## Electric and magnetic fields at an interface

As pointed out in  the fields at an interface that is not a perfect conductor on either side are related by

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:fieldsAtInterface:20}
\begin{aligned}
\ncap \cdot \lr{ \BD_2 – \BD_1 } &= \rho_{es} \\
\ncap \cross \lr{ \BE_2 – \BE_1 } &= -\BM_s \\
\ncap \cdot \lr{ \BB_2 – \BB_1 } &= \rho_{ms} \\
\ncap \cross \lr{ \BH_2 – \BH_1 } &= \BJ_s.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Given the fields in medium 1, assuming that boths sets of media are linear, we can use these relationships to determine the fields in the other medium.

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:fieldsAtInterface:40}
\begin{aligned}
\ncap \cdot \BE_2 &= \inv{\epsilon_2} \lr{ \epsilon_1 \ncap \cdot \BE_1 + \rho_{es} } \\
\ncap \wedge \BE_2 &= \ncap \wedge \BE_1 -I \BM_s \\
\ncap \cdot \BB_2 &= \ncap \cdot \BB_1 + \rho_{ms} \\
\ncap \wedge \BB_2 &= \mu_2 \lr{ \inv{\mu_1} \ncap \wedge \BB_1 + I \BJ_s}.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Now the fields in interface 2 can be obtained by adding the normal and tangential projections. For the electric field

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:fieldsAtInterface:60}
\begin{aligned}
\BE_2
&=
\ncap (\ncap \cdot \BE_2 )
+ \ncap \cdot (\ncap \wedge \BE_2) \\
&=
\inv{\epsilon_2} \ncap \lr{ \epsilon_1 \ncap \cdot \BE_1 + \rho_{es} }
+
\ncap \cdot (\ncap \wedge \BE_1 -I \BM_s).
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Note that this manipulation can also be done without Geometric Algebra by writing $$\BE_2 = \ncap (\ncap \cdot \BE_2 ) – \ncap \cross (\ncap \cross \BE_2)$$).
Expanding $$\ncap \cdot (\ncap \wedge \BE_1) = \BE_1 – \ncap (\ncap \cdot \BE_1)$$, and $$\ncap \cdot (I \BM_s) = -\ncap \cross \BM_s$$, that is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:fieldsAtInterface:80}
\boxed{
\BE_2
=
\BE_1
+ \ncap (\ncap \cdot \BE_1) \lr{ \frac{\epsilon_1}{\epsilon_2} – 1 }
+ \frac{\rho_{es}}{\epsilon_2}
+ \ncap \cross \BM_s.
}
\end{equation}

For the magnetic field

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:fieldsAtInterface:100}
\begin{aligned}
\BB_2
&=
\ncap (\ncap \cdot \BB_2 )
+
\ncap \cdot (\ncap \wedge \BB_2) \\
&=
\ncap \lr{ \ncap \cdot \BB_1 + \rho_{ms} }
+
\mu_2 \ncap \cdot \lr{ \lr{ \inv{\mu_1} \ncap \wedge \BB_1 + I \BJ_s} },
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

which is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:fieldsAtInterface:120}
\boxed{
\BB_2
=
\frac{\mu_2}{\mu_1} \BB_1
+
\ncap (\ncap \cdot \BB_1) \lr{ 1 – \frac{\mu_2}{\mu_1} }
+ \ncap \rho_{ms}
– \ncap \cross \BJ_s.
}
\end{equation}

These are kind of pretty results, having none of the explicit angle dependence that we see in the Fresnel relationships. In this analysis, it is assumed there is only a transmitted component of the ray in question, and no reflected component. Can we do a purely vectoral treatment of the Fresnel equations along these same lines?

# References

 Constantine A Balanis. Advanced engineering electromagnetics. Wiley New York, 1989.

## Plane wave solution directly from Maxwell’s equations

Here’s a problem that I thought was fun, an exercise for the reader to show that the plane wave solution to Maxwell’s equations can be found with ease directly from Maxwell’s equations. This is in contrast to the what seems like the usual method of first showing that Maxwell’s equations imply wave equations for the fields, and then solving those wave equations.

## Problem. $$\xcap$$ oriented plane wave electric field ( ex. 4.1)

A uniform plane wave having only an $$x$$ component of the electric field is traveling in the $$+ z$$ direction in an unbounded lossless, source-0free region. Using Maxwell’s equations write expressions for the electric and corresponding magnetic field intensities.

