<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A previously healthy 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because of lower abdominal pain and purulent vaginal discharge for the past 5 days. Menses occur at irregular 20 to 40-day intervals and last 4 to 8 days. She is sexually active with a new partner that she met 2 months ago and they use condoms inconsistently. She had a normal pap smear 5 months ago. She drinks 2 beers every other day. Her temperature is 39C 102.2F, pulse is 85min, and blood pressure is 10875 mm Hg. Examination shows lower abdominal tenderness and bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy. Pelvic examination is notable for uterine and adnexal tenderness as well as small amounts of bloody cervical discharge. A spot urine pregnancy test is negative. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 14,500mm3 and an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 90 mmh. Nucleic acid amplification confirms the suspected diagnosis. The patient is started on ceftriaxone and doxycycline. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: CT scan of the abdomen, B: Tzanck smear, C: Colposcopy, D: Pap smear, E: HIV test,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 28-year-old woman with lower abdominal pain, purulent vaginal discharge, irregular menstrual cycles, recent new sexual partner, high fever, lymphadenopathy, uterineadnexal tenderness, and bloody cervical discharge. Lab tests show leukocytosis and high ESR. Nucleic acid amplification has confirmed the diagnosis, which based on the clinical presentation is most likely pelvic inflammatory disease PID caused by a sexually transmitted infection like chlamydia or gonorrhea. She has been started on appropriate antibiotics. The next step should be to test for other sexually transmitted infections that may be concurrent, especially HIV given the high-risk sexual history.E: HIV test 