<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 14-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents for joint pain following the acute onset of a diffuse, pruritic rash for the past 24 hours. A week ago, he was diagnosed with pharyngitis after returning home from summer camp and is currently taking antibiotics. There is no family history of serious illness. His temperature is 38.5C 101.3F, pulse is 90min, and blood pressure is 11070 mm Hg. Physical examination shows periorbital edema, generalized lymphadenopathy, and well-circumscribed, erythematous, confluent skin lesions of variable sizes up to several centimeters in width over his entire body. There is pain on passive movement of wrists and ankle joints bilaterally. Urine dipstick shows 1 proteinuria. There is no hematuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Switch medication to doxycycline, B: Discontinue antibiotic, C: Administer prednisone, D: Perform allergy testing, E: Administer diphenhydraminen,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 14-year-old boy with acute onset of a rash, joint pain, fever, lymphadenopathy and periorbital edema after being diagnosed with pharyngitis and started on antibiotics. The rash is described as erythematous, confluent and pruritic. He also has proteinuria on urinalysis. This presentation is most consistent with an acute hypersensitivity reactiondrug rash secondary to the antibiotics the patient is taking for his pharyngitis. Discontinuing the offending antibiotic is the most appropriate initial step in management rather than switching antibiotics or starting steroids. Allergy testing and antihistamines may be considered as additional measures but discontinuing the antibiotic is the priority.B: Discontinue antibiotic 