<prompt> Human: Lets say you have a 200,000 15 year home mortgage and you only have 20,000 left to pay. Now lets say you go bankruptlose job and can not longer make payments. All remedies are exhausted and the bank takes legal action and forecloses on your house.What happens to the 180,000 this person paid in to the house? Does the owner still have any stake in the equity of the house?After the bank forecloses lets say the bank sells the house 200,000 to recoup their money, will they only be allowed to keep the remaining 20,000 from the original mortgage and be forced to give the 180,000 back to the person who had the mortgage or is the bank free and clear with a 180,000 mortgage payment AND a 200,000 sale?TDLR: Does the original mortgage holder have any rights to any of the foreclosure sale proceeds?Assistant: the bank sells the house 200,000 to recoup their money, will they only be allowed to keep the remaining 20,000 from the original mortgage and be forced to give the 180,000 back to the person who had the mortgageThis is correct. The issue here is that you are expecting the bank to sell the home at face value. The bank can sell it for 30k, take the 20k they have right to whatever fees came with the foreclosure and hand you 10k only.Human: Still not answering the question, does the original mortgage holder have any rights to any of the sale proceeds?  <response>: He literally just answered that exact question! The answer is yes, Im just going to leave it at that. 