The phasor form of Maxwell’s equations for a source free region are

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:40}
\spacegrad \cross \BE = -j \omega \BB
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:60}
\spacegrad \cross \BH = j \omega \BD
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:80}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:100}
\end{equation}

Since $$\BE = \xcap E(z)$$, the magnetic field follows from \ref{eqn:ExPlaneWave:40}

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:120}
-j \omega \BB
=
\begin{vmatrix}
\xcap & \ycap & \zcap \\
\partial_x & \partial_y & \partial_z \\
E & 0 & 0
\end{vmatrix}
=
\ycap \partial_z E(z)
– \zcap \partial_y E(z),
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:140}
\BB =
-\inv{j \omega} \partial_z E.
\end{equation}

This is constrained by \ref{eqn:ExPlaneWave:60}

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:160}
j \omega \epsilon \xcap E
=
=
-\inv{\mu j \omega}
\begin{vmatrix}
\xcap & \ycap & \zcap \\
\partial_x & \partial_y & \partial_z \\
0 & \partial_z E & 0
\end{vmatrix}
=
-\inv{\mu j \omega}
\lr{
-\xcap \partial_{z z} E
+ \zcap \partial_x \partial_z E
}
\end{equation}

Since $$\partial_x \partial_z E = \partial_z \lr{ \partial_x E } = \partial_z \inv{\epsilon} \spacegrad \cdot \BD = \partial_z 0$$, this means

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:180}
\partial_{zz} E = -\omega^2 \epsilon\mu E = -k^2 E.
\end{equation}

This is the usual starting place that we use to show that the plane wave has an exponential form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:200}
\BE(z) =
\xcap
\lr{
E_{+} e^{-j k z}
+
E_{-} e^{j k z}
}.
\end{equation}

The magnetic field from \ref{eqn:ExPlaneWave:140} is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:220}
\BB
= \frac{j}{\omega} \lr{ -j k E_{+} e^{-j k z} + j k E_{-} e^{j k z} }
= \inv{c} \lr{ E_{+} e^{-j k z} – E_{-} e^{j k z} },
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:ExPlaneWave:240}
\BH
= \inv{\mu c} \lr{ E_{+} e^{-j k z} – E_{-} e^{j k z} }
= \inv{\eta} \lr{ E_{+} e^{-j k z} – E_{-} e^{j k z} }.
\end{equation}

A solution requires zero divergence for the magnetic field, but that can be seen to be the case by inspection.

# References

 Constantine A Balanis. Advanced engineering electromagnetics. Wiley New York, 1989.

## Coupled wave equation in cylindrical coordinates

In , for a sourceless configuration, it is noted that the electric field equations $$\spacegrad^2 \BE = -\beta^2 \BE$$ have the form

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:20}
\spacegrad^2 E_\rho – \frac{E_\rho}{\rho^2} – \frac{2}{\rho^2} \PD{\phi}{E_\phi} = -\beta^2 E_\rho
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:60}
\spacegrad^2 E_\phi – \frac{E_\phi}{\rho^2} + \frac{2}{\rho^2} \PD{\phi}{E_\rho} = -\beta^2 E_\phi
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:80}
\end{equation}

where

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:100}
\inv{\rho} \PD{\rho}{} \lr{ \rho \PD{\rho}{\psi}} + \inv{\rho^2}\PDSq{\phi}{\psi} + \PDSq{z}{\psi}.
\end{equation}

He applies separation of variables to the last equation, ending up with the usual Bessel function solution, but the first two coupled equations are dismissed as coupled and difficult. It looks like separation of variables works for this too, but we have to prep the system slightly by writing $$\psi = E_\rho + j E_\phi$$, which gives

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:120}
\spacegrad^2 \psi – \frac{\psi}{\rho^2} + \frac{2 j}{\rho^2} \PD{\phi}{\psi} = -\beta^2 \psi,
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:140}
\inv{\rho} \PD{\rho}{} \lr{ \rho \PD{\rho}{\psi}} + \inv{\rho^2}\PDSq{\phi}{\psi} + \PDSq{z}{\psi}
– \frac{\psi}{\rho^2} + \frac{2 j}{\rho^2} \PD{\phi}{\psi} = -\beta^2 \psi.
\end{equation}

With a separation of variables substitution $$\psi = f(\rho) g(\phi) h(z)$$ this gives

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:160}
\inv{\rho f} \PD{\rho}{} \lr{ \rho \PD{\rho}{f}}
+ \inv{\rho^2 g}\PDSq{\phi}{g}
+ \inv{z} \PDSq{z}{h}
– \frac{1}{\rho^2} + \frac{2 j}{\rho^2 g} \PD{\phi}{g} = -\beta^2.
\end{equation}

