<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 9-year-old boy presents with polydipsia, polyuria, and a serum osmolality of 325 mOsmL. A neurologic examination reveals bitemporal hemianopia. The lesion is believed to be derived from Rathkes pouch remnants. Which of the following is the most likely histologic finding?? A: Liquefactive necrosis, B: Cystic spaces, C: Lymphocytic infiltrate, D: Immune complex deposition, E: Branching papillae,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 9-year-old boy with symptoms of polydipsia, polyuria, and hyperosmolality, along with bitemporal hemianopia on neurologic exam. The history indicates the lesion is believed to be derived from Rathkes pouch remnants. The key finding here is the bitemporal hemianopia, which indicates a lesion affecting the optic chiasm. The optic chiasm carries fibers from the nasal retina of each eye, thus a lesion here can cause bitemporal visual field defects. Rathkes pouch remnants refer to the embryologic precursor of the pituitary gland. Lesions derived from Rathkes pouch remnants therefore indicate masses in the sella turcica region where the pituitary gland resides. The most common tumor here would be a pituitary adenoma.Of the answer choices, Cystic spaces would be the most consistent histologic finding expected in a pituitary adenoma originating from Rathkes pouch remnants. Liquefactive necrosis and lymphocytic infiltrate would be unusual. Immune complex deposition and branching papillae do not match pituitary adenoma histology.B: Cystic spaces 