<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain that started 1 hour ago. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes and hypertension as well as a 40 pack-year smoking history. His blood pressure is 10758 mmHg, pulse is 130min, respirations are 23min, and oxygen saturation is 98 on room air. An abdominal ultrasound demonstrates focal dilation of the aorta with peri-aortic fluid. Which of the following is the best next step in management?? A: Administer labetalol, B: Counsel the patient in smoking cessation, C: Emergent surgical intervention, D: Serial annual abdominal ultrasounds, E: Urgent surgery within the next day,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 67-year-old man with abdominal pain and imaging findings concerning for a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. Key findings include the acute onset of pain, history of smoking, hypotension, tachycardia, and ultrasound showing a dilated aorta with peri-aortic fluid. This presentation is most consistent with a ruptured AAA which requires emergent surgical intervention to prevent exsanguination. The other options of labetalol, smoking cessation, serial imaging, and delayed surgery are not appropriate initial management.C: Emergent surgical intervention 