Assuming a solution for the function $$h$$ of

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:180}
\inv{z} \PDSq{z}{h} = -\alpha^2,
\end{equation}

the PDE is reduced to an equation in two functions

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:200}
\inv{\rho f} \PD{\rho}{} \lr{ \rho \PD{\rho}{f}}
+ \inv{\rho^2 g}\PD{\phi}{} \lr{ g + 2 j g}
+ \beta^2 -\alpha^2
– \frac{1}{\rho^2}
= 0,
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:220}
\frac{\rho}{f} \PD{\rho}{} \lr{ \rho \PD{\rho}{f}}
+ \inv{g}\PD{\phi}{} \lr{ g + 2 j g}
+ \lr{ \beta^2 -\alpha^2 }\rho^2
= 1.
\end{equation}

With the term in $$g$$ having only $$\phi$$ dependence, we can assume

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:240}
\inv{g}\PD{\phi}{} \lr{ g + 2 j g} = 1 – \gamma^2,
\end{equation}

for

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:cylindricalFieldSolution:260}
\frac{\rho}{f} \PD{\rho}{} \lr{ \rho \PD{\rho}{f}}
– \gamma^2
+ \lr{ \beta^2 -\alpha^2 }\rho^2
= 0.
\end{equation}

I’m not sure off hand if these can be solved in known special functions, especially since the constants in the mix are complex.

# References

 Constantine A Balanis. Advanced engineering electromagnetics, volume 20. Wiley New York, 1989.

## Updated notes for ece1229 antenna theory I’ve now posted a first update of my notes for the antenna theory course that I am taking this term at UofT.

Unlike most of the other classes I have taken, I am not attempting to take comprehensive notes for this class. The class is taught on slides which go by faster than I can easily take notes for (and some of which match the textbook closely). In class I have annotated my copy of textbook with little details instead. This set of notes contains musings of details that were unclear, or in some cases, details that were provided in class, but are not in the text (and too long to pencil into my book), as well as some notes Geometric Algebra formalism for Maxwell’s equations with magnetic sources (something I’ve encountered for the first time in any real detail in this class).

The notes compilation linked above includes all of the following separate notes, some of which have been posted separately on this blog:

## Parallel projection of electromagnetic fields with Geometric Algebra

When computing the components of a polarized reflecting ray that were parallel or not-parallel to the reflecting surface, it was found that the electric and magnetic fields could be written as

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:280}
\BE = \lr{ \BE \cdot \pcap } \pcap + \lr{ \BE \cdot \qcap } \qcap = E_\parallel \pcap + E_\perp \qcap
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:300}
\BH = \lr{ \BH \cdot \pcap } \pcap + \lr{ \BH \cdot \qcap } \qcap = H_\parallel \pcap + H_\perp \qcap.
\end{equation}

where a unit vector $$\pcap$$ that lies both in the reflecting plane and in the electromagnetic plane (tangential to the wave vector direction) was

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:340}
\pcap = \frac{\kcap \cross \ncap}{\Abs{\kcap \cross \ncap}}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:360}
\qcap = \kcap \cross \pcap.
\end{equation}

Here $$\qcap$$ is perpendicular to $$\pcap$$ but lies in the electromagnetic plane. This logically subdivides the fields into two pairs, one with the electric field parallel to the reflection plane

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:240}
\begin{aligned}
\BE_1 &= \lr{ \BE \cdot \pcap } \pcap = E_\parallel \pcap \\
\BH_1 &= \lr{ \BH \cdot \qcap } \qcap = H_\perp \qcap,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

and one with the magnetic field parallel to the reflection plane

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:380}
\begin{aligned}
\BH_2 &= \lr{ \BH \cdot \pcap } \pcap = H_\parallel \pcap \\
\BE_2 &= \lr{ \BE \cdot \qcap } \qcap = E_\perp \qcap.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Expressed in Geometric Algebra form, each of these pairs of fields should be thought of as components of a single multivector field. That is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:400}
F_1 = \BE_1 + c \mu_0 \BH_1 I
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:460}
F_2 = \BE_2 + c \mu_0 \BH_2 I
\end{equation}

where the original total field is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:420}
F = \BE + c \mu_0 \BH I.
\end{equation}

In \ref{eqn:gaFieldProjection:400} we have a composite projection operation, finding the portion of the electric field that lies in the reflection plane, and simultaneously finding the component of the magnetic field that lies perpendicular to that (while still lying in the tangential plane of the electromagnetic field). In \ref{eqn:gaFieldProjection:460} the magnetic field is projected onto the reflection plane and a component of the electric field that lies in the tangential (to the wave vector direction) plane is computed.

