analysis is assessing each promotable employee for KSAO or competency gaps, and where there are gaps, creating employee training and development plans that will close the gap. True False
35. Through replacement and succession planning the organization constructs internal talent pipelines. True False
36. Succession planning precedes replacement planning. True False
37. Replacement and succession planning are conducted primarily for managerial jobs. True False
38. The quality of a replacement or succession plan is largely independent of the quality of an organization's performance appraisal systems. True False
39. Human resource planning activities most directly involve _____. A. assessing external environmental factors B. forecasting labor requirements and availabilities C. generating technological replacements for labor D. all of the above
40. The process of determining reconciliation and gaps tells managers _____. A. how many employees will be needed for jobs in the coming period B. why employees are leaving the organization C. which activities should be performed to place new employees in appropriate positions D. when employees are most likely to quit
41. Plan-based HRP consists of _________. A. organizational responses to sudden changes in the environment B. planning focused on a specific employee group C. planning that is part of the organization's strategic planning process D. planning based on best practices of competitors
42. Project-based HRP consists of _________. A. organizational responses to sudden changes in the environment B. planning focused on a specific employee group C. planning that is part of the organization's strategic planning process D. planning based on best practices of competitors
43. Population-based HRP consists of _________. A. organizational responses to sudden changes in the environment B. planning focused on a specific employee group C. planning that is part of the organization's strategic planning process D. planning based on best practices of competitors
44. A manager has gathered data on staffing levels over time, and then predicts future requirements based on the pattern of demand, taking seasonal variations in demand into account. This equation is used to predict future staffing levels. This is an example of _______________. A. regression analysis B. ratio analysis C. trend analysis D. Markov analysis
45. A manager has collected data on the dollar value of sales and has divided this by the number of FTE. Assuming this relationship will hold in the future, and using projected sales, the manager estimates the number of employees required. This is an example of _______________. A. regression analysis B. ratio analysis C. trend analysis D. Markov analysis
46. A manager has collected data on sales, the economy, and taxes over a number of years, and statistically estimates an equation that describes how each of these predictors has affected staffing levels in the past. This equation is used to predict future staffing levels. This is an example of _______________. A. regression analysis B. ratio analysis C. trend analysis D. Markov analysis
47. Which of the following would not be addressed in forecasting HR availabilities? A. Promotions B. Transfers C. Exits D. Motivation level
48. Markov analysis is a technique for __________. A. job analysis B. availability forecasting C. HR requirement forecasting D. seniority estimation
49. A transition matrix would appear in a _________. A. regression analysis B. stochastic analysis C. Markov analysis D. time series analysis
50. In Markov analysis for staffing, __________ is used to forecast future workforce availabilities. A. cost data B. product demand C. transition probabilities D. Bayesian inference
51. Which of the following creates a problem for Markov analysis? A. large sample sizes B. lack of employee moves C. poor economic conditions D. small sample sizes
52. Manager judgment is an important method for staffing in _________. A. organizations with extensive records on human resources outcomes B. smaller organizations C. organizations with lateral diffusion of responsibility D. organizations in the manufacturing sector
53. Which of the following is not a shortcoming of using manager judgment for forecasting availability? A. managers may not know employee intentions B. the complexity of forecasting may overwhelm the manager C. managers are always overly aggressive in making estimates of hiring requirements D. none of the above are shortcomings of manager judgment
54. Employment reconciliation analyzes gaps between ________. A. AA requirements and the external labor force B. future HR requirements and AA requirements C. future HR requirements and HR availability D. all of the above
55. For succession planning to work, organizations must also have _____. A. historical data on product demand B. training and development systems in place C. reimbursable expenditure accounts D. none of the above
56. Human resource information systems provide which of the following functions for succession planning? A. Creating lists of employees who are ready to move into specific positions B. Seeking out passive candidates within the organization C. Tracking candidates across a variety of locations D. all of the above
57. Staffing objectives are derived from identified gaps between requirements and availabilities. True False
58. Long term options for dealing with an employee shortage include hires, transfers into the position, retraining workers, or transferring the work out of the firm. True False
59. If an organization faces a surplus of workers, it is likely that they will have to either downsize or encourage voluntary retirement, because there aren't many alternatives to these actions. True False
60. One advantage of a core workforce is that the organization maintains the legal right to control employees working in its behalf, in terms of both work process and expected results. True False
61. A core workforce is nearly always less expensive than a flexible workforce because the core workforce will accept lower pay and benefits. True False
62. A core workforce is an excellent technique for acquiring new technical and administrative knowledge. True False
63. A flexible workforce can bring in new technical and administrative knowledge that isn't available from the core workforce. True False
64. Sometimes members of the internal workforce will resent external hires, which can limit the effectiveness of external hiring. True False
65. Internal hiring methods are often less expensive than external hiring methods. True False
66. Companies often prefer internal hiring because it gives them a large labor market to recruit from. True False
67. Employing organizations usually have a lot of control over the quality of the flexible workforce. True False
68. A flexible workforce can be obtained by using staffing firms or independent contractors. True False
69. Outsourcing is a more drastic step than using independent contractors or temporary employees. True False
70. Outsourcing is confined almost exclusively to manufacturing work. True False
71. One reason organizations outsource is because specialized vendors can achieve economies of scale for routine tasks that would be performed across many organizations. True False
72. A key advantage of having a core work force is that it provides _________. A. greater predictability B. increased ability to rapidly modify organizational plans C. greater organizational profitability D. lower costs
73. A major disadvantage of a flexible work force is that ________. A. it leads to loss of some control over workers B. it can lead to conflict between core and flexible workers C. flexible workers are often less familiar with equipment D. all of the above
74. Advantages of a core workforce include ______________. A. stability, continuity, and predictability B. a sense of commitment and shared purpose toward the organization's purpose C. an organization can directly control how it acquires its workforce D. all of the above
75. Which of the following are advantages of external staffing? A. bringing in employees with new KSAOs B. quick method to identify job applicants C. it's less expensive than internal staffing D. all of the above
76. Which of the following services is not provided by staffing firms? A. Advance screening of job candidates B. They may provide on-site managers to help with training C. They absorb full legal liability for temporary workers D. None of the above
77. A(n) ______ provides specific task and project assistance to the organization, such as maintenance, bookkeeping, advertising, programming, and consulting, with payment contingent on completion of the project (rather than time worked or methods of completing the task). A. external service provider B. independent contractor C. temporary worker D. offshore site
78. Firms offshore work because ______________. A. wages are often lower overseas B. there is a growing pool of highly qualified workers overseas C. overseas manufacturing always has strict quality control D. both A and B
79. Organizations need to take diversity into account because the workforce has become more diverse. True False
80. Despite popular press to the contrary, there hasn't really been an increase in the number of Latinos and Asians in the American workforce. True False
81. Active diversity planning occurs when the organization encourages underrepresented minorities to apply for positions, actively recruits from a variety of sources, and provides additional training and mentoring to underrepresented groups. True False
82. Evidence suggests that demographically diverse teams are far more effective than homogeneous teams. True False
83. Studies show that women and minorities are largely indifferent to whether an organization has a commitment to diversity in their recruiting efforts. True False
84. Many organizations do not take demographic shifts in the workplace into account when developing staffing plans. True False
85. Targeted recruitment, inclusion of women and African-Americans on top management teams, work family accommodations, and affirmative action plans increase the racial and gender diversity of the organization's managerial workforce. True False
86. In recent years there has been an increase in the number of _________ in the workforce. A. women B. Latinos C. individuals with disabilities D. all of the above
87. Managers are especially concerned about all of the following issues because of the aging workforce except _______. A. loss of skills due to retirement B. decreased ability to learn new material C. increases in medical expenses D. employee elder-care responsibilities
88. Passive diversity planning means _______. A. reviewing policies and practices to ensure there is no discrimination B. encouraging underrepresented groups to apply C. actively recruiting from a variety of sources that are likely to be seen by underrepresented groups D. providing additional training for underrepresented groups
89. AAPs are organization-specific plans that have a legal origin and basis. True False
90. The components of AAPs are enforced by the Department of Workforce Diversity (DWD). True False
91. Federal contractors are legally required to have AAPs in place. True False
92. A general rule of thumb is that if the ratio of incumbency percentage for a group to their availability is less than 80%, the organization should establish a placement goal to increase minority representation. True False
93. Replacement goals from AAPs are often legally termed "quotas" for minorities and women in an organization. True False
94. Some states have banned the use of AAPs for government contractors and educational institutions. True False
95. The major legal issue for HR strategy and planning is _______. A. affirmative action plans B. disparate treatment C. disparate impact D. sexual harassment
96. Affirmative action plans and programs do not originate from _______. A. voluntary employer efforts B. court-imposed remedies for discriminatory practices C. consent agreements D. international treaties
97. To have a high probability of being acceptable in the eyes of the Supreme Court, an organization's AAP should _________. A. not necessarily interfere with the job status of non-minority and male employees B. concentrate on future, rather than past discrimination C. not focus on underutilization D. be a permanent feature of organizational structure
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. In most modern organizations, jobs are largely well established and change little over time. True False
2. Job analysis is the process of studying jobs in order to gather, analyze, synthesize, and report information about job requirements. True False
3. Competency based job analysis seeks to identify and describe the specific tasks, KSAOs, and job context for a particular job. True False
4. The traditional way of designing a job is to identify and define its elements and tasks precisely and then incorporate them into a job description. True False
5. Traditional job design is marked by formal organization charts, clear and precise job descriptions and specifications, and well-defined relationships between jobs. True False
6. Changes to jobs have become so radical that the concept of "jobs" is no longer a useful concept in most organizations. True False
7. Advances in technology are one of the major reasons for changes in jobs. True False
8. A job family is a grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions. True False
9. The smallest unit into which work can be divided without analyzing separate motions, movements, and mental processes is called an element. True False
10. Many small-business owners, general managers of start-up strategic business units, and top management members perform flexible jobs that are difficult to classify in traditional job analysis. True False
11. Measures of engagement reflect specific skills sets that are readily measured through job analysis. True False
12. Competency analysis is one way to incorporate engagement into job analysis. True False
13. A job description is best defined as _____. A. the organization's framework for AA compliance B. the organization's indicator of tasks required for each job C. the organizations principle job training tool D. the organization's performance appraisal instrument
14. Which of the following are elements of traditional job design? A. formal organization charts B. clear and precise job descriptions C. well-defined mobility (promotion and transfer) paths D. all of the above
15. Which of the following is a good definition of a job family? A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in the performance of a job B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimension
16. Which of the following is a good definition of a job category? A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in the performance of a job B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions
17. Which of the following is a good definition of a job? A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in the performance of a job B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions
18. Which of the following is a good definition of a task? A. A grouping of elements to form an identifiable work activity that is a logical and necessary step in the performance of a job B. A grouping of jobs, usually according to function C. A grouping of jobs according to generic job title or occupation D. A grouping of positions that are similar in their tasks and task dimensions
19. Measures of engagement reflect _________. A. task characteristics that are readily accommodated by job analysis B. the degree to which an employee helps co-workers voluntarily C. the degree to which an employee identifies with and has enthusiasm for his or her work D. the employee's tendency to reject alternative employment offers when given
20. Job requirements job analysis begins by identifying the specific tasks and the job context for a particular job. True False
21. Job analysis is a primary input and support activity for most functional staffing activities. True False
22. Team-based jobs lend themselves particularly well to job requirements job analysis. True False
23. The job requirements matrix is composed of two components: tasks and KSAOs. True False
24. Task statements are objectively written descriptions of the behaviors or work activities engaged in by employees in order to perform the job. True False
25. Task statements should reflect what the employee does, to whom or what the employee does what he or she does, what is produced, and what is used. True False
26. The KSAO portion of a job requirements matrix is often converted to a job description. True False
27. The term "task dimension" has the same basic meaning as "duties" or "areas of responsibility." True False
28. Sentence analysis is used to develop competencies. True False
29. Tasks should be constructed using broadly applicable verbs, such as "supports," "assists," and "handles." True False
30. It is possible to weight task dimensions using either relative time spent, percentage of time spent, or importance to overall job performance. True False
31. Knowledge is a body of information that can be directly applied to the performance of tasks. True False
32. Skills are underlying, enduring traits of a person that are useful for performing a range of tasks. True False
33. The work setting, attire, environmental conditions, and job hazards are associated with a job's "context." True False
34. Having two or more people independently develop task statements for a given job is a way to enhance content validity and assess reliability. True False
35. It is not really necessary, or even advisable, to have an incumbent or supervisor serve as job analysts. True False
36. Little research has been done to identify particular job-related skills. True False
37. In general, there are few, if any, sources of job information external to the organization where the job is performed. True False
38. Direct observation is a source for job information that is well suited for jobs with physical components, and relatively short cycle times for job tasks. True False
39. Using managers in a job analysis lends both expertise and neutrality to the process. True False
40. When a job analysis is likely to be legally, technically or politically scrutinized, it is best to use an internal person to do the analysis, rather than an external consultant. True False
41. In general, when rational or narrative job analysis methods are desired, it is advisable to rely on external consultants rather than internal staff. True False
42. A valuable use of O*NET is that it serves as a starting point in preparing knowledge statements. True False
43. Subject matter experts should not include previous jobholders, private consultants, and customers/clients. True False
44. The O*Net contains work context factors pertaining to interpersonal relationships and to structural job characteristics. True False
45. The term essential functions refers to the fundamental job duties of the employment position the individual with a disability holds or desires. True False
46. The Position Analysis Questionnaire measures extrinsic rewards such as pay, recognition, and promotional opportunities. True False
47. The best approach to job analysis for traditional or evolving jobs is _____. A. job requirements job analysis B. competency based job analysis C. team-based job analysis D. functional job analysis
48. Which of the following is NOT shown by an ideal task statement? A. what the employee does B. to whom or what the employee does what he or she does C. what is produced D. how each behavior is rewarded
49. Which of the following is a component of a job requirements matrix? A. Job tenure B. Job pay C. Job context D. Job appraisal
50. Sentence analysis technique is an aid to __________. A. writing the job summary B. describing the KSAOs C. drafting precise task statements D. describing the job context
51. It can be accurately said of the "task dimension" component of a job description that it ___________. A. provides a rating of task importance B. is a grouping of similar tasks C. indicates appropriate KSAOs D. indicates the nature of KSAOs
52. The job context component of a job description does not __________. A. encompass both tasks and KSAOs B. describe physical demands C. describe environmental characteristics D. address pay scales
53. The KSAO portion of a job requirements matrix may be _________. A. converted to a job specification B. converted to a job description C. converted to a job evaluation D. converted into a job pay scale
54. A body of information that can be directly applied to the performance of tasks is _______. A. knowledge B. skills C. abilities D. none of the above
55. An underlying, enduring trait of the person that is useful for performing a range of tasks is _______. A. knowledge B. skills C. abilities D. none of the above
56. An observable competence for working with or applying information to perform a particular task is _______. A. knowledge B. skills C. abilities D. none of the above
57. If tasks/dimensions are not weighted formally, then ________. A. the job description has no value B. AA non-compliance will result C. all tasks/dimensions are assessed as equally important by default D. pay scales cannot be developed
58. The reason for having the manager participate as a job analyst is to ______. A. provide acceptance of job statements to guide performance on the job B. verify statements are inclusive and accurate C. control incumbent responses on job analysis questionnaires D. establish pay scales
59. A limitation of observation as a means of gathering job information would be ______________. A. access to job context B. short job cycle C. access to KSAOs D. mental processes are difficult to measure
