<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 30-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider complaining of intermittent fever and loss of appetite for the past 2 weeks. She is also concerned about painful genital lesions. Past medical history is noncontributory. She takes oral contraceptives and a multivitamin daily. She has had two male sexual partners in her lifetime and uses condoms inconsistently. She admits to being sexually active with 2 partners in the last 3 months and only using condoms on occasion. Today, her vitals are normal. On pelvic exam, there are red-rimmed, fluid-filled blisters over the labia minora as seen in the photograph below with swollen and tender inguinal lymph nodes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis of this patient?? A: Syphilis, B: Condyloma acuminata, C: Gonorrhea, D: Genital herpes, E: Trichomoniasis,  <response>: Based on the information provided in the question stem, the key findings are:- 30-year-old woman with intermittent fever, loss of appetite, and painful genital lesions over the past 2 weeks- Sexually active with 2 partners in the last 3 months, inconsistent condom use- On pelvic exam: red-rimmed, fluid-filled blisters over the labia minora with swollen and tender inguinal lymph nodes- No other significant medical historyThis presentation is most consistent with genital herpes. The painful genital lesions described as fluid-filled blisters are characteristic of herpes simplex virus HSV infection. The lymphadenopathy also supports this diagnosis. Gonorrhea and syphilis would not present with vesicular lesions. Condyloma acuminata genital warts also would not cause constitutional symptoms like fever and loss of appetite. Trichomoniasis may cause some irritation but not the vesicular lesions described.D: Genital herpes 