<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 51-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-day history of progressive pain, excessive tearing, and blurry vision of his right eye. He first noticed his symptoms last evening while he was watching a movie at a theater. His left eye is asymptomatic. He wears contact lenses. He has atopic dermatitis treated with topical hydrocortisone. His temperature is 37C 98.6F, pulse is 85min, and blood pressure is 13575 mm Hg. Examination shows a visual acuity in the left eye of 2025 and 2040 in the right eye. The right eye shows conjunctival injection and an edematous cornea with a whitish exudate at the bottom of the anterior chamber. Fluorescein staining shows a round corneal infiltrate. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?? A: Topical ketorolac and artificial tears, B: Topical ofloxacin, C: Topical timolol and pilocarpine, D: Topical prednisolone, E: Topical ganciclovir,  <response>: This is a patient with symptoms of acute unilateral conjunctivitis and corneal ulcer in the right eye. The description of a round corneal infiltrate with fluorescein staining indicates a bacterial corneal ulcer. The most appropriate pharmacotherapy for a bacterial corneal ulcer is a topical antibiotic, in this case topical ofloxacin. Ketorolac is an NSAID for pain and inflammation. Artificial tears provide lubrication but do not treat the underlying infection. Timolol is a beta blocker for glaucoma. Pilocarpine is a cholinergic agonist for glaucoma. Prednisolone is a topical steroid that could worsen the infection. Ganciclovir is an antiviral medication.B: Topical ofloxacin 