60. Which of the following is an advantage of using job task questionnaires? A. Use with large numbers of people B. Highly diverse job content and formats C. Working with top management positions D. Working with newly created jobs
61. Which of the following is not a good reason for using an outside consultant for job analysis? A. Technical innovativeness is critical B. Legal scrutiny of project output/processes is high C. Knowledge of organization culture is critical D. Data collection involves specialized statistical methods
62. Skills contained in O*Net include _____________. A. basic skills B. cross-functional skills C. sensory abilities D. all of the above
63. Competency-based job analysis begins by identifying the specific tasks and the job context for a particular job. True False
64. Competencies are more specific than KSAOs. True False
65. Competency-based job analysis attempts to identify and describe job requirements in the form of general KSAOs that are required across a range of jobs. True False
66. Competencies contribute to job performance, but not to organizational success. True False
67. Competency based job analysis is a way to facilitate increased staffing flexibility. True False
68. A key strategic HR reason for performing competency modeling is to create awareness and understanding of the need for change in business. True False
69. Competency modeling is useful for improving workforce skills, but is generally of little use for replacement or succession planning. True False
70. Although competency modeling has its advantages relative to job requirements job analysis, it does require considerable time and effort to establish competency models in an organization. True False
71. The "Great Eight" competencies include leading, supporting, presenting, analyzing, creating, organizing, adapting, and performing. True False
72. The legal implications of analyzing competencies beyond job specific ones are well-known. True False
73. The best approach to job analysis for flexible jobs with changing requirements is _____. A. job requirements job analysis B. competency based job analysis C. team-based job analysis D. functional job analysis
74. A competency is _____. A. a type of behavior that is observed on the job B. an underlying characteristic of an individual that contributes to job or role performance C. a latent component of the job characteristics matrix D. a compilation of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities that make up a job
75. Unlike KSAOs, competencies usually describe characteristics ________. A. of individuals that contribute to job performance B. that are used for selecting individuals C. that contribute to success across multiple jobs D. of organizational reward systems
76. Competency modeling is useful for which of the following applications? A. Identifying needs for replacement and succession planning B. Internal promotion processes C. Facilitating the HR planning process D. All of the above
77. Competency modeling is strategically used to _________. A. create awareness of the need for stability in business B. enhance the skill level of the workforce C. encourage employees to focus on their own jobs as much as possible D. none of the above
78. Which of the following is not one of the "great eight" competencies? A. Mechanical knowledge B. Creating C. Organizing D. Performing
79. Pay, benefits, and promotions are typical intrinsic job rewards. True False
80. Intrinsic rewards are best characterized as "inherent in the nature of the job and experienced by the employee as an outgrowth of actually doing the job." True False
81. The employee value proposition is the bundle or package of KSAOs that the employee provides to the organization. True False
82. Surveys and interviews with employees are a key way to gather information on job rewards preferences. True False
83. One advantage of intrinsic rewards is that they are basically costless. True False
84. Interviews and surveys of current employees on job rewards, no matter how comprehensive, miss several relevant groups of individuals. True False
85. Surveys of employees clearly suggest that intrinsic rewards are seen as more important for job satisfaction than extrinsic rewards. True False
86. Interviews are more personal than surveys, but the summary and analysis of interview data is more time consuming and difficult. True False
87. One way to assess the importance of rewards to employees is to examine the rewards that other organizations provide to their employees. True False
88. Which of the following is not an example of an extrinsic reward? A. Pay B. Promotion C. Autonomy D. Fringe benefits
89. It is critical than when employees are interviewed about their reward preferences, the content of the interviews is ____________. A. made public so managers can match employee preferences immediately B. kept confidential so employees can report honestly C. developed through an informal process so employees feel comfortable D. generally less important than the process used in asking questions
90. Which of the following HR outcomes arise from providing and using rewards? A. applicant attraction B. employee performance C. employee retention D. all of the above
91. What is the "employee value proposition?" A. the total worth of an employee's KSAOs B. the organization's package of rewards provided to employees C. the net worth of an organization's employees D. none of the above
92. Which of the following best represents the order of aspects important for job satisfaction identified in surveys, from most valued to least valued? A. variety of work, relationship with supervisor, compensation, and networking B. relationship with supervisor, networking, variety of work, and compensation C. job security, benefits, opportunities to use skills and abilities, and financial stability D. networking, variety of work, relationship with supervisor, and compensation
93. When assessing appropriate rewards, organizations can use information from _____________. A. surveys conducted by the Department of Labor B. surveys conducted by the Society for Human Resources Management C. internal organizational sources D. all of the above
94. A work team is an interdependent collection of employees who share responsibility for achieving a specific goal. True False
95. Teams are seldom designed to absorb management functions that allow for self-management because they inherently produce excess groupthink. True False
96. The greater the task interdependence in a team, the greater the importance of KSAOs pertaining to interpersonal qualities and team self-management qualities. True False
97. Job specific KSAOs become largely irrelevant in team-based work. True False
98. An interdependent collection of employees who share responsibility for achieving a specific goal is called a _____. A. project unit B. department C. work team D. goal circle
99. Which of the following are unique properties of teams, from a staffing point of view? A. Competencies are not generally useful for selection in teams because of the division of responsibility in teams B. KSAOs for teams involve job-spanning skills because members perform multiple roles C. Most research shows intelligence is unrelated to team success D. Both A and C
100. The sample size used in job analysis is not relevant to legal defensibility. True False
101. Details regarding knowledge, skills, and abilities in a job description are important components of a legally defensible selection system. True False
102. If an employment discrimination case involves an organization's defense of its selection procedures, the UGESP require the conduct of job analysis. True False
103. Although some have advocated for greater use of job analysis in legal cases, the courts currently recognize job titles as sufficiently detailed indicators of required characteristics of applicants. True False
104. Employment regulations give several specific techniques for using job analysis to identify essential job functions. True False
105. The EEOC has provided assistance to organizations for dealing with the issue of identifying essential job functions for the purpose of ADA compliance. True False
106. The ADA requires the performance of a job analysis to identify the essential functions of a job. True False
107. Which of the following could harm an organization's legal defense in an EEO/AA case? A. Written job descriptions B. Large sample sizes employed in job analysis C. Emphasis mostly on primary tasks D. Emphasis mostly on secondary tasks
108. In defining essential job functions for the purposes of complying with ADA regulations, which of the following does not convey the meaning "essential?" A. Compensation for the function is above average B. Position exists to perform the function C. Incumbent expertise required to perform the function D. There are limited numbers of employees among whom performance of the function can be distributed
109. When using job analysis to comply with the ADA, which of the following is considered most helpful by the EEOC? A. Focusing on the way the work is usually done B. Focusing on the results of a function C. Focusing on the average qualifications of job holders D. Focusing on managerial assessments of skill relevance
ch4 Key
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Most organizational recruiting is done in-house. True False
2. Organizations with low turnover rates will probably prefer to use internal recruitment agencies. True False
3. Some organizations cooperate with one another during recruitment drives to minimize individual recruitment costs. True False
4. A centralized approach to recruiting can ensure that policy is being interpreted consistently across business units. True False
5. One advantage to centralized recruitment is that recruitment efforts may be undertaken in a more timely manner. True False
6. It is typically easy to determine the number of contacts with applicants needed to fill a vacancy. True False
7. One consistent finding in the research is that job seekers are more likely to find out about jobs through friends and family than they are through employment agencies. True False
8. Research has shown that greater employer involvement with prospective applicants does little to improve the image of the organization. True False
9. The practice of not charging the business unit may result in the business unit users not being concerned about minimizing recruitment costs. True False
10. Applicant tracking systems make it possible to assess how many individuals are attracted and hired through each recruiting source. True False
11. A recruitment guide is an informal set of principles suggesting, but not proscribing, how recruiting might proceed. True False
12. Most recruiters receive a great deal of training. True False
13. Research consistently shows that HR department employees make better recruiters than line managers. True False
14. Which of the following is an advantage of using an external recruiting agency? A. it ensures consistency from opening to closing B. it is useful for companies too small to have dedicated recruiters C. it is very inexpensive D. all of the above
15. Which of the following are advantages of centralized recruitment? A. duplications of effort are reduced B. increased responsiveness to immediate needs C. closer links to day-to-day operations D. decreased costs in the centralized HR function
16. Which of the following are components of a well-developed recruiting requisition? A. quantity of labor to be hired B. affirmative action compliance methods C. list of selection methods to be used D. all of the above
17. Which of the following is not one of the major areas written into recruiting budgets? A. website development and administration B. costs of signing bonuses C. time spent making personal contacts and following up with candidates D. bringing candidates onsite
18. A recruiting requisition is ________________________. A. a formal document that authorizes the filling of a job opening B. a flowchart that enumerates costs of each selection tool C. a formal document that details the process to be followed to attract applicants to a job D. a description of the costs and benefits of various methods of selection
19. A recruitment guide is ________________________. A. a formal document that authorizes the filling of a job opening B. a flowchart that enumerates costs of each selection tool C. a document that details the process to be followed to attract applicants to a job D. a description of the costs and benefits of various methods of selection
20. Research suggests that an ideal recruiter has ________________________. A. strong interpersonal skills B. knowledge about the organization C. extensive knowledge about the job D. all of the above
21. With an open recruitment approach, organizations cast a wide net to identify potential applicants for specific job openings. True False
22. The growth of Web-based recruiting means that many employers have found that open recruiting yields too few applicants. True False
23. Targeted recruiting is done to find applicants with specific characteristics pertinent to person/job or person/organization match. True False
24. Targeted recruiting is a poor choice for diversity-conscious firms. True False
25. Targeted recruitment can achieve the same ends of inclusion as open recruitment, though by a different mechanism. True False
26. It is usually advised that a company either adopt open or targeted recruitment across the board for all employees. True False
27. One shortcoming of targeted recruitment is that by seeking out one group, one may exclude another from the same consideration. True False
28. Research indicates that recruits are bored by overly simple web-based recruiting systems and they prefer a more elaborate design. True False
29. Research shows that candidates prefer organizational Web sites that allow them to customize the information that they receive. True False
30. Most estimates suggest that employee referrals are one of the least commonly used recruiting methods. True False
31. Organizations sometimes use social networking sites like LinkedIn and Facebook to find job candidates. True False
32. One major problem with Internet-based recruiting is that there are too few applications for most jobs. True False
33. Niche employment websites are a popular method for finding recruits with a specific set of skills. True False
34. Research has shown that organization websites and electronic bulletin boards are seen as more informative and credible than campus recruiting. True False
35. Executive search firms are usually extremely expensive. True False
36. In a small number of states, there are employment or job service options to help employers find candidates for jobs. True False
37. Outplacement firms offer employees who are losing their jobs assistance finding new jobs in the form of counseling and training to help facilitate a good person/job match. True False
38. If a recruiting search is too narrow, the organization will likely be engaged in a long-term process of looking. True False
39. There has not been any research on the effectiveness of various recruitment sources. True False
40. What are the two major strategies for recruiting? A. open or shut B. proactive or pensive C. open or targeted D. general or targeted
41. Which of the following is an advantage of open recruiting? A. it is seen as more fair B. it ensures a diverse set of applicants C. a small set of qualified applicants is considered D. both a and b
42. Which of the following is an advantage of targeted recruiting? A. it is seen as more fair B. it ensures a diverse set of applicants C. a small set of qualified applicants is considered D. both a and b
43. Which situation most strongly calls for open recruitment? A. a small number of applicants are required B. specific skill sets are needed C. pre-entry qualifications are not important D. the organization is downsizing
44. Which situation most strongly calls for targeted recruitment? A. a small number of applicants are required B. specific skill sets are needed C. pre-entry qualifications are not important D. the organization is downsizing
45. The recruitment approach in which an organization identifies those segments of the labor market where qualified candidates are likely to be is called __________. A. targeted recruitment B. job requirements matrix recruitment C. geographic area recruitment D. strategic recruitment
46. Which of the following is an appropriate use of targeted recruiting? A. Using non-traditional sources to enhance minority hiring. B. Broadening the geographical recruitment area to control selection costs. C. Eliminating recruitment sources to minimize yield ratios. D. Using demographics to avoid certain classes of potential applicants.
47. Which of the following are not components of a strong corporate recruiting website? A. exciting flash graphics presentations of opportunities B. detailed information on career opportunities C. résumé builders D. self-assessment inventories
48. A study of the best practices of the Web sites of 140 high-profile organizations indicates that one of the features of a high-impact Web site is ____________. A. a job cart function B. personal search engines C. self-assessment inventories D. all of the above
49. Which of the following statements about using employee referrals is true? A. those recruited by employee referrals tend to be less committed B. those recruited by referrals are more qualified and committed C. referral programs may be effective, but few are hired in this way D. over 80% of organizations provide incentives for referrals
50. Which of the following statements is false? A. many employment sites now offer the ability to create and approve job requisitions online B. employment sites sometimes cross-list jobs with local newspapers C. at any given time there are millions of résumés available on employment websites D. none of these statements is false
51. College placement offices are used because ___________. A. they reach individuals with diverse levels of skills for all job types B. it really doesn't matter which college you recruit from because they're all the same C. it's fast and easy to establish relationships with campus recruiting offices D. campus recruiting efforts are seen as more credible than websites or bulletin boards
52. The more broadly transmitted the organization's search methods, the more likely that a ____________ will be attracted to apply. A. highly eager group of applicants B. relatively homogenous population of individuals C. uniformly high quality of individuals D. large number of individuals
53. A high cost method of search may be worth the cost to the organization if ___________. A. the job is not crucial to the organization's success B. KSAOs are in short supply C. only a small number of individuals are needed D. none of the above
54. Evidence suggests that, overall, ___________ are likely to attract employees who have a better understanding of the organization and its culture. A. referrals and job trials B. websites C. newspaper advertising D. employment agencies
55. A realistic recruitment message portrays the organization and the job as they really are, rather than describing what the organization thinks job applicants want to hear. True False
56. Research suggests that realistic job previews lead to massive reductions in turnover. True False
57. The hope with realistic job previews is that job applicants will self-select into and out of the organization. True False
58. There is some evidence that realistic job previews might scare away the most promising job candidates. True False
59. Realistic job previews should be part of the initial exposure of the organization to applicants because that is when they are most effective at increasing satisfaction and reducing turnover intentions. True False
60. Written or videotaped RJPs are more effective than verbal RJPs. True False
61. Realistic recruiting messages are less effective for those with considerable previous job experience. True False
62. Research shows that having an employment brand can attract applicants to an organization, even beyond job and organizational attributes. True False
63. An organization's employment brand is completely different than its product market image. True False
64. A targeted recruiting message is designed to appeal to a particular audience. True False
65. A realistic job preview strategy is best for tight labor markets or higher-value jobs. True False
66. Word of mouth is one of the most powerful methods for communicating about job opportunities, and it is also a method that organizations cannot directly control. True False
67. Advertising is an ideal method for providing rich information to job candidates. True False
68. It doesn't make a difference if recruiting information is seen as coming from the employees personally or from the organization's recruiting offices. True False
69. Sending mass e-mails advertising positions may be an ineffective strategy because many applicants will regard these messages as junk mail or spam. True False
70. A realistic job preview is _________________________. A. a description of a job that integrates both positive and negative information B. a method of recruiting that involves putting candidates in sink-or-swim opportunities to learn on the job C. a series of structured video exercises showing a job's task characteristics D. a largely negative recruiting approach
71. Research suggests __________ realistic job previews lead to reduce turnover most. A. verbal B. videotaped C. written D. computerized
72. What is the main reason for taking a realistic job preview approach to developing a job communication message? A. The approach aids applicants in self-selecting out of the organization. B. The method enhances AA compliance. C. The approach results in lower advertising costs. D. The approach presents potential job applicants with the most attractive description of the job attributes.
