<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 5-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother for a 6-week history of fatigue, fever, and recurrent epistaxis. She has a history of duodenal atresia and an atrioventricular septal defect. She is at the 5th percentile for height and 30th percentile for weight. Physical examination shows painless cervical lymphadenopathy. Her hands are short and broad and there is a space between the first and second toes bilaterally. The spleen tip is palpated 3 cm below the left costal margin. Bone marrow aspirate shows leukocytosis with 50 lymphoblasts. Which of the following best explains this patients condition?? A: Meiotic nondisjunction, B: Deletion of a chromosome segment, C: Uniparental disomy, D: Trinucleotide repeat expansion, E: Unbalanced Robertsonian translocation,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 5-year-old girl with a 6-week history of fatigue, fever, recurrent nosebleeds, short stature, lymphadenopathy, broad hands with sandal gap toes, and splenomegaly. She also has a history of congenital heart and gastrointestinal defects. Her bone marrow shows leukemic blasts. The key findings here are a constellation of congenital anomalies, dysmorphic features, short stature, and leukemia, which are classic for Down syndrome. Down syndrome is caused by trisomy 21, most commonly from meiotic nondisjunction.The other answer choices describe various genetic abnormalities but do not fit with the clinical presentation described.A: Meiotic nondisjunction 