<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 17-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents to clinic with a rash Image A that he noticed one week after starting a medication to stabilize his mood. The medication blocks voltage-gated sodium channels and can be used to treat partial simple, partial complex, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Regarding the patients rash, what is the next step in management?? A: Reassure the patient that it is normal to have a rash in the first week and to continue the drug as directed, B: Begin diphenhydramine and continue the drug as directed, C: Begin a short course of oral steroids and continue the drug as directed, D: Decrease the dose by 50 and continue, E: Immediately discontinue the drug,  <response>: This is a patient with a history of bipolar disorder who developed a rash one week after starting a new medication to stabilize his mood. Based on the description, the medication is likely an anticonvulsant that blocks sodium channels, such as lamotrigine. The rash developed in the first week, which raises concern for a hypersensitivity reaction or Stevens-Johnson syndrome. The next step should be to discontinue the medication immediately, as continuing the drug could worsen the reaction. Reassuring the patient, adding an antihistamine, or decreasing the dose would not be appropriate. Oral steroids could potentially treat the rash but the underlying cause is the new medication, so it should be stopped.E: Immediately discontinue the drug 