73. Which method of recruiting is most effective at reducing turnover? A. realistic B. targeted C. considerate D. branded
74. Which method of recruiting is most effective for tight labor markets and highly valued jobs? A. realistic B. targeted C. considerate D. branded
75. Which method of recruiting is designed to be used when an organization is seeking a specific set of KSAOs? A. realistic B. targeted C. considerate D. branded
76. Which of the following statements regarding the development of recruiting strategies is false? A. recruiting information coming from employees is seen as especially credible B. the most effective messages also allow employees to find more information and customize their experience C. recruiting advertisements in publications with large circulations will usually be more expensive D. organizations need to be careful about over-promoting their brand because repetition of a message tends to decrease its persuasive appeal
77. Which communication medium refers to the informal information regarding an organization's reputation, employment practices, and policies? A. recruitment brochures B. word of mouth C. advertising D. organizational websites
78. Which of the following communication media is marked by low richness and high cost, but also with an especially broad audience of potential applicants? A. recruitment brochures B. word of mouth C. advertising D. organizational websites
79. Most research shows that recruiters are even more important than job characteristics in attracting applicants to an organization. True False
80. Applicants have a strong preference for recruiters who are the same gender and race as they are. True False
81. Personal warmth and knowledge of the job are the two most important recruiter characteristics for attracting applicants. True False
82. Applicants also see recruiting processes as more fair if they have an opportunity to perform or demonstrate their ability to do the job. True False
83. Although delays in the recruiting process should not be ignored, in general, they don't have much effect on applicant attraction to an organization. True False
84. The influence of the recruiter on the applicant is more likely to occur in the initial rather than the latter stages of the recruitment process. True False
85. Surveys suggest that only 25% of college students actually use Internet sources as an important part of making their decision to find and apply for jobs. True False
86. Women and minorities are especially interested in working for employers that endorse diversity through policy statements and in recruiting materials. True False
87. Traditional recruiting methods like campus recruiting and job fairs are an ideal method for increasing the age diversity of the workforce. True False
88. It is a bad idea to share too much information with applicants about the selection system during the later parts of the recruiting process because it's likely that applicants will just learn how to game the system. True False
89. Applicants typically prefer recruiters who are ________________. A. well-informed about the job B. in an HR-related function C. the same gender D. brusque
90. Recruiter characteristics are ________________. A. important in every stage of the selection process B. not at all related to employee interested in a company C. not as important as the actual job characteristics D. equally related to applicant attitudes and behaviors
91. Recruiters should not _______________. A. be knowledgeable of the job rewards B. be knowledgeable of job characteristics C. show enthusiasm during recruiting interviews D. try to avoid showing too much interest in candidates
92. Research suggests that an ideal recruiter possesses ________________. A. strong interpersonal skills B. knowledge about the organization, jobs, and career issues C. enthusiasm about the organization and job candidates D. all of the above
93. Which of the following statements is false? A. applicants are very concerned about the fairness of recruiting processes B. delay times in the recruiting process can reduce applicant interest C. increasing expenditures on recruiting increases yields D. none of the above
94. Which of the following techniques is helpful in improving diversity of applicants obtained through the recruiting process? A. advertisements showing women and minorities in positions of leadership B. advertisements showing a relatively homogeneous workforce C. advertising in publications that aim for a general audience D. none of the above
95. Legally, an applicant is a person who has indicated an interest in being considered for hiring, promotion, or other employment opportunities. True False
96. Only those who fill out paperwork for employment need be considered applicants, for legal purposes. True False
97. If an organization does not define a policy for recruiting, virtually anyone who contacts the organization or expresses interest by any means could be considered an applicant. True False
98. According to the OFCCP, to be considered an Internet applicant the person has to submit an expression of interest, the employer has to consider the person, and the person has basic qualifications for the position. True False
99. The OFCCP provides very specific, strict guidelines for recruitment activities for organizations with affirmative action programs. True False
100. Electronic recruiting may lead to adverse impact because certain demographic groups are less likely to own and regularly use computers. True False
101. Making organizational websites compatible with screen readers is a very expensive proposition, but it is required for compliance with the ADA. True False
102. The EEOC bans the use of explicit age- or sex-based preferences in recruitment advertising. True False
103. It is quite difficult for applicants to successfully make a case that there has been fraud or misrepresentation in recruitment advertising. True False
104. Which of the following is not a good way to manage the recruiting process for optimal legal defense? A. require a formal application from all who seek to be considered B. require that the applicant indicate the precise position applied for C. keep applications on hold or on file for future consideration D. keep track of applicants who drop out of the process
105. Which of the following is not required for someone to be considered an Internet applicant? A. the individual submits an expression of an interest in employment B. the employer considers the individual for employment in a particular position C. the individual possesses the basic qualifications for the position D. evidence of a visit to the physical employment site
106. Employers need to keep track of which of the following for adverse impact calculations? A. demographic profiles of all who visit organizational websites B. all expressions of interest submitted through the Internet C. only applications backed up by paper files D. none of the above
107. Which of the following statements is true regarding the OFCCP's regulation of affirmative action plans? A. organizations may find that recruiting at secondary schools and community colleges with large minority enrollments may facilitate AAP success B. language specifically encouraging women and minorities to apply is banned C. ratios of applicants by race and gender categories must be adhered to strictly D. none of the above
108. OFCCP suggested actions for the recruitment process include _____________. A. encourage white male employees to refer job applicants B. carefully select and train all personnel included in staffing C. eliminate the use of job descriptions D. none of the above
109. What is the legal status of video résumés? A. they are considered a very low risk recruiting tool B. they can lead to lawsuits related to "lookism" C. they have been banned outright in most states D. they reveal protected class characteristics that may form the basis of a lawsuit
110. Which of the following does not have to be shown by a plaintiff in fraud and misrepresentation lawsuit related to recruiting? A. that a misrepresentation occurred B. that the plaintiff relied on the information to make a decision C. that the plaintiff had perfect knowledge regarding the misrepresentation D. that the plaintiff was injured because of reliance on the information
111. Which of the following statements, when placed in a job message, would not be likely to create problems with the EEOC? A. "Applicants must be enthusiastic and willing to take risks." B. "Applicants should be recent college graduates." C. "Applicants should be healthy and athletic." D. "Applicants should be gentlemen of outstanding character."
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. As a result of rising recruiting, selection, training, and development costs, companies are increasingly looking externally to staff positions. True False
2. Hierarchical mobility paths make it very easy, from an administrative vantage point, to identify where to look for applicants in the organization. True False
3. Under a parallel track system, the job titles and salaries of technical specialists are treated as hierarchically arranged. True False
4. Alternative mobility paths tend to be very difficult to administer. True False
5. One hallmark of hierarchical mobility paths is an emphasis on pay for skill development and learning. True False
6. To maintain employee motivation, alternative mobility paths may need to be supplemented with pay for skill development and counseling sessions. True False
7. It is probably best to avoid listing who is eligible for open positions in a mobility policy, because it will just lock the organization in. True False
8. Research suggests that employees really don't care if mobility policies are well-spelled out, because they only care if they personally get promoted. True False
9. If only an external recruitment search is conducted, the morale of existing employees may be reduced when they feel that they have been passed over for a promotion. True False
10. A major difference between internal and external recruitment is that external recruitment not only fills vacancies but also creates them. True False
11. Some of the features of hierarchical mobility paths include A. they are easier to administer B. the prospect of promotions can motivate employees C. they may not be useful in flat organizational structures D. all of the above
12. Which of the following is true regarding mobility paths? A. Hierarchical mobility paths are primarily lateral in direction. B. Hierarchical mobility paths make it easy to identify where to look for applicants in an organization. C. Alternative mobility paths may move in any direction. D. Parallel tracks allow a person to pursue one primary career track and a second career track of less importance.
13. Which of the following is a disadvantage of alternative mobility paths? A. they can discourage development of core disciplinary knowledge B. they are seen as hostile to the advancement of women and minorities C. they promote narrow skill sets D. they often need to be supplemented with alternative reward systems to maintain motivation
14. A lattice mobility path is _________. A. characterized by upward, lateral, and downward movement B. found mostly within the external recruitment process C. used in conjunction with union contracts D. concerned with management level recruitment only
15. Organizations have become interested in alternative mobility paths because ______________. A. they are extremely easy to administer B. they allow employees to specialize in technical work or management work and advance within either C. they promote healthy competition to obtain rewards D. unions find them more acceptable
16. A well-defined mobility path should include all of the following except: ______________. A. clear communication of the intent of the policy B. rules regarding compensation and advancement C. encouragement for all individuals to apply D. supervisors' responsibilities for employee development
17. In developing career path policies, a good approach for promotion would not include which of the following? A. Communication of management's intentions. B. Reasons why external sources are preferred. C. Rules regarding compensation. D. Rules concerning fringe benefits.
18. Under a closed internal recruitment system, employees are not made aware of job vacancies. True False
19. Closed internal recruitment systems are very efficient to administer. True False
20. Under a hybrid system, neither open nor close steps are implemented. True False
21. Closed internal recruitment systems are an ideal choice if there are issues about perceived fairness and the organization want to make sure it isn't missing out on hidden talent. True False
22. One problem with job postings is that employees may believe that someone has been selected before the job was posted and so will either not bother to apply or will believe the system is unfair. True False
23. A job posting may be announced through a bulletin board, newsletter, e-mail, or intranet. True False
24. Providing feedback to employees if they are not selected in a job posting system is a bad idea because it will just discourage them from responding in the future. True False
25. The first stage of developing a talent management system is identifying the KSAOs required for all jobs in the organization. True False
26. Most managers report that talent management systems have greatly simplified their work lives. True False
27. Self-nomination is an especially important consideration in the internal recruitment of minorities and women. True False
28. Internal temporary employees require more orientation to the organization than would external hires. True False
29. Succession planning techniques are important as the workforce increasingly approaches retirement. True False
30. Surveys demonstrate that employees are more satisfied when their employers provide them with ample communication and opportunities for internal advancement. True False
31. Career development centers are a low cost way to increase employee interest in internal career paths. True False
32. The degree to which an organization utilizes its own internal information on candidate qualifications and job performance will determine how qualified the applicants will be. True False
33. There is a great deal of research on the effectiveness of internal recruiting sources, so best practices can guide choice of the methods for internal recruiting. True False
34. Under a closed internal recruitment system, which of the following is not likely to occur? A. speed of decisions is faster than with open systems B. contacted employees are immediately given preference under such a system C. managers have less influence over the ultimate decision D. overall effectiveness of the system in identifying qualified applicants will drop
35. An open system of internal recruitment can be expected to minimize ________. A. competition among employees B. scrutiny of job qualifications C. overlooking talent D. low morale among those not advanced
36. Some of the advantages of a closed internal recruitment system include: A. helps minimize favoritism B. it can uncover hidden talent C. it helps employees evaluate their qualifications for advancement D. none of the above
37. Which of the following is true regarding closed internal recruitment systems? A. Employees are made aware of all job openings. B. They are very inefficient. C. They are not costly to implement. D. They are very time-consuming to implement.
38. Which of the following is true regarding an open internal recruitment system? A. Employees are made aware of all job openings. B. They use a job posting and job bidding system. C. They often lead to uncovering "hidden talent." D. All of the above are correct.
39. Job postings influence the recruitment process by ________. A. clarifying requirements of the job B. reducing competition for the job C. eliminating external sources from consideration D. reducing the need for formal applications
40. Job postings are effective internal recruitment tools because they ________. A. resemble and support external messages B. are efficient in matching employees to organizational needs C. reduce record keeping D. are far easier to prepare than external messages
41. An empirical study of the characteristics of a job posting system which lead to high user satisfaction found that _________ was(were) critical. A. the adequacy of job descriptions B. the adequacy of job notification procedures C. treatment during the interview D. all of the above
42. KSAOs which are used in making advancement decisions are stored in _________. A. job descriptions B. job specifications C. talent management systems D. ability inventories
43. Which of the following statements regarding talent management systems is(are) true? A. talent management systems are maintained by the employee B. talent management systems simplify record keeping C. talent management systems reduce the need for supervisory judgment in promotion decisions D. talent management systems require a user-friendly data base for effective use
44. A company's internal e-mail and internet capabilities ________________. A. make it easy and inexpensive to disseminate internal recruiting messages B. tend to be very time-consuming ways to send messages about recruiting C. cannot effectively complement internal recruiting methods D. are used by 100% of organizations looking to recruit internally
45. Which of the following statements regarding talent management systems is true? A. they are usually based on paper files B. they are seen as a historical tool that is not used much any more C. they are increasingly integrated with all of an organization's human resources information systems D. they are almost always cheap and easy to maintain
46. Why might an organization use internal temporary pools? A. to decrease accountability for personnel errors B. to avoid paying agency fees to temporary help agencies C. to provide a buffer against lawsuits D. both a and c
47. A ______________ provides employees with opportunities to fill out interest inventories, explore career options, and discuss plans with counselors. A. job-talk center B. succession plan C. lattice career path D. career development center
48. Key metrics for evaluating an internal staffing system include: A. cost B. quantity C. quality D. all of the above
49. Which of the following are important components of ensuring sufficient quality in an internal recruiting system? A. internal job posting systems B. regular performance appraisals of all employees C. systematic review of the employee value proposition D. all of the above
50. Realistic job previews are potentially not necessary for internal recruiting because applicants may already be familiar with the jobs in question. True False
51. Targeted recruiting messages are especially appropriate for internal applicants when they move to an unknown job, a newly created job, or a new geographic area, including an international assignment. True False
52. A targeted message for internal recruits points out how the job matches the needs of the applicant. True False
53. Word of mouth regarding internal job openings usually serves to provide additional opportunities to women and minorities. True False
54. There is not much research concerning perceptions of fairness in internal recruiting processes. True False
55. Research suggests that procedures followed for internal recruiting and other personnel practices can be almost as important as the outcome of the decisions themselves. True False
56. It should not be assumed that just because job seekers come from inside the organization they will automatically know and understand the selection procedures. True False
57. Which of the following is true of realistic previews in internal recruiting? A. they are even more important than for external recruiting B. research suggests they can increase turnover C. they are more necessary for newly created jobs or jobs in new locations D. they cannot really be used for internal selection
58. Which of the following is true of recruiting messages in internal recruiting? A. supervisors can describe mobility paths in detail to internal candidates B. peers can give internal recruits a realistic idea of what happens in internal promotions and transfers C. word of mouth among internal employees can lead to inaccurate information D. all of the above are true
59. Formal policies for promotion and other internal recruiting activities can enhance: A. interpretive justice B. procedural justice C. psychological contract violations D. extrinsic discouragement
60. The Affirmative Action Programs Regulations specifically address internal recruitment as part of the federal contractor's AAP. True False
61. According to the Supreme Court, an ADA related-reassignment request must prevail over an organization's seniority system. True False
62. In the absence of a discriminatory intent, virtually any seniority system is likely to be bona fide, even if it causes adverse impact. True False
63. The "glass ceiling" refers to strong but invisible barriers for women and minorities to promotion in organizations. True False
64. The Federal Glass Ceiling Commission study found that although men and women were nearly equally eager to move into management, women were much less optimistic about their chances of being promoted. True False
65. Research has shown that since the 1970's there has been a radical shift in top management in most organizations, with nearly half of all top executive positions being held by women. True False
66. The "glass ceiling" refers to the prevalence of policies and procedures that have resulted in reverse discrimination. True False
67. Unequal access to development experiences and internal selection systems have both contributed to the glass ceiling. True False
68. Seniority-based systems may need to be eliminated as a means of reducing the prevalence of glass ceiling effects. True False
69. Informal promotion policies increase the ability of women and minorities to get ahead in most businesses. True False
70. Formal mentoring, training, and flexible work hours all may reduce the problems of the glass ceiling. True False
71. From a legal standpoint, it can be said that __________. A. the EEOC is more concerned about external recruitment procedures than internal ones B. revised Order No. 4 does not deal with seniority C. promotions based on subjective assessments of who is more senior are not likely to be supported in court D. existence of "bona fide" seniority systems facilitates compliance on EEO/AA matters
72. A bona fide seniority system is _________________. A. typically banned by the EEOC B. permitted in most cases under EEOC law even if it results in adverse impact C. carefully defined by the law D. based on a mix of factors that include perceived loyalty, commitment, and KSAO sets in the workforce
73. The combination of factors that tend to place women and minorities in fewer top management positions are collectively termed _________________. A. res ipsa loquitor B. Jacob's ladder C. the broken elevator D. the glass ceiling
74. Which of the following have contributed to the Glass Ceiling? A. rising interest rates B. lack of outreach recruitment practices C. frequent updating of organizational records D. legal definition contradictions
ch6 Key
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Measures are methods or techniques for describing and assessing attributes of objects that are of concern to us. True False
2. When developing measures, it is a good idea to give each rater some license to interpret the meaning of scores as fits the specific situation. True False
3. To achieve standardization the content of job application tests should be the same for all applicants. True False
4. Scoring keys for tests should be developed immediately after the test has been administered. True False
5. Most staffing measures can be best described as being on a ratio scale. True False
6. A rank ordering of five job candidates in terms of overall qualification for the job is an example of an ordinal scale. True False
7. Research shows that when an attribute is measured by both objective and subjective means, there is often relatively low agreement between scores from the two types of measures. True False
8. The standard deviation is a measure of the central tendency of a scale. True False
9. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal scale data is the median. True False
10. Standard scores are also useful for determining how a person performed, in a relative sense, on two or more tests. This is helpful for comparing relative standing across several tests. True False
11. If an individual has a z-score of 2.0 on a performance test, this indicates this person's score is twice as high as the average test score. True False
12. A correlation coefficient ranges from 0 to +1. True False
13. A correlation between two variables does not necessarily that one causes the other. True False
14. A standard level for statistical significance is p< .50. True False
15. With very large samples, it is possible for a fairly weak relationship to still be statistically significant. True False
16. Measurement standardization applies to measurement content, not the administration of measurements. True False
17. When numbers are assigned by category, this reflects an ordinal scale of measurement. True False
18. If scores are classified as "low", "medium", and high", the scale of measurement is nominal. True False
19. Human body weight is an example of a variable measured on a ratio scale of measure. True False
20. Numerical employment interview ratings represent objective measures. True False
21. Performance appraisal ratings are subjective measures. True False
22. The research literature indicates a high correlation between subjective and objective measures of performance. True False
23. A correlation score of minus one between two sets of scores indicates an exceptionally low association or relationship between the two sets. True False
24. If the correlation coefficient between variables X and Y is .90, this means that the proportion of common variance shared by the two variables is ninety percent. True False
25. A correlation coefficient of 1.0 between variables X and Y indicates that there is a perfect linear relationship between these two variables. True False
26. The correlation coefficient does not measure the change in one variable caused by another variable. True False
27. While correlation is valuable as an indicator of the degree of association between variables, it is generally not used as a tool for prediction. True False
28. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement? A. choosing an attribute of concern B. assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicants C. using the measure to gauge the attribute D. constructing a measure of the attribute
29. The process of ensuring that all test takers receive the same tests in the same context, as a way to eliminate extraneous influences on test performance is called ____________________. A. standardization B. optimization C. rationalization D. inflation
30. Which of the following statements about measurement is not correct? A. It assigns numbers to objects. B. It is based on rules determined in advance. C. It measures the object not the attribute. D. It measures constructs.
