<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 37-year-old G2P1 woman presents to the clinic complaining of amenorrhea. She reports that she has not had a period for 2 months. A urine pregnancy test that she performed yesterday was negative. She is sexually active with her husband and uses regular contraception. Her past medical history is significant for diabetes and a dilation and curettage procedure 4 months ago for an unviable pregnancy. She denies any discharge, abnormal odor, abnormal bleeding, dysmenorrhea, or pain but endorses a 10-pound intentional weight loss over the past 3 months. A pelvic examination is unremarkable. What is the most likely explanation for this patients presentation?? A: Extreme weight loss, B: Intrauterine adhesions, C: Polycystic ovarian syndrome, D: Pregnancy, E: Premature menopause,  <response>: This is a patient with secondary amenorrhea after having regular menses. Important points from the history include:- 37 years old, still in reproductive age range - Regular contraception use and negative pregnancy test make pregnancy unlikely- History of diabetes and recent DC raise possibility of intrauterine adhesions- 10 pound weight loss could contribute to hypothalamic amenorrhea- Normal pelvic exam makes structural causes like polycystic ovaries less likelyThe most likely causes to consider are intrauterine adhesions, hypothalamic amenorrhea from weight loss, and premature ovarian failure.B: Intrauterine adhesions 