<prompt> What is the treatment of choice for 70 years old male patient who presented with peritonitis secondary to ruptured diveiculitis ?ConservativePrimary resection and anastomosisHamanns procedureWhipple procedure  <response>: TOC in elderly patient is Hamanns procedure Procedure: sigmoid resection with formation of left iliac fossa colostomy and closure of the rectal stump Resection with colonic washout and anastomosis can be considered in young fit patient without gross contamination or overwhelming sepsis 