<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 27-year-old G1P0 woman at 25 weeks estimated gestational age presents with a blood pressure of 18899 mm Hg during a routine prenatal visit. She has no symptoms, except for a mild headache. The patients heart rate is 78min. An injectable antihypertensive along with a beta-blocker is administered, and her blood pressure returns to normal within a couple of hours. She is sent home with advice to continue the beta-blocker. The patient returns after a couple of weeks with joint pain in both of her knees and fatigue. A blood test for anti-histone antibodies is positive. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the intravenous antihypertensive medication most likely used in this patient?? A: Calcium channel antagonism, B: Potassium channel activation, C: Release endogenous nitrous oxide, D: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase enzyme, E: Interference with action of inositol trisphosphate IP3 on intracellular calcium release,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 27-year-old pregnant woman who presented with elevated blood pressure at 25 weeks gestation. She was treated acutely with an intravenous antihypertensive and discharged on a beta blocker. She later developed symptoms concerning for preeclampsia, and tested positive for anti-histone antibodies. The question asks about the mechanism of action of the intravenous antihypertensive used to acutely lower her blood pressure. The description of her acute blood pressure response and lack of reflex tachycardia suggests a direct vasodilator was used. Of the choices, calcium channel antagonists and nitrous oxide donors are direct vasodilators that could match this clinical scenario.E: Interference with action of inositol trisphosphate IP3 on intracellular calcium release 