<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:An 83-year-old woman with fever, malaise, and cough for the past 24 hours is brought to the emergency department. She lives in an assisted living facility, and several of her neighbors have had similar symptoms. She has a past medical history of hypertension treated with lisinopril. Her temperature is 38.9C 102.2F, pulse is 105min, respirations are 22min, and blood pressure is 11262 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 88. Her leukocyte count is 10,500mm3, and serum creatinine is 0.9 mgdL. An X-ray of the chest shows bilateral reticulonodular opacities in the lower lobes. Serum procalcitonin level is 0.06 μgL N 0.06 μgL. What mechanism of action is the appropriate next step to manage her condition?? A: Inhibition of DNA polymerase, B: Inhibition of neuraminidase, C: Inhibition of nucleoside reverse transcriptase, D: Inhibition of protease, E: Inhibition of proton translocation,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing an elderly woman with symptoms and findings consistent with pneumonia, likely due to a viral infection given the low procalcitonin level. The question is asking about the mechanism of action of the most appropriate next treatment step. Based on the clinical presentation, the most likely diagnosis is viral pneumonia, so the next step would be an antiviral medication.B: Inhibition of neuraminidase 