<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 46-year-old man comes to the physician for routine physical examination. His blood pressure is 15896 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show a potassium concentration of 3.1 mEqL. His plasma aldosterone concentration PAC to plasma renin activity PRA ratio is 47 N 10. A saline infusion test fails to suppress aldosterone secretion. A CT scan of the abdomen shows bilateral adrenal gland abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Bilateral adrenalectomy, B: Eplerenone therapy, C: Amiloride therapy, D: Unilateral adrenalectomy, E: Propranolol therapy,  <response>: This is a clinical case scenario about a patient with hypertension and hypokalemia. The key findings are elevated PACPRA ratio, failure to suppress aldosterone with saline infusion, and bilateral adrenal abnormalities on CT. This suggests primary aldosteronism likely due to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. The next step would be to confirm the diagnosis and determine if unilateral or bilateral disease, since unilateral disease may be treated with adrenalectomy while bilateral disease is better managed medically. The choices include various medical therapies and surgical options.B: Eplerenone therapy 