<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 36-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 35 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department for the evaluation of a sudden, painless, bright red vaginal bleeding for the last hour. She has had no prenatal care. Her third child was delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of a preterm breech presentation; her first two children were delivered vaginally. The patients pulse is 100min, respirations are 15min, and blood pressure is 10570 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft, nontender abdomen; no contractions are felt. There is blood on the vulva, the introitus, and on the medial aspect both thighs bilaterally. The fetus is in a cephalic presentation. The fetal heart rate is 140min. One hour later, the bleeding stops. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Uterine atony, B: Abruptio placentae, C: Latent phase of labor, D: Placenta previa, E: Uterine rupture,  <response>: This is a question about vaginal bleeding in late pregnancy. The key findings in the stem are:- 36-year-old woman, 35 weeks pregnant - Sudden, painless, bright red vaginal bleeding for 1 hour- No prenatal care- Prior c-section for breech presentation- Vital signs are normal- No contractions felt- Fetus in cephalic presentation- Fetal heart rate is normalThe differential diagnosis includes:- Placenta previa - painless bleeding is classic, and a prior c-section increases risk- Abruptio placentae - bleeding could be painless, but there are usually other signs like contractions or fetal distress- Uterine rupture - unlikely with no pain or fetal distress - Uterine atony - no contractions noted- Labor - could cause bleeding but would expect contractionsGiven the sudden painless bleeding and history of prior c-section, placenta previa is the most likely diagnosis.D: Placenta previa 