<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 38-year-old woman undergoes a diagnostic hysteroscopy for a 6-month history of small volume intermenstrual bleeding with no other complaints. There is no history of pelvic pain, painful intercourse, or vaginal discharge other than blood. During the procedure, a red beefy pedunculated mass is seen arising from the endometrium of the anterior wall of the uterus that has well-demarcated borders. This mass is resected and sent for histopathological examination. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Endometrial polyp, B: Endometrial carcinoma, C: Uterine leiomyoma, D: Uterine adenomyosis, E: Endometrial hyperplasia,  <response>: Based on the details provided in the question stem, the most relevant information is that the patient is a 38-year-old woman with a 6-month history of light intermenstrual bleeding and no other symptoms. During hysteroscopy, a red pedunculated mass was seen arising from the endometrium. This description is most consistent with an endometrial polyp, which commonly presents as a pedunculated mass arising from the endometrium and can cause irregular vaginal bleeding. Endometrial carcinoma would be less likely in a 38-year-old woman with no other symptoms. A uterine leiomyoma arises from the myometrium rather than the endometrium. Adenomyosis and endometrial hyperplasia do not typically present as a pedunculated mass.A: Endometrial polyp 