<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 68-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. Over the past six months, he has had an increase in the frequency of his bowel movements and occasional bloody stools. He has hypertension, coronary artery disease, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. His current medications include aspirin, lisinopril, and salmeterol. His temperature is 37C 98.6F, pulse is 75min, and blood pressure is 12875 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. The abdomen is soft with no organomegaly. Digital rectal examination shows a large internal hemorrhoid. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?? A: Rubber band ligation, B: Barium enema, C: Colonoscopy, D: Capsule endoscopy, E: Hemorrhoidectomy,  <response>: This is a patient with a recent increase in bowel movement frequency and bloody stools. He has risk factors for colorectal cancer including age over 50 and long-term smoking history. The positive occult blood test is concerning for a source of bleeding in the colon. The most appropriate next step is colonoscopy to directly visualize the entire colon and identify any lesions that could be causing the bleeding. Barium enema has lower sensitivity than colonoscopy for detecting polyps and cancers. Capsule endoscopy does not image the colon. Hemorrhoidectomy treats hemorrhoids but does not evaluate the rest of the colon. Rubber band ligation treats internal hemorrhoids found on rectal exam but does not evaluate the colon. Colonoscopy is the best test to identify any colorectal abnormalities that could be causing this presentation.C: Colonoscopy 