<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 66-year-old woman presents to the primary care physician with complaints of involuntary loss of urine. This has been occurring over the past month for no apparent reason while suddenly feeling the need to urinate. History reveals triggers that stimulate the desire to pass urine, such as running water, handwashing, and cold weather. There is no family history of similar symptoms in her mother or any of her 8 children. Her blood pressure is 13080 mm Hg, heart rate is 72min, respiratory rate is 22min, and temperature is 36.6C 98.0F. Physical examination is unremarkable. Urinalysis reveals the following:Color YellowClarityturbidity ClearpH 5.5Specific gravity 1.015Nitrites NegativeLeukocyte esterase NegativeWhich of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?? A: Administer antimuscarinics, B: Bladder training, C: Administer antibiotics, D: Posterior tibial nerve stimulation, E: Surgery,  <response>: Based on the patients history of involuntary loss of urine occurring suddenly when feeling the urge to urinate, this appears to be a case of urge incontinence. The triggers described are common triggers that can stimulate involuntary bladder contractions. There is no evidence of infection based on the unremarkable urinalysis. Surgery would not be indicated as a first-line treatment. Posterior tibial nerve stimulation may be an option but would not be the best next step. The best options are an antimuscarinic medication to inhibit involuntary bladder contractions or bladder training to help control urgency.B: Bladder training 