<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 27-year old primigravid woman at 37 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department because of frequent contractions for 4 hours. Her pregnancy has been complicated by hyperemesis gravidarum which subsided in the second trimester. The contractions occur every 1015 minutes and have been increasing in intensity and duration since onset. Her temperature is 37.1C 98.8F, pulse is 110min, and blood pressure is 14085 mm Hg. Uterine contractions are felt on palpation. Pelvic examination shows clear fluid in the vagina. The cervix is 50 effaced and 3 cm dilated. After 4 hours the cervix is 80 effaced and 6 cm dilated. Pelvic examination is inconclusive for the position of the fetal head. The fetal heart rate is reassuring. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?? A: Perform ultrasonography, B: Perform external cephalic version, C: Administer misoprostol, D: Administer oxytocin, E: Perform Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit maneuver,  <response>: This is a question about managing labor in a pregnant woman who is near term and in active labor. The key findings are that she is 37 weeks pregnant, having regular contractions every 10-15 minutes that are increasing in intensity and duration, fetal heart rate is reassuring, and she is progressing in dilation from 3 cm to 6 cm over 4 hours. The goal is to identify the most appropriate next step in managing her labor. Since she is near term, in active labor and progressing well, no intervention is needed to augment or induce labor. Fetal positioning is unknown so external cephalic version would not be appropriate. The most appropriate next step is expectant management with close monitoring of maternal status, fetal heart rate and progress of labor.A: Perform ultrasonography 