<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 35-year-old female presents to your office with complaints of painful bleeding between regular menstrual cycles, pain during sexual intercourse, and postcoital bleeding for the past 6 months. She also gives a long history of mild, crampy, vague, lower abdominal pain, but has never sought medical attention. She underwent surgical sterilization after her first and only child 7 years ago with no other significant events in her medical history. The last Pap smear, 1 year ago, was reported as reactive inflammation and negative for malignancy. Upon pelvic examination, you note a mucopurulent discharge, cervical motion tenderness, and endocervical bleeding when passing a cotton swab through the cervical os. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Endometrial polyps, B: Endometritis, C: Ovulatory dysfunction, D: Ectropion, E: Endometriosis,  <response>: This is a clinical case scenario describing a 35-year-old female with symptoms of abnormal uterine bleeding, dyspareunia, and postcoital bleeding over the past 6 months. She also has a history of chronic pelvic pain. Her past medical history is significant for a tubal ligation 7 years ago. Her Pap smear from 1 year ago showed inflammation but no malignancy. On pelvic exam, she has findings of mucopurulent cervical discharge, cervical motion tenderness, and bleeding with endocervical swabbing. Based on the chronic pelvic pain, abnormal bleeding, and exam findings of mucopurulent discharge and cervical motion tenderness, the most likely diagnosis is pelvic inflammatory disease PIDendometritis. Ovulatory dysfunction would not cause the exam findings. Ectropion may cause postcoital bleeding but not the other symptoms. Endometriosis could cause chronic pelvic pain but would not explain the acute exam findings. Endometrial polyps may cause irregular bleeding but not the other exam findings.B: Endometritis 