31. A nominal scale of measurement has ________. A. rank order B. an absolute true zero point C. classification by categories D. equal differences between points on a scale of measurement
32. A scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute they possess. A. nominal B. ordinal C. interval D. ratio
33. A scale in which objects are rank ordered according to how much of the attribute they possess, with equal space between objects. A. nominal B. ordinal C. interval D. ratio
34. A scale in which a given attribute is categorized, and numbers are assigned to the categories, but there is no order or level implied among the categories. A. nominal B. ordinal C. interval D. ratio
35. Rankings of the finishes of competitors in a foot race is an example of a(n) _______. A. ratio scale B. ordinal scale C. interval scale D. none of the above
36. Length in inches is an example of a(n) _________. A. ratio scale B. nominal scale C. ordinal scale D. interval scale
37. The most appropriate measure of central tendency for nominal data is the ______. A. mean B. median C. standard deviation D. mode
38. The variability of a measure is best captured by the _____________. A. mean and standard deviation B. range and standard deviation C. range and median D. mode and mean
39. The likelihood that a correlation exists in a population, based on knowledge of the actual value of r in a sample from that population is the ____________. A. practical significance B. likelihood ratio C. functional statistic D. statistical significance
40. Which of the following results represents statistically significance as it is commonly understood? A. r = .30 B. p < .05 C. r > .10 D. all of the above
41. A z score of 3.0 for a job applicant's score on an aptitude test indicates the applicant ______. A. achieved a score 3 points higher than the average score B. received a score 3 standard deviations above the mean score C. had a score 3 percent higher than the average score D. had a score plus or minus 3 points relative to the mean score
42. The correlation coefficient expresses _________. A. causality B. variance C. strength of the relationship between two variables D. the range between two variables
43. A complete lack of correlation between two variables is expressed by a correlation coefficient of _________. A. .50 B. 1.00 C. -1.00 D. zero
44. The larger the correlation coefficient, _________. A. the greater the practical significance B. the smaller its practical significance C. the larger its range D. the smaller its statistical significance
45. The proper test to determine that a given sample correlation is statistically significant as an estimate of a correlation in a population is the __________. A. z score B. standard deviation C. squared correlation coefficient D. the t test
46. Which of the following levels of statistical significance would provide the most confidence that a sample correlation coefficient would not be interpreted as having a relationship in the population, when, in fact, there is no such relationship? A. .10 B. .50 C. .01 D. .05
47. In staffing the scores of individuals are treated as if they were the attribute itself, rather than merely indicators of the attribute. True False
48. The consistency of measurement of an attribute refers to its validity. True False
49. Perfect reliability is virtually impossible to achieve because of the presence of measurement error. True False
50. Calculation of the test-retest reliability of scores between time periods is done for objective measures, not subjective measures. True False
51. Comparing scores of objective measures within the same time period is a measure of internal consistency. True False
52. If all the members of a panel interview reach the same conclusion regarding a person who is being interviewed, it could be said that the interview ratings are reliable. True False
53. Even when measurement error is present, true scores can be measured with perfect precision. True False
54. Error caused by failing to measure a key aspect of the attribute of interest (i.e., the attribute we wish to measure), is known as contamination error. True False
55. Asking different questions of job applicants during comparisons of interview ratings between these same job applicants is an example of contamination error. True False
56. If an attribute of job performance is "planning and setting work priorities," and the raters fail to rate people on that dimension during their performance appraisal, then the performance measure is contaminated. True False
57. A measure with a coefficient alpha of .55 should generally be regarding as having adequate reliability. True False
58. The standard error of measurement is a useful indicator of how accurate actual scores of applicants are in assessing the true scores of a given measure. True False
59. Reliability sets the lower limit on validity. True False
60. The extent to which scores on a knowledge test truly reflect a job applicant's knowledge is a measure of the test's validity. True False
61. Measuring the accuracy of a mechanical ability test in predicting the job performance of current employees involves a predictive validity design. True False
62. Criterion measures are not used in the calculation of content validity. True False
63. Even if methodological and statistical differences across criterion-related validation studies are not controlled for statistically, it is still probable that validity can be generalized from one specific situation to another. True False
64. Organizations that collect assessment data need to attend to professional standards that govern their use. True False
65. The process of criterion-related validation begins with the identification of criterion measures. True False
66. The assessment of concurrent validity is more convenient and more efficient than the assessment of predictive validity. True False
67. One guideline for effective staffing practice is that all predictors should be routinely subjected to content validation. True False
68. Reliability of measurement is defined as __________. A. frequency of measurement B. magnitude of measurement C. accuracy of measurement D. consistency of measurement
69. Which of the following is a true statement? A. true score divided by error equals actual score B. actual score equals true score plus error C. actual score plus error equals true score D. true score equals variance plus error
70. Coefficient alpha assesses ____________. A. reliability within a single time period B. reliability between time periods C. reliability between samples D. test-retest reliability E. A and B are correct
71. Comparing objective scores from T1 to T2 is a method for assessing _____ reliability. A. maximal asymptotic B. internal consistency C. test-retest D. interrater
72. Comparing the same supervisor's rating of an employee's performance at T1 to T2 is a method for assessing ______ reliability. A. intrarater B. fixed-point C. test-retest D. interrater
73. Reliability of a measure places ________. A. no limit on the validity of a measure B. a lower limit on the validity of a measure C. an average limit on the validity of a measure D. an upper limit on the validity of a measure
74. Deficiency error would not indicate a failure to _________. A. measure some portion of the attribute of interest B. adequately define the attribute of interest C. construct a proper measure of the totality of the attribute D. calculate the standard deviation
75. Contamination error _________. A. is easy to minimize and control B. is the same as deficiency error C. represents unwanted sources of influence on a measure D. shows a lack of an acceptable coefficient alpha
76. Which of the following is an example of contamination error? A. irrelevant material on the test B. guessing by the test taker C. different time limits for the same test D. all of the above
77. The standard error of measurement allows ________. A. calculation of confidence intervals for true scores B. estimates of content validity C. calculation of confidence intervals for actual scores D. calculation of confidence intervals for error
78. Validity of a measure is best defined as ________. A. the upper limit of reliability B. the degree to which the measure does indeed measure what it is intended to measure C. the lower limit of reliability D. the consistency of measurement
79. Which of the following is a type of validity? A. test-retest B. coefficient alpha C. criterion D. parallel forms
80. When predictor and criterion scores have been obtained, the predictor can be considered valid if __________. A. the correlation coefficient has the desired practical and statistical significance B. the correlation coefficient has statistical significance alone C. the correlation coefficient is insignificant D. the correlation coefficient has practical significance alone
81. Content validation is most appropriate when ____________. A. reliability is too high B. sample size is large C. criterion measures are readily available D. sample size is too small for criterion validity calculation
82. The case for validity generalization across situations becomes stronger if ___. A. correlation coefficients are negative B. the standard error of measurement is large C. differences in method and statistical differences are controlled D. reliability is low
83. Which of the following is not part of the process of measurement? A. choosing an attribute of concern B. assessing the attribute's acceptability to applicants C. using the measure to gauge the attribute D. constructing a measure of the attribute
84. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of selection rates for groups and the subsequent comparison of those rates to determine if they are significantly different from each other. True False
85. According to the Uniform Guidelines for Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP), comparisons of selection rates among groups should be based on the 70% rule. True False
86. When assessing adverse impact, the law prohibits taking sample size into account. True False
87. Investigation of applicant stock statistics is also known as "utilization analysis." True False
88. Adverse impact statistics are very stable sample estimates of the amount of true adverse impact occurring in an organization. True False
89. The use of standardized measurement eliminates the possibility of adverse impact occurring. True False
90. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures indicates that when a selection procedure shows adverse impact, the organization must either eliminate it or justify it through presentation of validity evidence. True False
91. The Uniform Guidelines in Employee Selection procedures require the calculation of selection rates for ________. A. every disability category currently assessed B. each job category C. the population at large D. all of the above
92. Applicant flow statistics require the calculation of ________. A. selection rates for the groups under analysis B. interview rates for the groups under analysis C. rejection rates for the groups under analysis D. range scores for the groups under analysis
93. Applicant stock statistics for groups under analysis require calculation of percentages for _________. A. unemployed workers B. measures of content validity C. availability in the population D. the reliability of a measure
ch7 Key
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. External selection refers to the assessment and evaluation of external job applicants. True False
2. Cost should not be used to guide the choice of initial assessment methods. True False
3. Job analysis sometimes finds that seemingly unrelated jobs may have more in common than would be expected by relying just on job titles. True False
4. The logic of prediction indicates that a point-to-point comparison needs to be made between requirements of the job to be filled and the qualifications of the job applicants. True False
5. A power test is used when the speed of work is an important part of the job. True False
6. The first step in developing a selection plan is to list relevant KSAOs associated with a job. True False
7. The process of translating the results of a job analysis into actual predictors to be used for selection is known as a discriminant validity study. True False
8. Organizations are increasingly finding that the costs of developing a selection plan outweigh the benefits. True False
9. A finalist is someone who has not yet received an offer, but who possesses the minimum qualifications to be considered for further assessment. True False
10. Contingent methods mean that the job offer is subject to certain qualifications, such as the offer receiver passing a medical exam or a drug test. True False
11. Within the context of the selection process, the "logic of prediction" means that: A. indicators of an applicant's future performance are predictive of likely job performance B. indicators of a person's degree of success in past situations should be predictive of future job success C. predictors of job performance are correlated with KSAOs D. indicators of job outcomes can be used to predict job performance
12. Which of the following is necessary for the logic of prediction to work in practice for selecting employees? A. the organization has adopted a thorough competency modeling approach B. qualifications carry over from one job to another C. that each candidate is assessed based on his or her unique experiences D. anonymous periodic reviews of applicant files to ensure accuracy
13. If the correctness of a response is essential for a job, then a(n) ________ test should be used. A. essay B. speed C. power D. objective
14. Essay tests are best used to assess ___________ skills. A. oral communication B. written communication C. interpersonal D. none of the above
15. The most accurate description of the basic purpose of a selection plan is ______________. A. a selection plan determines the means for attracting qualified job applicants B. a selection plan matches applicants to outcome criteria C. a selection plan describes predictors to be used to assess KSAOs required to perform the job D. a selection plan consists of interview rating criteria
16. The strength of the relationship between a predictor and performance is called ________. A. reliability B. validity C. utility D. instrumentality
17. Most initial assessment methods have _________ validity. A. moderate to low B. high to very high C. moderately high to high D. moderate
18. Which of the following statements regarding the development of a selection plan is false? A. The list of KSAOs used in the selection plan are derived from the job requirements matrix B. The process of developing a selection plan is usually straightforward and can be done quickly C. One reason KSAOs may be deemed unimportant for selection is because they will be learned on the job D. Possible methods for assessing every identified job-relevant KSAO need to be developed
19. A major problem with resumes and cover letters is lying. True False
20. Although employers can outsource résumé collection to résumé-tracking services, in practice this type of outsourcing is too inefficient to be worth the cost. True False
21. Résumé scanning software tends to look for nouns more than action verbs. True False
22. Video résumés have become a major component of selection in most large organizations. True False
23. To protect an employer from charges of unfair discrimination, it is best to only include information related to KSAOs demonstrated as important to the job on an application blank. True False
24. Research has found that level of education is moderately related to job performance. True False
25. College grades are more valid predictors of job performance than high school grades. True False
26. Research suggests that the quality of the school a person graduates from makes a difference in the labor market. True False
27. Occupational certifications are nearly all regulated by the Department of Labor to ensure that they accurately reflect job knowledge. True False
28. Occupational certification helps guard against the misuse of job titles in human resource selection. True False
29. Scored evaluations of unweighted application blanks are good predictors of job performance. True False
30. The validity evidence for weighted application blanks is better than that for unweighted application blanks. True False
31. Most organizations use only weighted application blanks for initial screening decisions. True False
32. The principal assumption behind the use of biodata in selection processes is the axiom, "the best predictor of future behavior is past behavior." True False
33. Biodata refers to medical or physiological tests of applicants prior to hiring. True False
34. Biodata is like a background check in many ways, but background checks tend to focus on external references rather than applicant surveys. True False
35. Biodata items are generally the same, regardless of the job being staffed. True False
36. Research suggests that biodata does not provide incremental validity over personality and cognitive ability. True False
37. Research on the reliability and validity of biodata has been quite positive. True False
38. Biographical information tends to have low reliability. True False
39. Research shows that applicants have a favorable attitude toward biodata inventories. True False
40. Letters of recommendation are an excellent way to help organizations separate highly qualified from moderately qualified applicants. True False
41. One study that showed there was a stronger correlation between two letters written by one person for two different applicants than between two different people writing letters for the same person. True False
42. The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's former colleagues who worked in the same position. True False
43. Many organizations are reluctant to give out detailed reference information regarding their former employees because they are afraid of being sued. True False
44. Surveys suggest that only 3 out of 10 organizations conduct reference checks. True False
45. The proportion of organizations that conduct pre-hire background checks to determine if employees have criminal records or inaccurate reporting on résumés, has risen dramatically in recent years. True False
46. Genetic screening is becoming a valuable component of many organizations' selection systems. True False
47. The purpose of the initial interview is to screen out the most obvious cases of person/job mismatches. True False
48. The initial interview is the least expensive method of initial assessment. True False
49. Initial interviews can be made more useful by asking the same questions of all job applicants. True False
50. Most initial assessment methods have moderate to low validity. True False
51. The most frequently used methods of initial assessment are education level, training and experience, reference checks, and initial interview. True False
52. Level of education requirements have little adverse impact against minority applicants. True False
53. Which of the following is(are) initial assessment methods? A. Résumés and cover letters B. Application blanks C. Biographical information D. All of the above
54. Which of the following are common sources of résumé fraud? A. inflated titles B. inflated education or "purchased" degrees C. inaccurate dates to cover up job hopping or unemployment D. all of the above
55. Which of the following statements regarding résumés is true? A. Even background checks cannot reduce the problem of résumé fraud B. Most surveys suggest that around half of all résumés have substantial inaccuracies or distortions C. Video résumés are highly respected by most employers D. Extensive evidence suggests that résumés are highly accurate predictors of employee job performance
56. In using educational level as an initial selection criterion, which of the following statements is false? A. The degree received from an institution is not sufficient as a sole indicator of an applicant's level of education. B. A GED is a high school equivalency degree and is about as good as a conventional high school diploma in predicting job performance. C. Educational level is a predictor of job performance. D. High-level degrees from non-accredited schools may be indicators of lesser accomplishment than lower-level degrees from accredited schools.
57. Which of the following statements regarding the use of grade point averages as a predictor is true? A. GPA may be influenced by many factors in addition to the applicant's KSAOs and motivation. B. GPAs in one's major tend to be highly similar to one's GPAs in other classes. C. Grades do not vary widely by field. D. GPAs from different schools mean the same thing.
58. When considering the use of extracurricular activities as a job performance predictor, one should _________. A. use extracurricular activities whenever possible B. de-emphasize the use of extracurricular activities C. use extracurricular activities mainly for selection of managerial personnel D. use extracurricular activities when they correlate with KSAOs required by the job
59. Asking applicants to complete a supplemental application in which they describe their most significant accomplishments relative to a list of job behaviors is known as the _______. A. behavioral consistency method B. experiential summary method C. biodata approach D. none of the above
60. The highest estimate of validity coefficients of unweighted applicant banks as predictors of job performance are _________. A. 1.00 B. .80 C. .20 D. .60 E. .40
61. Research on application blanks has suggested that the most common questions that are misinterpreted include _________. A. previous employers B. reasons for leaving previous jobs C. previous positions held D. all of the above are true
62. The principal assumption behind the use of biodata is the axiom, ________. A. The best predictor of future behavior is motivation level B. The best predictor of future behavior is KSAOs C. The best predictor of future behavior is education level D. The best predictor of future behavior is past behavior
63. Which of the following is true regarding biodata and background tests? A. Background information is obtained through interviews and conversations with references. B. They are two different names for the same thing. C. Only background tests look into an applicant's past. D. Biodata is used primarily when screening applicants for positions in which integrity and emotional adjustment are necessary.
64. Biographical information is like application blanks, except _______. A. biographical information is based on history, but application blanks are based on current events B. application blanks are more likely to be used for substantive selection decisions C. biographical data is more likely to be accepted by applicants D. biographical data can be more fruitfully used for substantive selection decisions
65. Which of the following is a criterion on which biodata items can be classified? A. historical vs. nonverifiable B. invasive vs. firsthand C. objective vs. subjective D. equal access vs. easy access
66. The problem with using _____ for hiring purposes is that only very poor applicants cannot obtain these, and the format is unstandardized. A. certifications B. biodata forms C. letters of recommendation D. MBAs
67. The information collected for an accomplishments record includes ______. A. a written statement of the accomplishment B. when the accomplishment took place C. any recognition for the accomplishment D. all of the above
68. Which of the following methods is the most valid predictor of performance? A. Initial interviews B. Handwriting analysis C. Biodata D. Unweighted application blanks
69. Research has indicated that job applicants generally have a __________ view of biodata inventories. A. very positive B. negative C. positive D. neutral
70. One major problem with letters of recommendation is that they _________. A. are too lengthy to be useful B. are not structured or standardized C. are too ambiguous to interpret D. all of the above are correct
71. The most common person to be contacted in a reference check is the applicant's __________. A. former coworkers B. HR department at his/her former employer C. former supervisor D. friends
72. Background testing is concerned with the __________ of an applicant. A. integrity B. reliability C. personal adjustments D. all of the above
73. One of the major disadvantages of using handwriting analysis as an assessment method is that it is ______. A. expensive B. not related to job performance C. easy to fake D. inefficient
74. Which of the following is true regarding genetic screening? A. It helps to screen out people who will perform poorly on the job. B. It is used widely by companies in the U.S. C. It helps to screen out people who are susceptible to certain diseases. D. A recent court decision has ruled that it is allowable under the Americans with Disabilities Act.
