<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 17-year-old girl is brought to the physician because she has not had a menstrual period. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Examination shows normal breast development. Pubic hair is coarse and extends to the inner surface of the thighs. Pelvic examination shows a blind vaginal pouch. Ultrasonography shows ovaries, but no uterus. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patients symptoms?? A: 17-alpha-hydroxylase enzyme deficiency, B: Müllerian duct agenesis, C: Androgen insensitivity, D: Pure gonadal dysgenesis, E: Failure of Müllerian duct recanalizationn,  <response>: This is a clinical case of a 17-year-old girl with primary amenorrhea. Based on the information provided, she has normal secondary sexual characteristics breast development and pubic hair distribution which indicates normal estrogen production. The findings of blind vaginal pouch on pelvic exam and absent uterus on ultrasound are consistent with congenital malformation of the uterus. The key finding here is normal ovarian function evidenced by appropriate pubertal development, but congenital absence of the uterus. This narrows down the differential diagnosis.Choice A can be ruled out because 17-alpha-hydroxylase deficiency would lead to lack of estrogen production and delayed pubertal development. Choice C can be ruled out because androgen insensitivity would not explain the absent uterus.Choice D can be ruled out because pure gonadal dysgenesis would lead to lack of estrogen production and delayed pubertal development. Choice E can be ruled out because failure of Mullerian duct recanalization would not lead to complete agenesis of the uterus.Therefore, choice B - Mullerian duct agenesis - is the most likely diagnosis given the normal ovarian function but congenital absence of the uterus.B: Müllerian duct agenesis 