<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, abortus 1, comes to the physician because of failure to conceive for 12 months. She is sexually active with her husband 23 times per week. Her first child was born at term after vaginal delivery 2 years ago. At that time, the postpartum course was complicated by hemorrhage from retained placental products, and the patient underwent dilation and curettage. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and previously lasted for 5 days with normal flow, but now last for 2 days with significantly reduced flow. She stopped taking oral contraceptives 1 year after the birth of her son. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Speculum examination shows a normal vagina and cervix. The uterus is normal in size, and no adnexal masses are palpated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Measurement of antisperm antibody concentration, B: Estrogenprogestin withdrawal test, C: Measurement of serum FSH and LH concentrations, D: Hysteroscopy with potential adhesiolysis, E: Dilation and curettage,  <response>: This is a question about infertility in a 30-year-old woman who has a history of pregnancy, delivery, and postpartum hemorrhage treated with dilation and curettage. The key findings are 12 months of infertility, regular but light menses, and a normal physical exam except for possibly scarreddamaged endometrium from the previous dilation and curettage. Choice A tests for antisperm antibodies which is not indicated based on the information provided. There is no mention of abnormal sperm or immunologic issues.Choice B does a withdrawal bleed test which may help evaluate ovarian function but is not the best test in this scenario. Choice C tests FSH and LH which help evaluate ovarian reserve and function. This is a reasonable choice but not the most appropriate as the physical exam was normal and her periods are regular.Choice D does a hysteroscopy to evaluate the uterine cavity and potentially lyse adhesions from scarring. This is the most appropriate next step given her history of dilation and curettage which can cause intrauterine adhesions.Choice E repeats the dilation and curettage which may further worsen scarring.D: Hysteroscopy with potential adhesiolysis 