<prompt> A 32-year-old female with diabetes visits antenatal clinic at 6 weeks of amenorrhea. She has not been on any treatment. What is the first step in the management?Start InsulinStart diet modificationPerform HbA1cPerform PPBs  <response>: Ans. is c, i.e. Perform HbA1cThe first step is to do HbA1c to check her glucose status and assess the risk of fetal congenital malformations. 