<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 22-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 25 minutes after an episode of violent jerky movements of his arms and legs. He has no recollection of the episode. The episode lasted for 34 minutes. His girlfriend reports that he has not been sleeping well over the past month. He is only oriented to place and person. His temperature is 37C 98.6F, pulse is 99min, respirations are 18min, and blood pressure is 11080 mm Hg. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. A complete blood count as well as serum concentrations of glucose, electrolytes, and calcium are within the reference range. Urine toxicology screening is negative. An MRI of the brain shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Lorazepam, B: Lumbar puncture, C: Tilt table test, D: Electroencephalography, E: Lamotrigine,  <response>: This is a clinical case scenario describing a 22-year-old man who presented to the emergency department after an episode of jerky arm and leg movements lasting 3-4 minutes, which he does not remember. Important findings include recent sleep deprivation, disorientation, normal vital signs and neurological exam. Lab tests and MRI were unremarkable. The description of the episode is most consistent with a witnessed seizure, likely a tonic-clonic seizure. The next step would be to perform an EEG to look for epileptiform discharges and confirm the seizure diagnosis. Lumbar puncture and tilt table test would not be appropriate next steps. Lorazepam may be used to treat seizures acutely but is not the next diagnostic step. Lamotrigine is an anticonvulsant but should not be started without confirming the diagnosis with EEG.D: Electroencephalography 