<prompt> A 12-year-old boy with a femur fracture after a motor vehicle collision undergoes operative repair. After induction of anesthesia, he develops a fever of 40degC 104degF, shaking rigors, and blood-tinged urine. Which of the following is the best treatment option?Alkalinization of the urine, administration of mannitol, and continuation with the procedureAdministration of dantrolene sodium and continuation with the procedureAdministration of dantrolene sodium and termination of the procedureAdministration of intravenous steroids and an antihistamine agent with continuation of the procedure  <response>: The patient is manifesting symptoms of malignant hypehermia fevers, rigors, and myoglobinuria, which is treated by administration of dantrolene, immediate discontinuation of offending medication which can include succinylcholine or halothanebased inhalational anesthetics, and suppoive cooling measures. While urine alkalinization, loop diuretics, and mannitol are appropriate treatment measures for rhabdomyolysis, the underlying problem in this patient is malignant hypehermia, which, because of its associated moality of 30 in severe cases, should be treated first and foremost. Malignant hypehermia is not a manifestation of anaphylactic shock, and therefore steroids and antihistamines have no role in its treatment. 