<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 54-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of two episodes of bright red blood per rectum within the past day. She has a history of migraine, which is treated prophylactically with verapamil. She appears well and is hemodynamically stable. Cardiac exam reveals a regular heart rate without any murmurs or gallops. Lungs are clear to auscultation. Her abdomen is mildly tender without rebound or guarding. Digital rectal examination shows fresh blood on the glove. Laboratory studies show:Hemoglobin 10.4 gdLLeukocyte count 5,000mm3Platelet count 175,000mm3Partial thromboplastin time 35 secondsSerumNa 140 mEqLK 3.7 mEqLCl- 101 mEqLHCO3- 25 mEqLMg2 1.8 mEqLA routine ECG shows a heart rate of 75min, a normal axis, PR interval of 280 ms, QRS interval of 80 ms with a QRS complex following each p wave, and no evidence of ischemic changes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management with respect to this patients cardiovascular workup?? A: Atropine therapy, B: Observation, C: Synchronized cardioversion, D: Metoprolol therapy, E: Pacemaker placement,  <response>: This is a multiple choice question about the appropriate next step in the cardiovascular workup of a 54-year-old woman with two episodes of bright red blood per rectum. The stem provides details about the patients history, physical exam findings, and relevant lab results. The ECG shows normal sinus rhythm without any ischemic changes. Based on the information provided, there are no signs of cardiovascular instability or arrhythmia that would require immediate intervention. The most likely cause of the rectal bleeding is a gastrointestinal source rather than a cardiovascular one. Therefore, the next step should be observation and further GI workup rather than any cardiovascular intervention.B: Observation 