<prompt> Which of the following statements about Mollaret meningitis is true?Caused by Herpes simplex 2 in most of the cases.Is a recurrent, benign septic meningitisIs also referred to as Benign Recurrent Neutrophilic MeningitisDoes not resolve without treatment  <response>: Answer is A Caused by Herpes simplex 2 in most of the cases: Mollarets Meningitis is a form of Self-limiting Benign Recurrent Aseptic Lymphocvtic Meningitis that is most commonly caused by HSV-2 infection of the CNS. Several etiologies have been proposed for Mollarets Meningitis however recent studies suggest that most cases of Mollarets Meningitis result from Herpes Simplex Virus -2 HSV-2 infection Mollarets Meningitis It is the name given to a Self-Limited Recurrent form of Aseptic Meningitis It is also referred to as Benign Recurrent Lymphocytic Meningitis Recurrent episodes typically 3 episodes of meningismus and fever lasting for 2-5 days with spontaneous resolution is highly suggestive of a diagnosis of Mollarets Meningitis CSF Examination is characterized by a cloudy spinal fluid with lymphocytic pleocytosis and normal glucose and protein. Presence of large granular cells on Papanicolaous stain of the CSF called Mollarets Cells is considered pathognomonic Mollarets cells were once thought to be endothelial cells but are now believed to be from the monocyte macrophage family Several etiologies. have been proposed for Mollarets Meningitis however recent studies suggest that most cases of Mollaret Meningitis result from Herpes Simplex Virus -2 HSV-2 infection Presence of HSV DNA on PCR is highly suggestive of Mollarets Meningitis In most cases HSV-2 DNA is detected It is not associated with genital herpetic lesions 