If we operate only on the complete multivector field, can we find these composite projection field components in a single operation, instead of working with the individual electric and magnetic fields?

Working towards this goal, it is worthwhile to point out consequences of the assumption that the fields are plane wave (or equivalently far field spherical waves). For such a wave we have

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:480}
\begin{aligned}
\BH
&= \inv{\mu_0} \kcap \cross \BE \\
&= \inv{\mu_0} (-I)\lr{ \kcap \wedge \BE } \\
&= \inv{\mu_0} (-I)\lr{ \kcap \BE – \kcap \cdot \BE} \\
&= -\frac{I}{\mu_0} \kcap \BE,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

or

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:520}
\mu_0 \BH I = \kcap \BE.
\end{equation}

This made use of the identity $$\Ba \wedge \Bb = I \lr{\Ba \cross \Bb}$$, and the fact that the electric field is perpendicular to the wave vector direction. The total multivector field is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:500}
\begin{aligned}
F
&= \BE + c \mu_0 \BH I \\
&= \lr{ 1 + c \kcap } \BE.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

Expansion of magnetic field component that is perpendicular to the reflection plane gives

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:540}
\begin{aligned}
\mu_0 H_\perp
&= \mu_0 \BH \cdot \qcap \\
&= \gpgradezero{ \lr{-\kcap \BE I} \qcap } \\
&= -\gpgradezero{ \kcap \BE I \lr{ \kcap \cross \pcap} } \\
&= \gpgradezero{ \kcap \BE I I \lr{ \kcap \wedge \pcap} } \\
&= -\gpgradezero{ \kcap \BE \kcap \pcap } \\
&= \gpgradezero{ \kcap \kcap \BE \pcap } \\
&= \BE \cdot \pcap,
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

so

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:560}
F_1
= (\pcap + c I \qcap ) \BE \cdot \pcap.
\end{equation}

Since $$\qcap \kcap \pcap = I$$, the component of the complete multivector field in the $$\pcap$$ direction is

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:580}
\begin{aligned}
F_1
&= (\pcap – c \pcap \kcap ) \BE \cdot \pcap \\
&= \pcap (1 – c \kcap ) \BE \cdot \pcap \\
&= (1 + c \kcap ) \pcap \BE \cdot \pcap.
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

It is reasonable to expect that $$F_2$$ has a similar form, but with $$\pcap \rightarrow \qcap$$. This is verified by expansion

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:600}
\begin{aligned}
F_2
&= E_\perp \qcap + c \lr{ \mu_0 H_\parallel } \pcap I \\
&= \lr{\BE \cdot \qcap} \qcap + c \gpgradezero{ – \kcap \BE I \kcap \qcap I } \lr{\kcap \qcap I} I \\
&= \lr{\BE \cdot \qcap} \qcap + c \gpgradezero{ \kcap \BE \kcap \qcap } \kcap \qcap (-1) \\
&= \lr{\BE \cdot \qcap} \qcap + c \gpgradezero{ \kcap \BE (-\qcap \kcap) } \kcap \qcap (-1) \\
&= \lr{\BE \cdot \qcap} \qcap + c \gpgradezero{ \kcap \kcap \BE \qcap } \kcap \qcap \\
&= \lr{ 1 + c \kcap } \qcap \lr{ \BE \cdot \qcap }
\end{aligned}
\end{equation}

This and \ref{eqn:gaFieldProjection:580} before that makes a lot of sense. The original field can be written

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:620}
F = \lr{ \Ecap + c \lr{ \kcap \cross \Ecap } I } \BE \cdot \Ecap,
\end{equation}

where the leading multivector term contains all the directional dependence of the electric and magnetic field components, and the trailing scalar has the magnitude of the field with respect to the reference direction $$\Ecap$$.

We have the same structure after projecting $$\BE$$ onto either the $$\pcap$$, or $$\qcap$$ directions respectively

\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:660}
F_1 = \lr{ \pcap + c \lr{ \kcap \cross \pcap } I} \BE \cdot \pcap
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}\label{eqn:gaFieldProjection:680}
F_2 = \lr{ \qcap + c \lr{ \kcap \cross \qcap } I} \BE \cdot \qcap.
\end{equation}

The next question is how to achieve this projection operation directly in terms of $$F$$ and $$\pcap, \qcap$$, without resorting to expression of $$F$$ in terms of $$\BE$$, and $$\BB$$. I’ve not yet been able to determine the structure of that operation.
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