But does it follow that the same causes would of themselves produce the same results, if they were put into operation elsewhere; and if the country is no adequate substitute for laws and manners, can laws and manners in their turn prove a substitute for the country?
Baina ondorioztatzen al da hortik kausa hauek berauek beste edonora eramanda gaitasun bera izango luketela, eta herrialdeak ezin baditu legeak eta ohiturak ordeztu, hauek badezaketela hura ordeztu?