<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 6-year-old boy is brought to the physician because he has a limp for 3 weeks. He was born at term and has been healthy since. His immunization are up-to-date; he received his 5th DTaP vaccine one month ago. He is at 50th percentile for height and weight. His temperature is 37C 98.6F, pulse is 80min and respirations are 28min. When asked to stand only on his right leg, the left pelvis sags. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?? A: L5 radiculopathy, B: Damage to the left inferior gluteal nerve, C: Spinal abscess, D: Damage to the right common peroneal nerve, E: Damage to the right superior gluteal nerve,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 6-year-old boy with a 3 week history of limping. He recently received a DTaP vaccine one month ago. On exam, he has no fever and vital signs are normal, but he sags on the left side when standing only on his right leg. The key finding is that he sags on the left side when standing only on the right leg. This indicates a weakness or injury on the left side. The choices describe different nerve injuries. Based on the unilateral left-sided findings, we can narrow it down to a nerve supplying the left lower extremity. L5 radiculopathy and spinal abscess are unlikely given the acute presentation after vaccination and lack of back pain. The left inferior gluteal nerve and right peroneal nerve injuries would not explain left-sided sagging. By process of elimination, a right superior gluteal nerve injury could cause left glutealpelvic weakness.E: Damage to the right superior gluteal nerve 