<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 17-year-old girl presents to an urgent care clinic after waking up in the morning with a left-sided facial droop and an inability to fully close her left eye. Of note, she is currently on oral contraceptives and escitalopram and smokes half a pack of cigarettes per day. Her temperature is 98.2F 36.8C, blood pressure is 11068 mmHg, pulse is 82min, and respirations are 12min. On exam, she has generalized, unilateral left-sided drooping of her upper and lower face, and an inability to move the left side of her mouth or close her left eye. Her extraocular movements and swallow are intact. She has no other neurologic deficits. Which of the following interventions would most likely address the most likely cause of this patients symptoms?? A: Head CT without contrast, B: Implantation of gold weight for eyelid, C: Intravenous immunoglobulin, D: Prednisone alone, E: Valacyclovir alone,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 17-year-old girl with acute onset unilateral facial droop and inability to close the left eye, concerning for Bells palsy. The question asks to identify the most appropriate intervention to address the most likely cause of her symptoms.Based on the acute presentation and physical exam findings of unilateral facial nerve palsy, the most likely diagnosis is Bells palsy. The mainstay of treatment is corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and swelling of the facial nerve. Valacyclovir may also be added as some cases may be triggered by herpes simplex virus infection. Imaging and eyelid weights are not indicated acutely. IVIG may be considered in severe cases not responding to steroids. Prednisone alone is the most appropriate initial treatment choice.D: Prednisone alone 