<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:An otherwise healthy 39-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider because of right-leg swelling, which started 4 months ago following travel to Kenya. The swelling has been slowly progressive and interferes with daily tasks. She denies smoking or alcohol use. Family history is irrelevant. Vital signs include: temperature 38.1C 100.5F, blood pressure 11572 mm Hg, and pulse 99min. Physical examination reveals non-pitting edema of the entire right leg. The overlying skin is rough, thick and indurated. The left leg is normal in size and shape. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient condition?? A: Persistent elevation of venous pressures, B: Lymphatic hypoplasia, C: Obstruction of lymphatic channels, D: Hypoalbuminemia, E: Venous thromboembolism,  <response>: This is a patient with unilateral leg swelling that started after travel to Kenya. The key findings are non-pitting edema, roughthickened skin, and normal left leg. This suggests a chronic process affecting the right leg lymphatics. Choices A and E can cause bilateral leg swelling. Choice D low albumin typically causes pitting edema. Choice B lymphatic hypoplasia would likely affect both legs. Therefore, the most likely cause is obstruction of the right leg lymphatic channels, choice C.C: Obstruction of lymphatic channels 