<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 65-year-old man comes to the physician because of increasing swelling of the legs and face over the past 2 months. He has a history of diastolic heart dysfunction. The liver and spleen are palpable 4 cm below the costal margin. On physical examination, both lower limbs show significant pitting edema extending above the knees and to the pelvic area. Laboratory studies show:SerumCholesterol 350 mgdL 200 mgdLTriglycerides 290 mgdL 35160 mgdLCalcium 8 mgdLAlbumin 2.8 gdLUrea nitrogen 54 mgdLCreatinine 2.5 mgdLUrineBlood 3Protein 4RBC 1517hpfWBC 12hpfRBC casts ManyEchocardiography shows concentrically thickened ventricles with diastolic dysfunction. Skeletal survey shows no osteolytic lesions. Which of the following best explains these findings?? A: AL amyloidosis, B: Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance, C: Smoldering multiple myeloma, D: Symptomatic multiple myeloma, E: Waldenstroms macroglobulinemia,  <response>: This is a clinical case of a 65-year-old man with edema, organomegaly, renal dysfunction, and abnormal laboratory findings. The key findings are hypoalbuminemia, renal dysfunction with proteinuria and RBC casts, and increased cholesterol and triglycerides. The hypoalbuminemia along with edema suggests a disorder causing loss of plasma proteins. The renal dysfunction and urine findings point towards a glomerular process causing nephrotic syndrome. The increased lipids are also typical of nephrotic syndrome. The differential diagnosis includes conditions causing nephrotic syndrome and paraproteinemias. The lack of lytic bone lesions makes multiple myeloma less likely. The findings are most consistent with AL amyloidosis causing kidney involvement and nephrotic syndrome.A: AL amyloidosis 