<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 34-year-old man with AIDS comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of decreasing vision and seeing black spots in his right eye. He has no pain and the left eye is asymptomatic. He was treated for fungal esophagitis 6 months ago with fluconazole. He was diagnosed with Kaposis sarcoma 2 years ago. Current medications include efavirenz, tenofovir, emtricitabine, azithromycin, trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, multivitamins, and a nutritional supplement. He is 170 cm 5 ft 7 in tall and weighs 45 kg 99 lbs;BMI is 15.6 kgm2. His temperature is 37C 98.6F, pulse is 89min, and blood pressure is 11070 mm Hg. Examination shows cervical lymphadenopathy. There are multiple violaceous plaques seen over his trunk and extremities. Fundoscopic examination shows granular yellow-white opacities around the retinal vessels and multiple areas of dot-blot hemorrhages. His CD4 T-lymphocyte count is 36mm3. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Cytomegalovirus retinitis, B: Herpes simplex keratitis, C: Toxoplasma retinitis, D: HIV retinopathy, E: Varicella zoster retinitis,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 34-year-old man with AIDS who presents with decreased vision and floaters in his right eye. Key findings include:- HIVAIDS diagnosis- Low CD4 count of 36mm3- History of fungal esophagitis and Kaposi sarcoma - Fundoscopic exam showing perivascular yellow-white opacities and dot-blot hemorrhagesThe differential diagnosis includes various opportunistic infections that can affect the retina in immunocompromised patients. Cytomegalovirus CMV is the most common cause of retinitis in AIDS patients. The fundoscopic findings of perivascular opacities and hemorrhages are classic for CMV retinitis. The other choices are less likely given the clinical scenario.A: Cytomegalovirus retinitis 