<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 24-year-old man comes to the physician because of 2 episodes of bleeding from the rectum over the past month. The patients father died of colon cancer at the age of 42. The patient has no history of any serious illness and takes no medications. He does not smoke. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a small hard mass over the right mandible that is nontender and fixed to the underlying bone. A similarly hard and painless 5 × 5 mass is palpated over the rectus abdominis muscle. On examination of the rectum, a polypoid mass is palpated at fingertip. Proctosigmoidoscopy shows numerous polyps. Which of the following best explains these findings?? A: Familial polyposis of the colon, B: Gardners syndrome, C: Lynchs syndrome, D: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, E: Turcots syndrome,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 24-year-old man with a family history of early-onset colon cancer in his father, who himself has episodes of rectal bleeding and multiple polyps found on rectal exam and proctosigmoidoscopy. He also has hard masses over his mandible and abdomen. The key findings are:- Young age of colon cancer in father - Rectal bleeding episodes- Polyps on rectal exam and endoscopy- Hard masses over mandible and abdomenThis constellation of findings is most consistent with Gardners syndrome, an autosomal dominant condition characterized by intestinal polyposis along with extracolonic manifestations like osteomas, soft tissue tumors, and dental abnormalities. The dental and abdominal masses are likely osteomas, a classic feature of this syndrome. Familial polyposis lacks the extracolonic findings. Lynch syndrome and Peutz-Jeghers syndrome would not have the osteomas. Turcot syndrome has CNS tumors rather than osteomas.B: Gardners syndrome 