<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 7-year-old boy is brought to the physician for the evaluation of sore throat for the past 2 days. During this period, he has had intermittent nausea and has vomited once. The patient has no cough, hoarseness, or rhinorrhea. He had similar symptoms at the age of 5 years that resolved spontaneously. He is otherwise healthy. His temperature is 37.9C 100.2F, pulse is 85min, and blood pressure is 10870 mm Hg. Head and neck examination shows an erythematous pharynx with grayish exudates overlying the palatine tonsils. There is no lymphadenopathy. Rapid antigen detection test for group A streptococci is negative. Which of the following is most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?? A: Measurement of antistreptolysin O titer, B: Reassurance and follow-up in two weeks, C: Measurement of antiviral capsid antigen IgM antibody, D: Penicillin V therapy, E: Obtain throat culturen,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette about a 7-year-old boy with sore throat, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Important findings include erythematous pharynx with exudates on the tonsils, negative rapid strep test, and history of similar symptoms 2 years ago. The question asks for the most appropriate next step in management.Choice A tests for prior strep infection but does not help with current diagnosis. Choice B may be reasonable but more information is needed given concerning symptoms. Choice C tests for EBV which is less likely. Choice D treats empirically for strep without a definitive diagnosis. Choice E obtains a throat culture which is the best next step to identify the causative organism.E: Obtain throat culture 