<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 30-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a painful rash for 2 days. The rash initially appeared on his left lower abdomen and has spread to the rest of the abdomen and left upper thigh over the last 24 hours. Pain is exacerbated with movement. He initially thought the skin rash was an allergic reaction to a new laundry detergent, but it did not respond to over-the-counter antihistamines. Six weeks ago, the patient was diagnosed with Hodgkins lymphoma and was started on doxorubicin, bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine. He is sexually active with one female partner and uses condoms for contraception. His temperature is 37.9C 100.2F, pulse is 80min, and blood pressure is 11772 mm Hg. Examination shows two markedly enlarged cervical lymph nodes. A photograph of the rash is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Outpatient treatment with oral penicillin V, B: Inpatient treatment with oral ivermectin, C: Outpatient treatment with topical permethrin, D: Inpatient treatment with intravenous acyclovir, E: Inpatient treatment with intravenous ceftriaxonen,  <response>: This is a patient with Hodgkins lymphoma who is on chemotherapy and now presents with a painful rash. The differential diagnosis includes infection, drug reaction, or progression of lymphoma. The rash morphology and distribution are consistent with herpes zoster shingles. In an immunocompromised patient, herpes zoster should be treated with intravenous acyclovir to prevent dissemination. Oral antibiotics like penicillin would not cover herpes zoster. Ivermectin and permethrin are used for parasitic infections and would not be appropriate. Hospitalization for intravenous acyclovir is the best initial management.D: Inpatient treatment with intravenous acyclovir 