<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 78-year-old woman presents to the orthopedic department for an elective total left knee arthroplasty. She has had essential hypertension for 25 years and type 2 diabetes mellitus for 35 years. She has smoked 2030 cigarettes per day for the past 40 years. The operation was uncomplicated. On day 3 post-surgery, she complains of left leg pain and swelling. On examination, her left leg appears red and edematous, and there are dilated superficial veins on the left foot. Using Wells criteria, the patient is diagnosed with a provoked deep venous thrombosis. Which of the following is the best initial therapy for this patient?? A: Oral dabigatran monotherapy, B: Oral apixaban monotherapy, C: Long-term aspirin, D: Inferior vena cava IVC filter, E: Complete bed rest,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette about a 78-year-old woman who develops a provoked deep vein thrombosis DVT after knee replacement surgery. The question is asking for the best initial therapy for this patient. Wells criteria are used to estimate the probability of DVT. This patient has a provoked DVT given her recent surgery, which puts her at high risk. The choices include anticoagulant medications like dabigatran and apixaban, aspirin, IVC filter, and bed rest. For a provoked DVT, anticoagulation is the recommended initial therapy to prevent clot extension and pulmonary embolism. Aspirin and bed rest alone are insufficient. IVC filters are reserved for patients who cannot take anticoagulants. Of the anticoagulants, direct oral anticoagulants like dabigatran or apixaban are preferred over warfarin for DVT treatment. There is no evidence one is superior to the other.B: Oral apixaban monotherapy 