<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 70-year-old man is brought to the emergency room with complaints of severe substernal chest pain for the last hour. The pain started suddenly, and the patient describes the pain as going into the shoulder. The patient took aspirin at home and has been given multiple doses of sublingual nitroglycerin, but the pain has not subsided. He has a blood pressure of 11284 mm Hg, the pulse is 63min, the respiratory rate is 18min, and the temperature is 36.9C 98.0F. Cardiac auscultation reveals normal S1 and S2 sounds, however, an additional S4 sound is heard. The patient is sweating profusely, and the lungs are clear to auscultation. No jugular venous distension or pedal edema is observed. His initial ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which of the following will likely have the most benefit in this patient?? A: Antiarrhythmics, B: Beta blockers, C: Clopidogrel, D: Thrombolytics, E: Percutaneous coronary intervention,  <response>: This is a patient with acute ST elevation myocardial infarction STEMI based on the clinical presentation of severe chest pain radiating to the shoulder, diaphoresis, ST elevation on ECG, and risk factors older age, male. The goal is to reperfuse the occluded coronary artery as soon as possible to limit myocardial damage. Thrombolytics can lyse the clot and restore blood flow, but percutaneous coronary intervention PCI is more effective and is the treatment of choice if it can be performed in a timely manner. Antiarrhythmics, beta blockers, and clopidogrel may be used as adjunctive therapy but do not address the underlying issue of the occluded artery.E: Percutaneous coronary intervention 