75. One guideline for improving the effectiveness of initial interviews is to ____. A. ask questions which assess the most basic KSAOs B. make them long and rigorous C. ask each applicant different questions D. A and B are correct
76. The issue of consistency of measurement with assessment methods is called ______. A. validity B. reliability C. variability D. central tendency
77. An example of an assessment method which has relatively low reliability is ________. A. biographical information B. initial interviews C. application blanks D. resumes
78. _________ refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protected-class members may be rejected using this predictor. A. Low reliability B. Adverse impact C. Utility D. Habeas corpus
79. Disclaimers are used as a means of protecting employer rights. True False
80. Employers are advised to let applicants know in advance that they reserve the right to not hire, terminate, or discipline prospective employee for providing false information during the selection process. True False
81. Failure to conduct a reference check opens an organization to the possibility of a negligent hiring suit. True False
82. The laws in most states provide employers with little protection if they provide any information in a reference check that might damage an applicant's chances of getting a job. True False
83. Although arrest information may be gathered in the process of doing a background check, it cannot be used in staffing decisions. True False
84. It is illegal to use pre-employment inquiry information that has a disparate impact on the basis of a protected characteristic, unless such disparate impact can be shown to be job-related and consistent with business necessity. True False
85. Bona fide occupational qualifications are not of relevance to the initial assessment phase. True False
86. Bona fide occupational qualification claims made on the basis of customer preferences are typically upheld by the courts. True False
87. Adverse impact refers to the possibility that a disproportionate number of protect class members may be rejected using a given predictor. True False
88. The Americans with Disabilities Act states that employers may not ask disability-related questions and may not conduct medical examinations until after it makes a conditional job offer to a person. True False
89. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act explicitly permits discrimination on the basis of sex, religion, or national origin if it can be shown to be a bona fide occupational qualification. True False
90. The burden of proof is on employers to defend BFOQ claims. True False
91. A statement that identifies the rights than an employer wishes to maintain for itself that often accompanies initial employment assessments is called a ____. A. providential statement B. disclaimer C. waiver D. requisition
92. Examples of initial assessment methods that have moderate degrees of adverse impact against women and/or minorities include ______. A. education level B. quality of school C. training and experience D. all of the above are correct
93. Employers protect themselves in the initial stages of contact with job applicants through the use of _______. A. labor contracts B. employment clauses C. disclaimers D. discharge policies
94. Which of the following is true regarding pre-employment inquiries (PI)? A. They have little potential for being used for discriminatory purposes in the assessment process. B. Organizations rarely make inappropriate and illegal PIs. C. It is critical for employers to understand the laws and regulations regarding PIs. D. The emphasis in PIs is on the illegal collection of information.
95. Which of the following is the law that governs the collection of background check information for employment purposes? A. Americans with Disadvantaged Access Act B. Fair Credit Reporting Act C. Personnel Reporting Statue of 1977 D. National Labor Rights Act
96. According to ADA, it is not permissible for employers to do which of the following at the pre-offer stage of assessment process? A. Ask if the applicant has any disabilities. B. Ask the applicant if he/she can perform the job, with or without reasonable accommodation. C. Ask the applicant to demonstrate how they could perform the job. D. None of the above are permissible.
97. Which of the following is a typical justification of a BFOQ involving sex that employers use? A. One sex has an inability to perform the work. B. Personal contact with others requires same sex. C. Customers have a preference for dealing with one sex. D. All of the above are potential justifications.
ch8 Key
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Substantive assessment methods are used to reduce the applicant pool to candidates. True False
2. Personality tests and ability tests are examples of substantive assessment methods. True False
3. Discretionary assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a job. True False
4. Contingent assessment methods are used to make sure that tentative job offer recipients meet certain qualifications for the job. True False
5. Currently, personality tests are viewed as having no validity whatsoever as selection methods. True False
6. The Big Five personality test is used to describe emotional and cognitive traits that capture 20% of an individual's personality. True False
7. The traits measured by Big Five personality tests are measures of factors brought about entirely by life environments, and not by genetics. True False
8. Surveys are the most common means of assessing personality. True False
9. Conscientiousness is a trait that is associated with better job performance, higher job satisfaction, better leadership performance, and higher retention. True False
10. Extraversion is associated with higher levels of creativity and adaptability. True False
11. Individuals who have higher levels of agreeableness tend to have lower levels of career success and are less able to cope with conflicts. True False
12. There is little controversy over the use of personality measures in personnel selection. True False
13. Evidence suggests that faking or enhancement almost never occurs on personality tests. True False
14. Socially desirable responding, or presenting oneself in a favorable light, doesn't end once someone takes a job. True False
15. Evidence suggests that most applicants have relatively positive reactions towards personality testing. True False
16. The two major types of ability tests are aptitude and achievement. True False
17. 80% of organizations use some sort of ability test in selection decisions. True False
18. Measures of specific cognitive abilities do not reflect general intelligence. True False
19. The Wonderlic Personnel test is prohibitively expensive for most organizations, because it requires long face-to-face sessions with a trained psychologist. True False
20. Validities for cognitive ability tests appear to be culturally specific, with far lower validities in the European Union relative to the United States. True False
21. Cognitive ability tests are excellent predictors for executive and professional jobs, but they are of no value for entry level, clerical, or blue collar jobs. True False
22. The true validity of measures of general cognitive ability is roughly .50. True False
23. The biggest reason cognitive tests are not widely used in selection is the difficulty associated with their administration. True False
24. A concern regarding the use of cognitive ability tests is adverse impact against African Americans. True False
25. Most experts agree that cognitive ability cannot be measured accurately by standardized tests. True False
26. Physical ability tests are becoming increasingly common to screen out individuals susceptible to repetitive stress injuries, such as carpal tunnel syndrome. True False
27. Sensory/perceptual abilities tests assess the ability to detect and recognize environmental stimuli. True False
28. Research suggests that job knowledge tests have relatively poor validity in predicting job performance. True False
29. Individuals who have high emotional intelligence are self-aware (good at recognizing their own emotions), other aware (good at recognizing others' emotions), and good at making use of or managing this aware-ness. True False
30. Some critics argue that because emotional intelligence (EI) is so closely related to intelligence and personality, once you control for these factors, EI has nothing unique to offer. True False
31. Measures of emotional intelligence are a valuable supplement to personality tests in a selection context, because they have little similarity to personality. True False
32. Performance tests and work samples assess applicants' underlying capacities and dispositions. True False
33. A low-fidelity test uses realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate the actual tasks of the job. True False
34. Performance tests and work samples are readily accepted by applicants as job relevant. True False
35. Performance tests are a useful indicator of some job skills, but they need to be supplemented with other predictors because they do not have high content validity. True False
36. The major distinction between job knowledge and situational judgment tests is that the former deals with future hypothetical job situations, and the latter explicitly taps the content of the job. True False
37. Integrity tests are paper-and-pencil or computerized tests that attempt to assess an applicant's honesty and moral character. True False
38. Interviewer evaluations of applicant integrity are usually very good, and experts like judges and psychologists can detect lying most of the time. True False
39. The construct of "integrity" is well understood. True False
40. Although applicants probably do sometimes fake their answers on integrity tests, the evidence suggests that such faking does not completely eliminate the validity of these tests in predicting job performance and deviant workplace behavior. True False
41. The Meyers-Briggs Type Inventory (MBTI) is an example of an interest inventory. True False
42. Interest inventories play a key role in organizational selection decisions. True False
43. Interest inventories tend to be more tied to the occupation, rather than the organization or the job. True False
44. A typical unstructured interview often contains highly speculative questions. True False
45. Applicant appearance may be a source of error or bias in an unstructured interview. True False
46. The starting point for the structured interview is the job rewards matrix. True False
47. Situational interviews assess an applicant's ability to project what his/her behavior would be in the future. True False
48. Research has found that structured interviews do not add validity in predicting job performance beyond cognitive ability tests. True False
49. The interview is the central means through which an applicant can learn about the job and organization. True False
50. Applicants tend to react very negatively to the interview. True False
51. When developing structured interviews, one or more questions must be constructed for each KSAO targeted for assessment by the structured interview. True False
52. ________ assessment methods are used to reduce the candidate pool to finalists for a job. A. Initial B. Substantive C. Discretionary D. Contingent
53. Which of the following is not one of the five-factor model personality traits __________. A. Conscientiousness B. Extroversion C. General mental ability D. Neuroticism
54. Which of the following is true regarding the Big Five personality factors? A. They are reasonably valid in predicting job performance. B. They represent emotional traits. C. They represent cognitive abilities. D. None of the above.
55. This personality trait is associated with better performance, higher job satisfaction, and lower adaptability on the job. A. Neuroticism B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience
56. This personality trait is associated with more helping behaviors, teamwork, and difficulty in coping with conflicts. A. Neuroticism B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience
57. This personality trait is associated with more creativity, effective leadership, and a lower commitment to one's employer. A. Neuroticism B. Extraversion C. Agreeableness D. Conscientiousness E. Openness to experience
58. What are the most useful personality traits, in order, for selection contexts? A. Concientiousness, emotional stability, extraversion B. Emotional stability, conscientiousness, openness to experience C. Agreeableness, openness to experience, extraversion D. Extraversion, conscientiousness, emotional stability
59. Which of the following is true regarding the use of personality tests in the selection process? A. Emotional stability is a much more valid predictor of job performance when it is measured narrowly. B. The aspect of emotional stability that is more relevant to job performance is stress proneness. C. The Core Self-Evaluations Scale has not been shown to have much validity in predicting job performance. D. None of the above.
60. Which of the following is true regarding research on the validity of personality tests? A. Conscientiousness predicts performance across occupational groups. B. Openness to experience does not predict training performance. C. Extraversion predicts job performance for most jobs. D. All of the above are true.
61. Which of the following statements is false? A. There is little evidence that people fake their scores on personality tests in the hiring contexts B. When individuals believe their scores are being used for selection, their observed scores tend to increase C. Faking has a negative impact on the validity of personality tests D. None of the above statements is false
62. Measures which assess an individual's capacity to function in a certain way are called ______. A. interest inventories B. ability tests C. personality tests D. knowledge tests
63. Which of the following cognitive abilities appear to reflect general intelligence? A. verbal abilities B. quantitative abilities C. reasoning abilities D. All of the above are correct
64. The most widely used test of general mental ability for selection decisions is the _____. A. MMPI B. Myers-Briggs C. Wonderlic Personnel Test D. Job Characteristics Inventory
65. Which of the following is true regarding cognitive ability tests? A. Cognitive ability tests are among the least valid methods of selection. B. Cognitive ability tests do not generalize to a wide range of organizations and jobs. C. There is reason to believe cognitive ability tests will be associated with positive financial returns. D. All of the above are true.
66. Research has shown that most of the effect of cognitive ability on performance is due to the fact that intelligent employees have greater _____. A. job knowledge B. presentation skills C. social networking capacity D. diligence
67. The biggest reason why cognitive ability tests are not more widely used is _____________. A. they are too expensive. B. they are too time-consuming. C. they are difficult to administer. D. they have an adverse impact on minorities.
68. The difference between black and white test takers on cognitive ability tests has been _____. A. demonstrated to be an artifact of question wording B. decreasing over time C. lower when tests are given in an open-ended format D. both b and c
69. Research studies have found ___________ support for the validity of job knowledge tests? A. relatively strong B. no support C. very weak D. some
70. The process of administering tests that place applicants in hypothetical, job-related situations and asking them to choose a course of action among several alternatives is called _____________. A. situational judgment tests B. behavioral implementation tests C. work sample tests D. Job simulation tests
71. The assessment method which involves the use of very realistic equipment and scenarios to simulate actual tasks of a job is called a(n) ________ test. A. job knowledge B. psychomotor C. high fidelity D. low fidelity
72. Work samples and performance tests are useful for a broad range of jobs, although they are difficult to use in __________ jobs. A. customer service B. assembly C. bank teller D. none of the above
73. Situational judgment tests ______. A. have very high adverse impact B. involve applicants' descriptions of how they would behave in work scenarios C. are based on applicants' evaluations of photographs D. have very low validity
74. Which of the following is true regarding integrity tests? A. Their use has declined in the past decade. B. They are used to reduce employee accidents. C. They are usually paper-and-pencil or computerized measures. D. The construct of integrity is well understood.
75. Interest inventories are designed to improve person job match by assessing applicant preferences for different types of work. Research suggests that these inventories ____. A. are about as predictive of job performance as ability tests B. are more predictive of job performance than ability tests C. are not strongly predictive of job performance D. are prohibited by law
76. Which of the following is a characteristic of a typical unstructured interview? A. It is usually carefully planned. B. The interviewer makes a quick and final evaluation of the candidate C. It consists of formal, objective questioning. D. The interviewer is highly prepared.
77. Which of the following is a source of error or bias in unstructured interviews? A. Low reliability between interviewers. B. Nonverbal cues from interviewees influence interview ratings. C. Primacy effects. D. All of the above are true.
78. The first step of the structured interview process is __________. A. selecting and training interviewers B. developing the selection plan C. consulting the job requirements matrix D. developing selection goals
79. The type of structured interview that assesses an applicant's ability to project what his/her behavior would be in the future is the ____________ interview. A. situational B. experience-based C. projective D. KSAO-based
80. Which of the following is(are) true based on research regarding interviews? A. The validity of structured interviews is low. B. Situational interviews are less valid than job-related interviews. C. Panel interviews were less valid than individual interviews. D. All of the above are true.
81. The correlation between structured interviews and cognitive ability tests is ____________. A. positive B. zero C. moderately negative D. very negative
82. Applicants' reactions to interviews tend to be _________. A. very favorable B. somewhat favorable C. neutral D. somewhat unfavorable
83. Selection for team contexts ____. A. is not much different than for selection in general B. should emphasize both interpersonal and self-management KSAOs C. should not involve members of the team, because that only leads to resentment D. all of the above
84. Discretionary assessment methods are typically highly subjective and rely heavily on the intuition of the decision maker. True False
85. Contingent assessment methods are always used in the selection process. True False
86. Studies suggest that drug users are no more likely to be involved in accidents or to be injured at work. True False
87. Individuals who use drugs have been shown to have higher levels of absenteeism and counterproductive work behaviors. True False
88. Federal law prohibits drug testing for a majority of jobs. True False
89. Drug test results can be very accurate with low error rates, if the proper procedures are followed. True False
90. Some organizations have begun to screen out those who smoke tobacco. True False
91. Drug testing methods have become so accurate that it is no longer considered necessary to use retesting to validate samples from an initial screening test. True False
92. Organizations may make medical inquiries or require medical exams prior to making a job offer. True False
93. A medical examination for employees is defined the same way as for job applicants. True False
94. Which of the following is true regarding drug testing? A. Applicants were twice as likely to be tested for alcohol use as drug use. B. The rate of drug testing has declined slightly in recent years C. Upper-level employees are more likely to be tested than lower-level employees. D. All of the above are true.
