<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is found upon transthoracic echocardiography to have a dilated aorta and mitral valve prolapse. The patient has a history of joint pain, and physical examination reveals pectus excavatum and stretch marks on the skin. She does not take any medications and has no history of past drug use. The patients findings are most likely associated with which of the following underlying diagnoses?? A: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, B: Turner syndrome, C: DiGeorge syndrome, D: Friedrichs ataxia, E: Marfan syndrome,  <response>: This question describes a 29-year-old woman with findings of a dilated aorta, mitral valve prolapse, joint pain, pectus excavatum, and stretch marks. She has no history of medication use or past drug use. The key findings here are the cardiovascular abnormalities dilated aorta and mitral valve prolapse, skeletal findings pectus excavatum and joint pain, and skin findings stretch marks. This constellation of findings is classic for Marfan syndrome. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can cause joint hypermobility but does not typically cause cardiovascular abnormalities. Turner syndrome, DiGeorge syndrome, and Friedrichs ataxia do not explain the findings described.E: Marfan syndrome 