<prompt> Human: Howdy,I am going through a nasty divorce. We are arguing over what color the sky is at this point. I owned a rental property in another state TX prior to my marriage. I sold the rental property after the ex-wife left and divorce papers were filed CA. The exwife is claiming that since community funds were used to pay for the mortgage and repairs to the house, she is entitled to half of the proceeds. My claim is that the rent on the house paid for the mortgage and most of the repairs on its own. If you take the payments received for the entirety of our marriage, and subtract the total expenses from the entirety of our marriage, without including the depreciation, the total is a loss of roughly 6000. However, if I include depreciation, the loss is 48,000. The house was sold in 2013.My question is, does the exwife get to include the depreciation as community money used to pay the debt? The loss each year we had one was a tax benefit, that she obviously benefited from.Anyone know?  <response>: This is an incredibly complicated legal question... You had property in a non-community property state while married in a community property state and the property was owned prior to the marriage, but the mortgage and repairs were paid during the marriage and the property ended up taking a loss... Holy fuck, this is a question you would get in a test in law school.TL;DR Ask a lawyer. 