<prompt> A 7-year-old boy presents with palpable non-blanching rash starting 3 days back from the ankles and involves lower limbs and buttocks. He had viral URTI previously. BP is normal and KFT is normal. What is the diagnosis?Henoch-Schonlein purpuraMeningococcemiaHemolytic uremic syndromeCutis marmorata  <response>: Ans. a Henoch-Schonlein purpura. The presence of normal KFT and normal BP means GFR is unaffected. With purpura involving the ankles, lower limbs following a URTI, IgA deposition in dermal blood vessels indicates the presence of Henoch-schonlein purpura. Hemolytic uremic syndrome is ruled out due to normal KFT.Image source. stylefont-size: 1.04761904761905em; color: rgba0, 0, 0, 1; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 8pt 