95. Which of the following is a recommendation for the use of drug testing programs? A. Drug testing should be done with all jobs. B. Do not inform applicants of the test results. C. Provide rejected applicants with an opportunity to appeal. D. All of the above
96. Drug tests are not common for many jobs because _____? A. drug tests do not "catch" many people B. the law essentially bans drug tests for all jobs not involving operating a vehicle C. drug tests are extremely expensive D. the tests produce a massive number of false positive results
97. Organizations may not ______ prior to making a job offer? A. make medical inquiries B. conduct background checks C. discuss job responsibilities D. none of the above
98. The UGESP addresses the need to determine if a selection procedure is causing adverse impact, and if so, the validation requirements for the procedure. True False
99. Any selection procedure that has an adverse impact is deemed discriminatory by the UGESP unless it has been shown to be valid. True False
100. There three types of validity studies considered acceptable by the UGESP include face validity, construct validity, and administrative validity. True False
101. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities, unless the selection procedure is job-related and consistent with business necessity. True False
102. An organization may not require medical exams of an applicant, nor make a job offer conditional, pending the results of a medical exam. True False
103. There are some jobs for which drug and alcohol testing is mandated by law. True False
104. Records for medical exams of established employees must be kept in relative confidence, although most jurisdictions allow for this information to be shared with supervisors and members of the work group if the employer deems it wise. True False
105. The best description of UGESP is that they are _____. A. regulations for drug testing in the workplace B. a set of federal regulations related to selection systems as covered by the Civil Rights Act C. a set of regulations relating only to disabled individuals D. regulations that deal only with gender equity and job selection
106. The UGESP requires employers to ____. A. keep records based on religion and marital status for all employees B. perform a local validation study for every subgroup of employees C. consider suitable alternative selection procedures if one of the selection techniques has adverse impact D. assess employee history of drug abuse
107. Which of the following items is a major principle pertaining to selection under the Americans with Disabilities Act? A. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities unless the procedure is consistent with a business necessity B. It is unlawful to screen out individuals with disabilities for any reason C. It is unlawful for employers to require employees to physical agility tests in a selection context D. The employer can retain the right to refuse to hire individuals with disabilities if customers have a strong preference for not encountering disabled staff
108. Which of the following inquiries can be made prior to giving a job offer? A. Questions about history of illegal drug use B. Psychological exams designed to detect mental illness C. Oral or written questions about the existence of a disability D. None of the above
ch9 Key
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Internal selection is virtually identical to external selection both in terms of the applicability of the logic of the prediction principle, and in terms of the relevance of data about past job experiences. True False
2. In comparison with external selection, internal selection places greater emphasis on predictor signs than samples. True False
3. In internal selection, managers tend to overemphasize subjective opinions about job candidates, with a consequent increase in decisions with low validity. True False
4. Organizations typically have better data with which to make choices on internal than external candidates. True False
5. Depth of information and relevance are the only advantages that internal selection has over external selection. True False
6. Sometimes individuals who have excellent skills in engineering and scientific positions do not have good managerial skills. True False
7. In comparing internal selection with external selection, an advantage of internal selection is that ________. A. internal selection requires few procedures to locate and screen viable job candidates B. internal selection presents fewer dangers of incurring legal liability than external selection C. information about internal candidates tends to be more verifiable than information about external candidates D. there is less need to use multiple predictors in assessing internal candidates than with external candidates
8. Within the context of internal selection, an accurate statement about the logic of prediction would be that _____________. A. the logic of prediction can be applied more precisely for internal selection than for external selection B. the logic of prediction has identical application for internal and external selection C. the logic of prediction works better for external selection than for internal selection D. this concept does not apply to internal selection
9. While information from internal selection can be better because multiple point of view can be combined, there are concerns that _____________. A. bribery for promotions is widespread B. impression management and politics can play a role in who gets promoted C. internal candidates with poor technical skills are likely to be promoted D. instincts and intuition are not given enough weight
10. Problems with using others' "feelings" about a job applicant include _____________. A. lowered hiring standards for some employees B. discrimination on the basis of protected class status C. decisions with low validity D. all of the above
11. Talent management systems keep an ongoing organizational record of the skills, talents, and capabilities of an organization's employees. True False
12. Organizations find that talent management systems are low cost and require little expertise. True False
13. A virtue of peer assessments is that they rely on raters who are very knowledgeable of applicants' KSAOs. True False
14. A different set of criteria are used to evaluate the effectiveness of internal assessment methods, since concepts like validity and adverse impact are unimportant for internal hiring. True False
15. Where peer assessments are concerned, it would be accurate to say that _____________. A. peer ratings rely on voting to select the most promotable applicants B. peer assessments are used for both internal and external applicants C. peer rankings rely on ordering of peers being assessed D. peer rankings rely on assessments of each applicant using scores on a continuous numerical scale
16. An important advantage of peer assessments is __________. A. lower probability of bias in the assessment B. greater clarity in the criteria for assessment C. enhanced employee morale through the fostering of a competitive spirit D. greater knowledge of the applicants' KSAOs
17. Which of the following statements about various methods of managerial sponsorship is false? A. A coach is available to the person being assisted on and off the job. B. A coach provides day-to-day feedback. C. A mentor becomes personally responsible for the success of the person being assisted. D. A sponsor actively promotes the person being assisted for advancement opportunities.
18. Experience refers to length of service or tenure with a job, department or organization. True False
19. Seniority and experience are among the most prevalent methods of internal selection. True False
20. Seniority is a highly valid method for internal selection. True False
21. The validity of experience is higher than seniority for internal selection. True False
22. Experience is better suited to predict long-term rather than short-term potential. True False
23. Job knowledge tests hold great promise as a predictor of job performance. True False
24. One advance over the simple use of performance ratings is to review past performance records more thoroughly, including an evaluation of various dimensions of performance that are particularly relevant to job performance. True False
25. The argument behind the Peter Principle is that individuals who are good performers in one job will probably be good performers in the next job up the promotion ladder. True False
26. In using performance appraisals to predict the performance of an individual being considered for promotion from a junior to a senior level position, it would be appropriate to use the results of performance appraisals for a junior-level technical position to make a selection decision concerning a promotion to a senior level managerial position. True False
27. One potential problem with promotability ratings is that they may yield results that are different from results of performance appraisals and evaluations for pay increases. True False
28. The incremental validity of assessment centers in predicting performance is relatively small. True False
29. A substantive assessment method often used in the selection of production workers and staff technicians is the assessment center. True False
30. An "in-basket" exercise involves a timed exercise that requires a job candidate to respond to simulated memoranda, reports, and other items requiring responses. True False
31. When using assessment centers to predict job performance, available research has shown an average validity coefficient of .37, which should be considered a low level of validity. True False
32. Where assessment centers are concerned, research has shown that the inclusion of peer evaluations and the use of psychologists as job candidate assessors rather than managers causes validity to increase. True False
33. Assessment centers tend to generate positive reactions from participants. True False
34. If, during an interview simulation, a job candidate is required to solicit information from the interviewer in order to solve a problem, this is most likely a "role play" type interview simulation. True False
35. One advantage of using review boards representing various constituencies for hiring is that it means constituents will be less likely to voice objections once the candidate is hired. True False
36. In-basket exercises are the most commonly used exercises in assessment centers. True False
37. Assessment centers have no validity in predicting performance and promotability beyond personality traits and cognitive ability tests. True False
38. One of the biggest limitations of assessment centers is their cost. True False
39. Personality tests are used to predict the success of employees in overseas assignments. True False
40. Which of the following is examples of substantive methods for internal selection? A. Skills inventories B. Managerial sponsorship C. Career concepts D. Performance appraisals
41. Which of the following is true regarding performance appraisals and internal selection? A. It is illegal for organizations to use performance appraisals as a basis for internal selection decisions. B. Performance appraisals have no validity. C. Performance appraisals have no reliability. D. Performance appraisals are readily available in most organizations.
42. Which of the following factors is the most relevant to the theory behind assessment centers? A. Prediction of the individual's behavior in critical roles through assessment by multiple methods. B. Matching applicants to KSAOs required by the job. C. Shortening the period of time needed to complete an assessment for a managerial position. D. Substituting HR assessors for line management assessors.
43. A job candidate responding to an "in-basket exercise" would most likely be asked to _________. A. make a simulated visit to a customer location B. participate in an interview simulation C. complete a written test to assess KSAOs D. draft memos to respond to letters received
44. The use of the case analysis method of assessment is most appropriate for assessing ____________. A. ability to perform a technical task B. problem-solving abilities C. leadership skills D. social-interactive skills
45. The validity of assessment centers as a method for internal selection is approximately ___________. A. .00 B. .05-.15 C. .25-.35 D. .50-.60
46. If the selection objective is to assess a candidate's ability to make a coherent persuasive report about the organization's annual results before a group of top managers, the best interview simulation to make this assessment would be a(n) ________. A. assessment center B. in-basket exercise C. role play D. oral presentation
47. Which of the following assessment methods does not have at least moderately high validity? A. assessment centers B. job knowledge tests C. seniority D. work experience
48. The type of selection methods which are used to narrow down a list of finalists to those who will receive job offers is called _________ methods. A. discretionary B. initial C. substantive D. sequential E. compensatory
49. Which of the following is true regarding seniority? A. It refers to length of service or tenure. B. It is closely related to the type of job experience. C. It is closely related to the quality of job experience. D. It is a highly valid selection method.
50. Research on the use of selection and experience as internal selection methods indicates that ___________. A. seniority is a more valid method of internal selection than experience B. seniority is better suited to predict short-term rather than long-term potential C. experience is less likely to be content valid if the past or present jobs are similar to the future job D. experience is unlikely to remedy initial performance difficulties of low ability employees
51. The concept which refers to the idea that individuals rise to their lowest level of incompetence is the _______. A. Peter Principle B. Promotability Principle C. Career Concept Principle D. 4/5 Principle
52. Security is of even greater importance in the administration of internal selection predictors than it might be in the external selection process. True False
53. One step an organization can take to shatter the "glass ceiling" would be to have greater use of selection plans. True False
54. Which of the following is an advantage of external recruiting? A. they ensure consistency from opening to closing B. they are useful for companies too small to have dedicated recruiters C. they are very inexpensive D. all of the above
55. An organization which is committed to shattering the "glass ceiling" should ___________. A. decrease its use of selection plans B. emphasize the use of traditional assessment methods C. pay attention to the types of KSAOs needed for advancement D. undertake programs to raise employees' awareness of general career issues
ch10 Key
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Practical significance is the sign of a correlation coefficient. True False
2. Validity refers to the relationship between predictor and criterion scores. True False
3. A useful predictor is one where the sign of the relationship is consistent with the logic or theory behind the predictor. True False
4. Statistical significance is stated as a probability and indicates a given predictor's chances of yielding similar validity coefficients with different sets of applicants. True False
5. A significance level of p<0.05 means that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 of concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is not. True False
6. In general, the greater the correlation of a given predictor with other predictors of a criterion, the more useful the predictor will be. True False
7. The usefulness of a predictor is determined by the value it adds to the prediction of job success above and beyond the forecasting powers of other available predictors. True False
8. There are no cases in which a predictor has high validity and high adverse impact. True False
9. All other things being equal, if a selection specialist must decide between two predictors, the one that causes the least adverse impact would be the best choice. True False
10. Utility refers to the expected gains to be derived from using a predictor. True False
11. The selection ratio is the number of people hired divided by the number of applicants, and it is desirable that this ratio be high. True False
12. It is desirable that the denominator of a selection ratio be small. True False
13. The base rate is the number of hirees divided by the number of employees. True False
14. When deciding whether or not to use a new predictor, the validity coefficient, the base rate, and the selection ratio should be considered in combination, not independently. True False
15. The most fundamental concern regarding utility analysis is that it lacks realism. True False
16. If you are using the "economic gains formula," and you have just increased the validity of your selection procedures with no change in cost, your economic gain value should increase. True False
17. The most difficult factor in the economic gain formula to estimate is "cost per applicant". True False
18. Utility analysis models do not take factors like EEO/AA concerns into account. True False
19. Research suggests that managers prefer the results of utility analysis to the presentation of simple validity coefficients. True False
20. Utility decreases as the number of valid predictors used in the selection process increases. True False
21. If you are evaluating the usefulness of a given predictor in predicting job success, and you are interested in the value the predictor adds to the prediction of job success, you want to know the predictor's ________. A. validity coefficient B. practical significance C. sign D. statistical significance
22. When HR specialists state that a new predictor "adds value" to the prediction of job success, they mean that _____. A. the predictor provides economic benefit to prediction B. the predictor has a high validity coefficient C. the predictor adds to the prediction of job success over and beyond the forecasting powers of current predictors D. the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, thus increasing efficiency
23. A significance level of p<0.05 in a validity study means _________. A. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 of concluding there is a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is not B. that there are 5 chances in 100 of concluding that there is not a relationship in the population of job applicants, when in fact, there is C. that the practical significance of the observed relationship is very low D. that there are fewer than 5 chances in 100 that a predictor has adverse impact
24. Validity refers to __________. A. the number of individuals hired by a predictor B. the number of individuals hired divided by the number of applicants C. the relationship between predictor and criterion scores D. the inverse of the adverse impact ratio
25. If an HR specialist is assessing the usefulness of predictors in forecasting job success, and it is noted that a given predictor has both high validity and high adverse impact, the HR specialist should conclude ___________. A. this can never happen and the method of calculating validity must be incorrect B. this is a common circumstance and the predictor should be used C. if the predictor is highly correlated with other predictors, this will compensate for adverse impact D. legal problems could result and alternative predictors should be sought
26. Under which circumstances is "hiring success gain" likely to be optimal? A. Low selection ratio, low base rate, high validity B. High selection ratio, high base rate, high validity C. High selection ratio, low base rate, high validity D. High selection ratio, low base rate, low validity
27. Which of the following is the most difficult to estimate term in the economic gain formula? A. Average tenure of employees. B. Number of applicants. C. Dollar value of job performance. D. Cost per applicant.
28. Taylor-Russell tables are an effective decision making tool in that they ________. A. allow for calculating selection ratios B. enable HR specialists to calculate utility ratios C. allow simultaneous consideration of a predictor's base rate, selection ratio, and validity D. help to increase validity coefficients to more acceptable levels
29. Economic gain formulas provide the HR specialist with an estimate of ______. A. the economic gain derived from using a predictor versus random selection B. the economic gain from using random selection C. the economic gain of the standard deviation of job performance D. the economic gain of the validity coefficient
30. A compensatory approach to selection decisions means that applicants must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process. True False
31. The clinical prediction method of determining an applicant's score on a job assessment instrument relies on adding the individual predictor scores together to arrive at the applicant's total score. True False
32. The "unit weighting" method of determining the score of a job applicant on an assessment instrument considers the relative importance of each predictor. True False
33. Multiple regression will be more precise than unit weighting if there is a small number of predictors, low correlations between predictors, and a large sample. True False
34. The multiple hurdles method of setting a passing score for a job predictor would be a cost efficient method for making decisions about hiring. True False
35. The _________ approach means that selection decisions means that scores on one predictor can make up for low scores on another. A. multiple hurdles B. Markov process C. compensatory model D. none of the above
36. The _________ method of determining an applicant's score is based on the expert judgment of the manager. A. multiple regression B. clinical prediction C. unit weighting D. none of the above
37. The _________ method of determining an applicant's score is based on assigning weights by statistical procedures and then adding predictor scores together. A. multiple regression B. clinical prediction C. unit weighting D. none of the above
38. The _________ approach means that an applicant must earn a passing score on each predictor before advancing in the selection process. A. multiple hurdles B. Markov process C. compensatory model D. none of the above
39. In establishing procedures for setting cutoff scores, organizations should stress the job-relatedness of the assessment procedure and de-emphasize validity. True False
40. In assessing cutoff scores, a "false negative" is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired. True False
41. In assessing cutoff scores, a "false positive" is an applicant who is assessed as not likely to succeed, but who would have been successful if hired. True False
42. The minimum competency method involves setting the cut score on the basis of the minimum qualifications deemed necessary to perform a job. True False
43. In top down hiring, all individuals who are above a minimum competency point are hired. True False
44. There is little evidence that individuals who perceive themselves to be overqualified are less satisfied or have higher intentions to turnover. True False
45. The law prohibits using different norms for test scores of minority and majority groups. True False
46. Banding is a procedure whereby applicants who score in different score ranges or bands are considered to have scored equivalently. True False
47. Applicants react positively when banding is associated with affirmative action. True False
48. An applicant who is hired but does not perform successfully is a ______________. A. true positive B. false positive C. true negative D. false negative
49. An applicant who is not hired but who would have performed successfully if hired is a ______________. A. true positive B. false positive C. true negative D. false negative
50. If a cutoff score is lowered, the effect of this on hiring results is likely to be ______________. A. fewer false negatives only B. both fewer false negatives and more true positives C. fewer false negatives and fewer false positives D. more false negatives and more false positives
51. If a cutoff scores is set based on the qualifications deemed necessary to perform a job, it is most likely the ______ method of determining cut scores. A. top-down B. criterion-related C. minimum competency D. banding
52. When applicants who score within a certain score range are considered to have scored equivalently ________. A. top-down B. criterion-related C. minimum competency D. banding
53. Which of the following statements is a useful guideline for setting cutoff scores? A. Cutoff scores should be consistent with normal expectations of acceptable proficiency within the workforce. B. The job relatedness of assessment procedures should not be correlated with validity. C. A single "best" method of setting cutoff scores should be identified. D. Cutoff scores should be set to maximize true positives.
