<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 37-year-old man presents with back pain which began 3 days ago when he was lifting heavy boxes. The pain radiates from the right hip to the back of the thigh. The pain is exacerbated when he bends at the waist. He rates the severity of the pain as 6 out of 10. The patient has asthma and mitral insufficiency due to untreated rheumatic fever in childhood. He has a smoking history of 40 pack-years. His family history is remarkable for rheumatoid arthritis, diabetes, and hypertension. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the pain is elicited when the patient is asked to raise his leg without extending his knee. The patient has difficulty walking on his heels. Peripheral pulses are equal and brisk bilaterally. No hair loss, temperature changes, or evidence of peripheral vascular disease is observed. Which of the following is considered the best management option for this patient?? A: Stenting, B: Observation, C: Referral for surgery, D: Prescription of opioids, E: Over-the-counter NSAIDs,  <response>: This is a patient presenting with acute back pain radiating to the leg that is exacerbated by movement. The description of the pain and physical exam findings are consistent with sciatica likely due to a herniated disc. The patient has several risk factors including heavy liftingstraining, smoking, and family history of rheumatoid arthritis. The question asks about the best management option. NSAIDs can help manage the pain and inflammation associated with a herniated disc. Surgery may be an option if conservative measures fail but is not first-line. Opioids carry risks of dependency and side effects. Stenting is not indicated. Observation alone is not adequate to treat the patients pain. E: Over-the-counter NSAIDs 