<prompt> Human: I dont know if this is the right subreddit but in February my girlfriend was given permission to drive her friends car and was hit by a woman who ran a stop sign. The woman walked out of her car and went to the hospital. So my girlfriend had a court case and they only made her pay for the destruction of the stop sign. Today she gets a text at 10pm from the guy not the insurance saying that the insurance covered as much as they can but SHE will owe them around 7500 or else she will have a tax lien and wont be able to register a vehicle or collect tax returns.So wouldnt permissive use make it HIS problem not hers? Also why wouldnt the insurance call her about it? Does this sound like bullshit? Someone please help!  <response>: If the woman ran the stop sign, the womans insurance pays. Why did your girlfriend have a case against her? If she was the one at fault, then in many states, yes, permissive use applies. In that case his insurance policy pays up to the policy limits. Your gf would owe past that if she was at fault. 