<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 3-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of a 3-day history of fever and chills. The mother reports that he has also been limping for 2 days. He has no history of trauma to this region. His temperature is 38.9C 102F. Physical examination shows dull tenderness over his left lower extremity. The range of motion of the leg is also limited by pain. While walking, he avoids putting weight on his left leg. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 67 mmh. An MRI is most likely to show abnormalities in which of the following regions?? A: Lumbar vertebral body, B: Proximal metaphysis of the femur, C: Proximal epiphysis of the femur, D: Diaphysis of the tibia, E: Acetabulum of the ilium,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 3-year-old boy with fever, chills, and left lower extremity pain and limping of 2 days duration. There is no history of trauma. Physical exam shows tenderness, limited range of motion, and avoidance of weight bearing in the left leg. Labs show an elevated ESR. The history and physical exam findings are consistent with an inflammatory process affecting the left lower extremity. The differential diagnosis includes septic arthritis, osteomyelitis, transient synovitis, and inflammatory arthropathies like juvenile idiopathic arthritis. An MRI would be used to localize the abnormality and distinguish between these etiologies. Of the answer choices, B - the proximal metaphysis of the femur - would be the most likely region to show abnormalities given the clinical presentation. The metaphysis is the region where the growth plate meets the shaft of the long bone, and is a common site of osteomyelitis in children. Septic arthritis could also affect the proximal femurhip joint. The other answers are less likely anatomical regions.B: Proximal metaphysis of the femur 