<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because his neck was fixed in lateral flexion. For the past week, the patient has been complaining of low-grade fever, head pain, and neck pain. His partner has also noticed him behaving erratically. His family and personal medical history are not relevant. Upon admission, he is found with a body temperature of 38.6C 101.5F, and physical examination is unremarkable except for neck pain and fixed lateral flexion of the neck. He is confused, but there are no motor or sensory deficits. Deep tendon reflexes are accentuated. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain shows leptomeningeal and gyral enhancement. Which of the following explains this patients condition?? A: Genetic mutation, B: Exposure to D2-antagonists, C: Trochlear nerve palsy, D: Viral infection, E: Acid-fast resistant bacilli infection,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 42-year-old man with fever, headache, neck pain, confusion, and fixed lateral flexion of the neck. MRI shows leptomeningeal and gyral enhancement. The key findings are:- Fever and headache - suggests an infectious process- Neck pain and fixed lateral flexion - suggests meningeal irritationinflammation- Confusion with no motorsensory deficits - suggests encephalitis - Accentuated deep tendon reflexes - suggests central nervous system involvement- Leptomeningeal and gyral enhancement on MRI - confirms meningeal inflammationBased on the clinical presentation and MRI findings, this is most consistent with viral or bacterial meningitisencephalitis. The neck pain and fixed flexion suggests irritation of the meninges.Of the choices, a viral infection best explains this presentation. The other choices are less likely based on the provided information.D: Viral infection 