<prompt> A 12-year-old boy complains of swelling of his feet for the past 3 weeks. He is otherwise healthy, with no known previous illness. Vital signs are normal. Physical examination reveals pitting edema of the lower legs and a swollen abdomen. Urinalysis shows 4 protein but no RBCs or WBCs. Which of the following are the most likely diagnoses to consider in your evaluation of this patient?Henoch-Schonlein purpura, lupus nephritisMalignant hypertension, renal vein thrombosisMinimal change disease, focal segmental glomerulosclerosisPyelonephritis, acute tubular necrosis  <response>: Minimal change glomerulopathy causes 90 of the nephrotic syndrome in young children and 15 in adults. Proteinuria is generally more selective albumin globulins than in the nephrotic syndrome caused by other diseases, but there is too much overlap for this selectivity to be used as a diagnostic criterion. This disease is characterized pathologically by fusion effacement of visceral epithelial foot processes; however, this can be visualized only by electron microscopy. Minimal change glomerulopathy is successfully treated with corticosteroids and does not progress to renal failure. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis FSGS is the cause of nephrotic syndrome in 10 of children and 30 of adults. FSGS is the term applied to a heterogeneous group of glomerular diseases that have different causes, including mutations, viruses, drugs, and serum factors. Henoch-Schonlein purpura and lupus nephritis choice A generally present with nephritic syndrome and rash, among other signs and symptoms. Wilms tumor choice E is not a cause of nephrotic syndrome.Diagnosis: Minimal change nephrotic syndrome 