<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 31-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a severe right-sided temporal headache with conjunctival swelling and anterior bulging of the left eye for 1 hour. The patient has had right-sided purulent nasal discharge and nasal congestion for the past 2 days. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. The patient does not smoke or drink alcohol. She takes no medications. She appears to be in acute distress. Her temperature is 40C 104F, pulse is 105min, and blood pressure is 12580 mm Hg. Examination shows bilateral ptosis. The pupils are equal and reactive to light; lateral gaze of the left eye is limited. Ophthalmic examination shows periorbital edema and chemosis of the left eye. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. The patient most likely requires treatment with which of the following?? A: Oral warfarin, B: Intranasal sumatriptan, C: Surgical debridement, D: Intravenous vancomycin, ceftriaxone, and metronidazole, E: Intravenous dihydroergotaminen,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 31-year-old woman with acute onset severe headache, conjunctival swelling and anterior bulging of the left eye, as well as purulent nasal discharge and congestion. The description of limited lateral gaze, periorbital edema, and chemosis of the left eye indicates likely orbital cellulitis. The patients symptoms, exam findings, and lack of significant past medical history point towards an acute bacterial sinus infection that has spread to involve the orbit on the left side. Orbital cellulitis is a serious condition that requires prompt intravenous antibiotic treatment and possible surgical drainage. D: Intravenous vancomycin, ceftriaxone, and metronidazole 