<prompt> A 23-year old patient diagnosed with stage IA malignant ovarian germ cell tumor. Which of the following would be the standard treatment-Unilateral oophorectomyBilateral oophorectomy and hysterectomyUnilateral oophorectomy followed by chemotherapyOvarian biopsy followed by chemotherapy  <response>: Approximately 50 to 70 of Germ cell malignancies are stage 1. Since she is a young patient, Feility-sparing surgery USO is done Almost All germ cell malignancies require Postoperative Chemotherapy. 