<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician because of painless lesions on the vulva that she first noticed 2 days ago. She does not have any urinary symptoms. She has gastroesophageal reflux disease for which she takes omeprazole. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 10 years. She is sexually active with multiple partners and uses condoms inconsistently. Examination shows clusters of several 3- to 5-mm raised lesions with a rough texture on the vulva. Application of a dilute acetic acid solution turns the lesions white. An HIV test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Parenteral benzathine penicillin, B: Cryotherapy, C: Topical mometasone, D: Radiotherapy, E: Oral acyclovir,  <response>: This is a patient with vulvar lesions that turn white with dilute acetic acid, which is characteristic of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus HPV infection. The patient has risk factors of multiple sexual partners and inconsistent condom use. The most appropriate next step is to treat the warts. Cryotherapy is an effective first-line treatment for genital warts. The other options are not recommended for genital warts. Penicillin treats syphilis but not HPV. Topical steroids like mometasone treat inflammation but not the underlying HPV infection. Radiotherapy is too aggressive for benign warts. Acyclovir treats herpes simplex virus but not HPV.B: Cryotherapy 