<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 27-year-old woman comes to the emergency room because of fever and severe left knee pain for the past week. She has not sustained any trauma or injury to the area, nor has she traveled or taken part in outdoor activities in the recent past. She is sexually active with one male partner, and they use condoms inconsistently. She appears ill. Her temperature is 38C 100.4F, pulse is 98min, respirations are 17min, and blood pressure is 10672 mm Hg. Physical examination shows multiple painless pustular lesions on her ankles and the dorsum and soles of her feet bilaterally, as well as a swollen, erythematous, exquisitely tender left knee. Her wrists are also mildly edematous and tender, with pain on extension. X-ray of the knees shows tissue swelling. Arthrocentesis of the knee shows yellow purulent fluid. Gram stain is negative. Analysis of the synovial fluid shows a leukocyte count of 58,000mm3 with 93 neutrophils and no crystals. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?? A: Oral penicillin V, B: Oral hydroxychloroquine, C: Intramuscular ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin, D: Oral doxycycline, E: Intramuscular ceftriaxone,  <response>: This is a clinical case of a 27-year-old woman presenting with fever, knee pain, pustular skin lesions, and joint swelling and tenderness. The description of the knee x-ray, synovial fluid analysis, and gram stain indicate septic arthritis, likely caused by a sexually transmitted infection given her sexual history and presence of skin lesions. The question asks about the most appropriate pharmacotherapy. Based on the clinical presentation, the likely diagnosis is disseminated gonococcal infection causing septic arthritis and dermatitis. The treatment of choice is ceftriaxone, a third-generation cephalosporin antibiotic given intramuscularly or intravenously along with oral azithromycin.C: Intramuscular ceftriaxone and oral azithromycin 