<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:Forty-five minutes after the spontaneous delivery of a male newborn at 39 weeks gestation, a 27-year-old primigravid woman complains of worsening abdominal pain and dizziness. The patient was admitted to the hospital 5 hours prior because of spontaneous rupture of membranes. During labor, she experienced a brief episode of inadequate contractions which resolved following administration of IV oxytocin. The placenta was extracted manually after multiple attempts of controlled cord traction and fundal pressure. The patient has no history of serious illness except for occasional nosebleeds. The pregnancy was uncomplicated. Her pulse is 110min and blood pressure is 8550 mmHg. There is brisk vaginal bleeding from a round mass protruding from the vagina. The fundus is not palpable on abdominal exam. Which of the following is the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient?? A: Coagulation disorder, B: Uterine rupture, C: Retained placental products, D: Uterine inversion, E: Laceration of cervixn,  <response>: This is a question about postpartum hemorrhage in a woman who recently delivered. The key details in the stem are: - 45 minutes after delivery of a term infant- Primigravida - SROM 5 hours prior to delivery- Brief inadequate contractions requiring oxytocin - Manual removal of placenta- Currently has worsening abdominal pain, dizziness, tachycardia, hypotension- Mass protruding from vagina - Uterus not palpable on abdominal examBased on the inability to palpate the uterine fundus and the protruding vaginal mass, the most likely diagnosis is uterine inversion. Inversion can occur if the placenta fails to detach normally from the uterine wall, leading to the uterus inverting when cord traction is applied. This is an obstetric emergency that can result in significant blood loss.D: Uterine inversion 