<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 72-year-old Caucasian woman presents with three months of progressive central vision loss accompanied by wavy distortions in her vision. She has hypertension controlled with metoprolol but has no other past medical history. Based on this clinical history she is treated with intravitreal injections of a medication. What is the mechanism of action of the treatment most likely used in this case?? A: Decrease ciliary body production of aqueous humor, B: Crosslink corneal collagen, C: Inhibit choroidal neovascularization, D: Pneumatic retinopexy, E: Increase outflow of aqueous humor,  <response>: Based on the information provided in the question stem, this patient is likely suffering from age-related macular degeneration AMD. The description of progressive central vision loss with wavy distortions is classic for AMD. The fact that she is an older Caucasian woman with no other major medical history also makes AMD very likely. The treatment described is intravitreal injections, which are commonly used to treat the wet form of AMD characterized by abnormal blood vessel growth choroidal neovascularization. The goal of treatment is to inhibit this pathologic choroidal neovascularization which can lead to fluid leakage, bleeding and scarring in the macula.Going through the answer choices, choice C Inhibit choroidal neovascularization matches the most likely mechanism of action of the intravitreal treatment this patient received. The other choices describe mechanisms unrelated to wet AMD or the effects of intravitreal anti-VEGF injections used to treat it.C: Inhibit choroidal neovascularization 