<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 43-year-old type 1 diabetic woman who is poorly compliant with her diabetes medications presented to the emergency department with hemorrhage from her nose. On exam, you observe the findings shown in figure A. What is the most likely explanation for these findings?? A: Cryptococcal infection, B: Candida infection, C: Rhizopus infection, D: Sporothricosis, E: Gram negative bacterial infection,  <response>: This is a patient with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes presenting with nosebleeds and skin findings. The key finding is black eschars on the skin, which are most consistent with necrotizing infection. In an immunocompromised diabetic patient, the most likely cause would be a fungal infection, specifically mucormycosis caused by Rhizopus species. Rhizopus can invade blood vessels and cause tissue necrosis and eschars. Cryptococcus, Candida, and Sporothrix would not cause these skin findings. A gram negative bacterial infection is less likely than Rhizopus to cause tissue necrosis in this setting.C: Rhizopus infection 