54. When random selection is used to select the finalist to whom a job offer will be made, discretionary assessment methods should be used. True False
55. In ranking finalists are ordered from the most desirable to the least desirable based on the results of discretionary assessments. True False
56. One disadvantage of ranking is that it doesn't provide a clear suggestion of the order in which candidates should be offered jobs. True False
57. Ongoing hiring is most common in organizations with very high turnover rates. True False
58. When using ___________, each finalist has an equal chance of being selected. A. ranking B. random selection C. clinical prediction D. grouping
59. When using ___________, finalists are ordered from the most desirable to the least desirable based on results of discretionary assessments. A. ranking B. random selection C. clinical prediction D. grouping
60. When using ___________, finalists are banded together into rank-ordered categories. A. ranking B. random selection C. clinical prediction D. grouping
61. In general, HR specialists should orchestrate the development of staffing policies and procedures for all departments, but play a secondary, or supporting role in the ultimate decision to hire in areas outside of the HR department. True False
62. Since line managers are not usually technical experts in staffing processes, their input comes to play only in regard to hiring decisions. True False
63. In terms of who should participate in selection decision making (i.e., HR professionals vs. line managers), HR professionals would be least likely to ________. A. make the hiring decision B. establish selection procedures C. ensure relevant laws and regulations are being followed D. represent the interests of employees to management
64. In which of the following assessment procedures is the participation of line managers most needed? A. initial assessment B. substantive methods C. discretionary methods D. background investigations
65. Employees are most likely to be involved in hiring decision making if they are organized in __________. A. solo work B. functional harmony C. teams D. none of the above
66. If adverse impact occurs because of certain selection procedures, these procedures may be justified under UGESP through validity studies. True False
67. The two options the UGESP recommends for minimizing adverse impact are use of within-group norming and banding. True False
68. The law suggests that unless the organization is under a formal AAP, protected characteristics should not be considered in selection decision making. True False
69. If an organization wishes to comply with the law and still increase the diversity of its workforce, it should ___________. A. de-emphasize selection based on KSAOs B. use recruitment as a tool for attracting a more diverse and qualified applicant pool C. use clinical and other subjective prediction methods D. all of the above
70. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures establish guidelines for record-keeping ___________. A. of applicants' sex B. of applicants' race C. for major job categories D. all of the above
ch11 Key
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The three elements required for a contract to be legally binding are: offer, acceptance, and written documentation. True False
2. It is very important for an organization to know, in advance, whether an individual will be classified as either an employee or an independent contractor. True False
3. A third party is someone other than the employer or the offer receiver who speaks on their behalf in the establishment or modification of employment contracts. True False
4. The law is relatively indifferent between the use of written contracts and the use of oral contracts. True False
5. Statements in employee handbooks can be construed as employment contracts. True False
6. The "one year rule" ensures that oral agreements for time intervals greater than one year are legally enforceable. True False
7. If a letter of acceptance says an employee needs to work on weekends, but the employer makes an oral promise that the employee will not have to work on weekends, the oral statement could be legally binding. True False
8. If a co-worker promises a prospective employee overtime hours while visiting the prospective employee in his/her home, this promised "term" of the employment would likely be legally enforceable. True False
9. A disclaimer on an employment application blank stating that the employee can be terminated "with or without cause" and "with or without notice" is legally enforceable. True False
10. It is extremely important for organizations to be sure to keep promises that they make to job applicants in order to avoid subsequent lawsuits. True False
11. In order for "promissory estoppel" claim to apply when a job offer is made, the offer recipient must suffer a detrimental effect. True False
12. Which of the following elements are required for a contract to be legally binding and enforceable? A. offer B. acceptance C. consideration D. all of the above
13. Consideration in a contract entails __________. A. evidence that both parties agree to the terms as offered B. a polite exchange of information C. the exchange of something of value between the parties to the contract D. none of the above
14. Which of the following statements about written contracts is false? A. The law favors written contracts over oral contracts. B. A statement on a job application blank could be construed as a written contract. C. Written statements in employee handbooks that are unintended as contracts cannot be construed as contracts. D. Internal job posting notices can be construed as written job contracts.
15. Which of the following circumstances makes it less likely an oral statement about weekend work would be legally enforceable as a contract term? A. The statement was made in the workplace. B. The statement is not supported by a written policy. C. The statement was made by an organizational manager. D. The statement was a specific one.
16. Which of the following statements about disclaimers is false? A. They can appear in almost any written documents made available to job applicants or employees. B. They can be used to limit employee rights. C. They are never oral. D. Their receipt by employees should be acknowledged in some formal way.
17. In order to improve the chances of winning a law suit based on "promissory estoppel," the most important point the plaintiff must demonstrate is that ____. A. the promise was accurate B. the promise was made in good faith C. the defendant reneged on the promise D. the promise was withdrawn, resulting in a detrimental effect
18. Upon acceptance, a formal job offer in which consideration is provided to employees becomes a contract. True False
19. Terms and conditions of employment offered by employers unintentionally are not legally enforceable. True False
20. With a tight labor market, the organization will be in a position to provide lower cost offers. True False
21. The strategic approach to job offers involves considering the total package of extrinsic and intrinsic rewards that the offered job will provide to the finalist. True False
22. An organization should provide a definite starting date for an offer, or else the acceptance and consideration of the offer occur whenever the new hire actually begins to work. True False
23. Most organizations provide some form of specific "just cause" guarantee regarding terminations during their job offers. True False
24. One reason organizations often opt out of flat pay rates in favor of differential pay rates, is because job applicants are similar in KSAO quality. True False
25. The use of short-term incentive pay, like commissions or production bonuses, is common among private sector organizations. True False
26. Hiring bonuses tend to enhance employee performance motivation. True False
27. The least common form of long-term variable pay in the private sector is the cost of living adjustment. True False
28. Hiring bonuses can be problematic because recipients of these bonuses might take the bonus and then quit soon after. True False
29. A hot skill premium is a permanent pay premium added to the regular base pay to account for market escalation in pay for certain skills in extreme shortage. True False
30. Non-compete agreements that would keep employees from indefinitely practicing their trade or profession are not enforceable. True False
31. A non-compete agreement restricts a departing employee from competing against the organization. True False
32. Golden handcuff agreements legally bar employees from quitting a job for a specific period of time. True False
33. Written job offers should normally contain terms of acceptance that require acceptance without revision. True False
34. Which of the following is likely to be a contingency related to a job offer? A. satisfactory reference checks B. job salary C. job benefits D. job vacation privileges
35. Which of the following is not a choice involved in a strategic approach to job offers? A. determining a compelling offer the finalists will find difficult to turn down B. deciding which short and long term pressures to respond to in an offer C. deciding on specific pay levels that will apply to all individuals D. determine whether there will be a "standard offer" for all finalists or whether "enhanced offers" will be possible for some finalists
36. A _____ contract provides certainty to both the new hire and the organization regarding the length of the employment relationship. A. variable premium B. fixed annuity C. fixed-term D. latent variable
37. Flat pay rate job offers are least appropriate for _______. A. situations where applicants have very dissimilar KSAOs B. jobs with a plentiful supply of applicants C. situations where management desires to avoid inequities in starting pay among new employees D. jobs where applicants have KSAOs of similar quality
38. Terms and conditions that the organization states the employee is entitled to upon departure from the organization constitute _________. A. pay rates B. health benefits C. severance packages D. life insurance
39. Long-term variable pay plans provide employees ownership opportunities as the value of the organization increases are applicable only in the ____. A. public sector B. private sector C. technology sector D. none of the above
40. Which of the following is true regarding long-term variable pay? A. Stock options qualify for special tax treatment for employees. B. Small public organizations are more likely to provide stock options than large public organizations. C. Stock options guarantee a fixed rate of return on investment. D. None of the above
41. Studies of job seekers graduating from hotel administration and engineering programs showed that job offers involving _____ are seen more favorably. A. pay contingent on performance B. pay raises based on group performance C. a flexible benefits package D. pay pegged to skills
42. A _____ is a right to purchase a share of stock for a predetermined price at a later date. A. stock option B. profit share C. realized dividend D. mutual fund
43. A temporary pay premium added to the regular base pay of an employee to account for a temporary market escalation in pay for certain skills in extreme shortage is called a(n) ____________. A. hot skill premium B. tight labor market adjustment C. key skill premium D. none of the above
44. ______ prohibit current or departing employees from the unauthorized use or disclosure of information during or after employment. A. Non-compete agreements B. Retainers C. Confidentiality clauses D. Mixed-motive contracts
45. Non-compete agreements should be drafted in such a way that they cover ____. A. high-value employees B. experienced employees C. all employees D. only managerial, technical, and scientific staff
46. Organizations can gauge the likely reactions of job applicants to job offers not only by conducting formal research, but also by gathering information about various preferences from the offer recipient during the actual recruitment/selection process. True False
47. Access to typical salary information for various occupations or job titles is very hard to come by, especially for job seekers. True False
48. Applicant dishonesty is a common problem as relates to the reporting of the applicant's current salary. True False
49. A currently employed offer receiver normally incurs costs for leaving and will expect a "make whole" offer amounting to 20-30% of the offer receiver's current base pay. True False
50. The lowball strategy will be especially effective for desperate or unknowledgeable employees. True False
51. An advantage of the "competitive strategy" for negotiating initial job offers is that this strategy repeatedly yields acceptances from the highest quality (KSAOs) applicants. True False
52. When job offer negotiating strategies are to be used as part of an aggressive EEO/AA recruitment program, the strategy most appropriate to be used in such a situation is the "competitive strategy." True False
53. When rejecting job applicants, most organizations do so with a rejection message to the applicant that is short and vague in content. True False
54. In using information about competitors to structure job offers, which of the following statements is not useful as a general guideline? A. It makes a difference who the competitors are. B. Competitive offers should always be matched to ensure acceptance. C. Analysis of competitive advertisements should be performed in order to have the "market information" needed to prepare effective job offers. D. Trade associations should be consulted for competitive information whenever possible.
55. The most sensible approach for addressing the issue of applicant truthfulness would be to ________. A. receive applicant information in good faith since the majority of applicants will be honest and it is not fair to inconvenience everyone with more verification because of a few "bad apples" B. treat applicants with trust and they will respond with honesty in most cases C. have applicants provide independent, third-party documentation of all job information provided on application blanks D. verify the applicant information provided that is deemed most vital
56. The most commonly negotiated element of a job offer is ___. A. severance packages B. educational assistance C. salary D. paid time off
57. As a general rule concerning job offers, it can be said that __________. A. "low ball" job offers are expensive to the organization B. "competitive" job offers have no important drawbacks C. "competitive" job offers tend to leave room to negotiate D. "competitive" offers usually stimulate the most positive reactions on the part of offer recipients
58. The sales approach to presenting a job offer has been adopted by many organizations because ________. A. mechanical presentations of job offers have been proven not to work B. they apply to all situations C. they cost less than mechanical presentations D. they may increase the likelihood of bringing job offers to closure
59. Most rejection messages sent to applicants are _________. A. specific in terms of the reason for the rejection B. not conveyed by formal means C. vague in content D. designed carefully to "soften the blow" of the rejection
60. Which of the following statements about reneging on job offers is false? A. reneging is often caused by sudden changes in circumstances, such as a change in health status B. there are substantial legal concerns about reneging C. most employers feel the level of reneging has increased dramatically in recent years D. solid evidence on reneging and why it occurs is lacking
61. Orientation is likely to be more effective when newcomers have realistic information about job requirements and rewards before the job begins. True False
62. Orientation should focus on the person/job match exclusively. True False
63. Whereas orientation focuses on the initial and immediate aspects of newcomer adaptation, socialization emphasizes helping the newcomer fit into the job and organization over time. True False
64. One way to improve employee socialization outcomes is to provide realistic requirement information regarding job requirements and rewards. True False
65. Clarifying job requirements and knowledge of skills are the only demonstrated methods for consistently improving employee socialization. True False
66. Research suggests that socialization programs are equally effective when conducted online relative to person-to-person. True False
67. Effective orientation training should include __________. A. sources of influence in the organization B. integrating the newcomer into the work unit and team C. conducting active mentoring for the newcomer D. all of the above
68. What is the relationship between orientation and socialization activities? A. Orientation covers job content, socialization covers social content. B. Orientation is usually a small group activity, socialization is one on one. C. Orientation is typically an immediate activity for new hires, which overlaps with more long-term socialization. D. Orientation is formal, socialization is informal.
69. The goal(s) of the socialization process is(are) ___________. A. to achieve an effective person/job match B. to achieve an effective person/organization match C. to help the newcomer fit into the job in the long-term D. all of the above are true
70. From the newcomer's perspective, likely components for inclusion in the socialization process include addressing _________. A. performance proficiency B. organization goals and values C. politics D. all of the above are correct
71. Research has shown that ____ facilitates employee socialization to a new job. A. clarifying job requirements and knowledge and skills to be acquired B. minimizing biasing contact from current co-workers C. providing a highly positive recruitment message regarding job requirements at rewards D. all of the above
72. The delivery of newcomer socialization should be the responsibility of __________. A. his/her supervisor B. a mentor or sponsor C. the HR department D. all of the above
73. Although organizations are strongly encouraged to check the authorization to work of all employees, they cannot discriminate against applicants on the basis of country of origin. True False
74. It is best to ask for proof of employment eligibility prior to making a job offer. True False
75. Negligent hiring claims are made when an employer fails to provide adequate compensation and benefits to a new hire. True False
76. Having applicants sign release statements so the employer can do background investigations is a legal means for minimizing the possibility of negligent hiring. True False
77. In general, the employment relationship is an at-will one. True False
78. Under the requirements of the Immigration Reform and Control Act, employers must ___________. A. adjust pay scales for alien status B. verify employability status for aliens only C. verify employability status for all potential employees D. verify employability status for applicants before an offer is extended
79. Which of the following statements about negligent hiring lawsuits against employers is accurate? A. monetary damages are usually leveled against the employee found to be at fault B. the plaintiff must present evidence the injury or harm was a foreseeable consequence of hiring the unfit employee C. the employer has the initial burden to present evidence of proper hiring practice in such cases D. suits of this kind are decreasing as companies in the private sector recognize the liabilities involved
80. To reduce the likelihood of negligent hiring lawsuits organizations should _____. A. emphasize characteristics like licensure requirements, criminal records, and references B. avoid gathering too much KSAO information because it can be used to demonstrate that an organization "should have known" an employee would be a problem C. refuse to fire individuals with a history of mental illnesses D. none of the above are useful to prevent negligent hiring suits
ch12 Key
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. In organizations with fewer than 100 employees, research suggests that staffing is most likely to be conducted by the owner, president, or work unit manager. True False
2. Centralization of the staffing function creates economies scale and consistency in staffing policies and processes across the organization. True False
3. A study of HR departments in large organizations found that the focus on recruitment and selection activities had decreased significantly over the past several years. True False
4. Those employed within the staffing function need to work with training and development staff regularly. True False
5. Entry into staffing jobs normally occurs at the generalist rank in both private and public organizations. True False
6. The fixed point or method of entry into staffing jobs is frequently the recruiting and interviewing function. True False
7. Jobs in staffing are increasingly becoming more customer focused and facilitative in nature. True False
8. Increasing numbers of staffing jobs are found in staffing firms. True False
9. Lack of staffing policies and procedures may lead to practices that may foster negative applicant reactions and problems with legal compliance. True False
10. The scope of staffing actions and practices is quite small and narrow. True False
11. Decreasing numbers of staffing jobs are found in staffing firms. True False
12. Perceived justice is related to concrete outcomes like employee desire to pursue a job, increased intentions to accept a job, and decreased intention to turnover. True False
13. Most organizations with a sufficient number of employees to warrant a dedicated HR department have integrated the function with human resources information systems (HRISs). True False
14. Although HRIS have increased data availability for human resources functions, they have done little to fundamentally affect the way staffing activities are evaluated. True False
15. SaaS vendors provide the hardware, software, and day-to-day management of HRIS. True False
16. A growing trend in HRIS is the centralization of these functions within the HR department to prevent managers from accessing the system. True False
17. Surveys suggest that staffing is one of the first areas that organizations will outsource. True False
18. HR representatives report that one of the key advantages of outsourcing is access to superior information from specialists. True False
19. A professional employer organization (PEO) is like a temporary help agency, but provides a wider range of HR services and has a longer-term relationship with clients. True False
20. Factors that are driving organizations to consider outsourcing HR activities include cost reduction, the cost of technology acquisition, need for improved service quality, and expertise of vendors. True False
21. As organization size increases, the likelihood that there will be a highly centralized HR department _________. A. increases B. decreases C. stays about the same D. none of the above
22. Staffing members must coordinate their activities with __________. A. benefits staff B. compensation staff C. training and development staff D. all of the above are true
23. Which of the following is true regarding jobs in staffing? A. Entry into staffing jobs normally occurs at the generalist rank. B. There is usually a fixed point of entry into staffing jobs. C. Jobs in staffing are becoming increasingly customer focused and facilitative in nature. D. Few are housed in the HR department.
