<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 27-year-old woman presents with right knee pain over the last 3 weeks. The pain is moderate in severity but makes any physical activity that involves bending her knee extremely discomfortable. Her pain worsens with running and squatting, in particular. The patient has no history of medical conditions nor does she have any immediate family member with a similar condition. At the physicians office, her vitals are normal. On physical examination, there is localized pain in the right anterior knee. There are no passive or active movement limitations at her knee joint. Erythema, swelling, and crepitations are not present. Which of the following is the best option for definitively managing this patients condition?? A: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs NSAIDS, B: Colchicine, C: Quadriceps strengthening, D: Intra-articular steroid injections, E: Intra-articular glycosaminoglycan polysulfate injections,  <response>: This is a patient presenting with right knee pain of 3 weeks duration without any history of prior medical conditions or family history. The description of the pain and physical exam findings are consistent with patellofemoral pain syndrome. NSAIDs can provide symptomatic relief but are not definitive treatment. Colchicine is used for gout which is not supported by the history or exam. Quadriceps strengthening is first-line treatment and can help improve patellar tracking and reduce pain over time. Intra-articular injections can provide more rapid pain relief but are not definitive treatment. Therefore, the best option for definitively managing this patients condition is quadriceps strengthening exercises.C: Quadriceps strengthening 