24. Which of the following statements regarding staffing policies and procedures is true? A. they seldom contribute to organizational efficiency B. they help to ensure legal compliance C. they often lead to negative applicant reactions D. all of the above are true
25. Research suggests that organizational decision making is seen as most fair when it is based on _____. A. social influence B. clearly communicated decision criteria C. processes tailored to each unique individual D. all of the above
26. Human resources information systems have been used for which of the following functions? A. EEO data analysis and reports B. employee succession planning C. databases of job titles and responsibilities D. all of the above
27. An ASP or SaaS provider offers which of the following services? A. techniques to prevent managers from accessing HR data B. hardware and software for running HR systems C. paper-based forms and data for the organization D. all of the above
28. The contracting out of work to a vendor or third party administrator is called ____________. A. outsourcing B. temping C. contracting D. boundary spanning
29. Which of the following factors is most likely to be a reason not to outsource HR activities? A. vendors have little expertise B. vendors are less flexible to meet changing needs C. vendors have few resources to offer D. vendors meet resistance within HR and line management
30. Which of the following functions are most likely to be outsourced? A. recruiting creative talent for an advertising agency B. screening registered nurses for a long-term care facility C. recruiting and selecting individuals for teams D. providing employee orientation
31. For ______, it is better to keep staffing functions within the organization, rather than outsourcing. A. small organizations B. organizations with continual hiring needs C. firm-specific human capital D. general human capital
32. The evaluation of staffing systems should focus on the operation of the staffing process, the results and costs of the process, and the satisfaction of the customers of the staffing system. True False
33. Standardized staffing systems are more likely to generate legal challenges by job applicants. True False
34. Standardization will probably decrease applicants' perceptions of procedural fairness of a staffing system. True False
35. Once a staffing process has been mapped out, the next step is to check for deviations from the system. True False
36. Most of the processes involved in staffing are too subjective or difficult to quantify. True False
37. Experienced managers who have used staffing system metrics often find that new staffing systems may not represent a significant improvement. True False
38. It is typically not possible to use techniques like split-samples analysis or longitudinal analysis to evaluate the effectiveness of established processes. True False
39. In recent years, a number of organizations have worked to develop standardized benchmarks for judging the effectiveness of staffing processes across organizations. True False
40. Benchmark data on staffing policies are typically applicable across nearly every organization and should be used as a primary guide for selecting which practices to implement. True False
41. The formula for the staffing cost ratio is total staffing cost ratio = total staffing costs/total number recruited. True False
42. Two of the key customers of the staffing system are managers and job applicants. True False
43. There are few tools to facilitate the electronic processing of employee satisfaction surveys, so paper and pencil measures are usually preferable. True False
44. Which of the following statements is not an important step in staffing process evaluations? A. Mapping out the intended process. B. Identifying deviations from the intended process. C. The norm is for organizations to conduct validation studies. D. Correction actions should be planned to eliminate deviations.
45. Which of the following best fits the description of a staffing flowchart? A. it shows the distance from staffing to strategic operational concerns B. it depicts the actual flow of staffing activities from vacancy to hire C. it provides evidence of how staffing measures increase performance directly D. it is a physical model of staffing using flows to show movement
46. In a ________ analysis, the target employee population is split in half, and the new HR program is initiated with only one of these halves. A. longitudinal B. split-sample C. LISREL D. factor
47. In a ________ analysis, data from a long period of time is collected both before and after a staffing policy or procedure is implemented. A. longitudinal B. split-sample C. LISREL D. factor
48. Comparative staffing process data can be obtained from the _________. A. Society for Human Resource Management B. HR Data Sources Corporation C. Department of Labor D. None of the above
49. The four common types of staffing metrics evaluate _____. A. performance, process, quantity, and quality B. rectification, justification, elaboration, and relation C. cost, timeliness, outcomes, and reactions D. speed, diligence, dedication, and perseverance
50. Increasingly, organizations are emphasizing __________ as a key indicator of staffing effectiveness because vacancies can mean loss of revenue. A. yield ratios B. employee satisfaction surveys C. staffing-to-employee ratios D. time to fill
51. Staffing metrics are increasingly used because _____. A. they demonstrate substantial returns in their own right B. they are readily communicated across the organization C. they are mandated by the Full Data Reporting in Employment Act D. they are seen as a method to move staffing into the accounting function
52. Advertising expenses and cost per applicant are examples of __________ staffing metrics. A. cost B. timeliness C. outcomes D. reactions
53. Number of positions filled and job performance are examples of __________ staffing metrics. A. cost B. timeliness C. outcomes D. reactions
54. One of the key customers of the staffing system is _________. A. the CEO B. job applicants C. society D. the industry in which the company operates
55. Records are not necessary for legal compliance. True False
56. Records may be used to audit staffing practices and conduct staffing research. True False
57. The Civil Rights Act and Affirmative Action Programs Regulations require that private employers with more than 100 employees (50 for federal contractors) are required to file an annual report with the EEOC. True False
58. It is highly desirable to periodically conduct audits or reviews of an organization's degree of compliance with laws and regulations pertaining to staffing. True False
59. The EEOC requires that all employers submit hard copy, paper documents of all their EEO-1 reports. True False
60. Employers are usually more interested in mediation with the EEOC for discrimination disputes than are employees. True False
61. Organizations that wish to protect themselves from discrimination claims can require employees to sign an enforceable waiver that requires them to use the organization's internal ADR rather than the courts. True False
62. An ideal arbitrator is a neutral individual and the arbitrator's findings should be finalized as a written award letter. True False
63. Records should be created for which of the following purposes? A. legal compliance B. use in staffing decisions C. justification of staffing decisions D. all of the above are correct
64. What proportion of disputes that begin the EEOC mediation process are eventually resolved through mediation? A. fewer than 10% B. more than 10%, but fewer than half C. more than half D. the EEOC has no mediation procedure
65. What is the primary difference between mediation and arbitration? A. Arbitration is generally more time consuming than mediation B. Arbitrators only consult with both sides, whereas mediators issue a binding decision C. Mediation typically involves at least four parties D. Mediators only consult with both sides, whereas arbitrators issue a binding decision
66. Which of the following must report to the EEOC annually? A. all employers B. private employers with over 100 employees (50 for federal contractors) C. private employers with over 1000 employees (500 for federal contractors) D. only organizations with federal contracts
67. Recent court decisions suggest that _______ is essential for most organizations. A. affirmative action B. employee termination insurance C. training in employment discrimination D. none of the above
68. In ______________ a neutral person investigates a complaint and develops findings that may be the basis for resolving an employee complaint. A. mediation B. arbitration C. fact finding D. peer review
69. In ______________ a neutral person conducts formal hearing and issues a decision that is binding on the parties. A. mediation B. arbitration C. fact finding D. peer review
ch13 Key
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. There are several positive, functional outcomes of employee turnover. True False
2. Avoidable turnover is that which could have been prevented by actions like a pay raise or a new job assignment. True False
3. An employee's perceived desirability of movement can depend on reasons that have little or nothing to do with the job. True False
4. An employee's overall intention to quit depends on the desirability of leaving, ease of leaving, and alternatives available to the employee. True False
5. Employees who have a high intention to quit necessarily end up quitting their jobs. True False
6. Desirability of movement is a weak predictor of voluntary employee turnover. True False
7. Availability of promotions or transfers may lessen or eliminate any intentions to quit, even though the employee is very dissatisfied with the current job. True False
8. Discharge turnover is primarily due to extremely poor person/organization matches. True False
9. Downsizing turnover is a reflection of a staffing level mismatch in which the organization actually is, or is projected to be, overstaffed. True False
10. Of the three types of employee turnover, discharges are the most prevalent. True False
11. The types of employee turnover include ___________. A. voluntary B. discharge C. downsizing D. all of the above
12. Discharge turnover is usually due to ___________. A. a site or plant closing B. permanent layoff C. poor employee performance D. none of the above
13. Turnover due to organizational downsizing is classified as ______. A. voluntary B. involuntary C. supplemental D. it depends on the circumstances of the downsizing
14. The desirability of leaving an organization is often an outgrowth of _________. A. poor person/organization match B. favorable labor market conditions C. general, transferable KSAOs D. none of the above
15. An employee's intention to leave an organization is influenced by __________. A. perceived desirability of movement B. perceived ease of movement C. alternatives available to the employee D. all of the above
16. Ease of leaving is greater when ____. A. employees are highly embedded B. employees possess ample employer-specific KSAOs C. labor markets are loose D. all of the above
17. Downsizing is typically a reflection of __________. A. overstaffing B. understaffing C. an appropriate staffing level D. none of the above
18. Data are seldom available regarding when or where employee turnover is occurring in most organizations. True False
19. Research suggests that there are differences between the reasons for turnover that employees provide in exit interviews and the reasons employees provide in anonymous surveys. True False
20. Because it is typically very easy to collect and analyze job satisfaction data meaningfully, most organizations make this a cornerstone of their retention strategy. True False
21. Exit interviews should be conducted by exiting employee's immediate supervisor whenever possible. True False
22. The interviewee in an exit interview should be told that the comments that he/she makes will be confidential and that only aggregate results will be used by the organization. True False
23. Postexit surveys should ask be mailed quite some time after the employee's last day of work so the individual has sufficient time to reflect on his or her experiences. True False
24. Economic costs associated with voluntary turnover include accrued paid time off and temporary coverage. True False
25. Material and equipment costs are likely to be the most prevalent in replacement and training costs. True False
26. The primary immediate benefit of turnover for employers is hiring inducements. True False
27. Compared to discharge turnover, voluntary turnover is usually more costly. True False
28. Turnover cost estimates are very precise and accurate in most cases. True False
29. Many turnover costs are hidden in the time demands placed on the many employees who must handle the separation, replacement, and training activities. True False
30. One potential benefit of employee discharges is the development of improved performance management and disciplinary skills. True False
31. Downsizing costs are concentrated in separation costs for permanent reductions in force. True False
32. Exit interviews can be used to explain _________ to departing employees. A. rehiring rights B. benefits C. confidentiality agreements D. all of the above
33. Which of the following is a suggestion for conducting an appropriate exit interview? A. The interviewer should be the employee's immediate supervisor. B. There should be an unstructured interview format. C. The interviewer should prepare for each interview by reviewing the interview format and the interviewee's personnel file. D. None of the above
34. Which of the following is a common tool to assess employee reasons for leaving? A. Position analysis B. Job rotation C. Exit interview D. Discharge notification
35. Economic separation costs associated with voluntary turnover include ________. A. hiring inducements B. rehiring costs C. manager's time D. more than one of the above
36. Replacement costs associated with voluntary turnover include __________. A. HR staff induction costs B. mentoring C. severance pay D. contagion
37. Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with voluntary employee turnover? A. lowered replacement costs B. savings from not replacing an employee C. vacancy creates an open job that must be staffed D. all of the above
38. Which of the following makes involuntary turnover potentially more costly than a similar level of voluntary turnover? A. Accrued paid time off B. Possibility of a lawsuit C. Staffing costs for a new hire D. Formal training
39. Economic costs associated with downsizing include ___________. A. threat to harmonious labor-management relations B. decreased employee morale C. higher unemployment insurance premiums D. difficulty in attracting new employees
40. Which of the following is a potential benefit associated with downsizing? A. focus on core businesses, eliminating peripheral ones B. spreading risk by outsourcing activities to other organizations C. lower payroll and benefit costs D. all of the above
41. A recent Society for Human Resource Management (SHRM) survey found that the most effective organizational strategy for retaining employees is the provision of concierge services. True False
42. Surveys suggest that HR managers believe that a totally different set of factors lead to turnover compared to regular employees. True False
43. To have the power to attract and retain employees, rewards must be unique and unlikely to be offered by competitors. True False
44. In general, most employees report that the opportunity for higher compensation is a more powerful predictor of turnover than conflict with supervisors. True False
45. Research has shown that the best performers are least likely to quit when an organization either rewards performance with higher compensation or widely communicates its compensation practices; doing both adds little to these independent effects. True False
46. Of the factors that influence an employee's desirability of leaving, job satisfaction is the one that cannot be influenced to a significant degree by organizations. True False
47. Providing employees increased autonomy and requiring them to learn a variety of skills increases stress significantly, which leads to greater turnover rates. True False
48. One guideline for increasing job satisfaction and retention is to ensure that fairness and justice exist in the workplace. True False
49. Employee perceptions of injustice are often rooted in misunderstanding or ignorance of company policies that could be resolved with increased communication. True False
50. Employees may not like a supervisor who speaks in a derogatory way towards them, but evidence suggests they seldom actually turnover as a result of these feelings. True False
51. Some employees who do not take advantage of work-life balance options resent their coworkers who are more likely to use work-life programs. True False
52. Evidence suggests that personality dispositions have little or no impact on employee tendencies to turnover. True False
53. Because employees quit companies, not jobs, internal staffing systems are usually seen as a poor substitute for a job at another company. As such, they do little to reduce intentions to leave. True False
54. The first strategy for improving employee retention is to _____________. A. redesign employee jobs B. increase pay C. improve job satisfaction D. none of the above
55. Guidelines for increasing job satisfaction and retention include ___________. A. establish a lag pay policy for all employees B. link rewards to retention behaviors C. keeping core operations information secret D. none of the above
56. Which of the following is an attribute of a high value employee that an organization would want to prevent from leaving? A. low training investment B. strong KSAOs C. retirement D. low seniority
57. Which of the following is an attribute of a low value employee that an organization would not want to prevent from leaving? A. little intellectual capital B. high seniority C. high performance D. all of the above
58. Research most clearly suggests that when organizations wish to increase retention they need to _____. A. provide team-building B. convince employees that there are few alternatives C. offer "bundles" of HR practices that complement one another D. demonstrate executive commitment to outreach
59. Which of the following factors leading to turnover cannot usually be addressed by the organization? A. Poor social environment at work B. Low levels of job satisfaction C. Employee shocks D. All of these can be addressed by organizational policy
60. Organizations can use compensation to reduce turnover by _____. A. providing deferred compensation B. giving specific rewards for seniority C. increasing pay levels to surpass the market D. all of the above
61. Organizations that link extrinsic rewards to employee performance (i.e. that use incentive compensation plans) find that _____. A. turnover of high performers decreases and turnover of low performers increases B. turnover is increased across the board C. turnover is decreased across the board D. turnover rates are largely unaffected
62. Work-life balance programs are an example of _____. A. communal distribution B. intrinsic rewards C. instrumentality D. a completely ineffective retention strategy
63. Research on organizational justice suggests that ____. A. justice only influences turnover in highly industrialized Western countries B. communication has little impact on employee attitudes or turnover intentions C. employees are typically well-informed about organizational policies D. none of the above
64. To increase the cost of leaving, employers ____. A. reduce headcount B. provide deferred compensation C. increase workloads D. provide free stock to employees
65. Performance management systems enable organizations to ensure that an initial person/job match yields an effectively performing employee. True False
66. One recommendation for an effective performance appraisal or management system is that appraisal criteria should be job-related, specific, and communicated in advance to the employee. True False
67. Performance management systems are used primarily to detect individuals whose performance is unsatisfactory and should be terminated. True False
68. Poor task performance is the result of insufficient ability, knowledge, skills, or motivation. True False
69. In progressive discipline, termination is seen as a viable early option to avoid having to work through a potentially fruitless cycle of improving a low-ability worker. True False
70. Employee termination is the final step in progressive discipline, and ideally it would never be necessary. True False
71. As assessment of employee success in reaching goals, ratings of competencies, and suggestions for improvement are all part of _____. A. performance planning B. performance appraisal C. performance execution D. progressive discipline
72. Recommendations for the effective design and use of a performance appraisal or management system include that ____________. A. evaluations should be in writing B. the employee should receive timely feedback about the evaluation and an explanation for any outcome decision C. there should be agreement among different raters in their evaluation of the employee's performance D. all of the above
73. ______ includes the completion of job tasks that are specifically included in the job description. A. Citizenship B. Task performance C. (Low) Counterproductivity D. All of the above
74. Which of the following is not a part of normal progressive discipline? A. Give employees notice of the rules of conduct B. Provide employees with alternative employment if performance problems persist C. Allow for full investigation of alleged employee misconduct D. Give employees the right to appeal a decision
75. Which of the following is an example of a major employee offense? A. sabotage B. theft C. drug/alcohol abuse at work D. all of the above
76. The typical penalty for a first major offense by an employee is _____________. A. suspension or discharge B. written reprimand C. verbal reprimand D. none of the above
77. Discharge turnover targets groups of employees and is also known as reduction in force. (RIF). True False
78. Data shows dramatic decreases in organizational stock price following a downsizing, especially if the downsizing organization restructures assets during downsizing. True False
79. Research shows that downsizing has negative impacts on employee morale and health, workgroup creativity and communication, and workforce quality. True False
80. No-layoff policies cannot be implemented effectively by organizations. True False
81. One problem that has been shown to accompany downsizing is _____. A. increased payroll costs B. decreases in employee health and motivation C. most companies fail to downsize sufficiently D. insufficient attention to issues of seniority
82. Which of the following is the most commonly pursued alternative to layoffs for reducing staffing levels? A. Attrition B. Retraining C. Benefits reductions D. Job sharing
83. In many cases, the post-layoff environment for those who remain is marked by _____. A. reductions in trust of management B. stress among those who remain C. reductions in workforce quality D. all of the above
84. Legal experts usually advise organizations to avoid documenting performance problems because the "paper trail" is likely to just lead to problems in court. True False
85. From a legal standpoint, if performance appraisal information is to be used in the retention management and termination process for an organization, the organization needs to ensure that the information is _____. A. organizationally relevant B. sufficiently general to cover a variety of situations C. communicated in advance to the employee D. all of the above
ch14 Key