<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 17-year-old teenager presents to the clinic with her parents complaining of headaches and loss of vision which began insidiously 3 months ago. She describes her headaches as throbbing, mostly on her forehead, and severe enough to affect her daily activities. She has not experienced menarche. Past medical history is noncontributory. She takes no medication. Both of her parents are alive and well. Today, her blood pressure is 11070 mm Hg, the heart rate is 90min, the respiratory rate is 17min, and the temperature is 37.0C 98.6F. Breasts and pubic hair development are in Tanner stage I. Blood work is collected and an MRI is performed the result is shown. Inhibition of which of the following hormones is the most likely explanation for the patients signs and symptoms?? A: Antidiuretic hormone, B: Thyroid-stimulating hormone, C: Gonadotropins, D: Adrenocorticotropic hormone, E: Prolactin,  <response>: This is a clinical case about a 17-year-old girl presenting with headaches, vision loss, and lack of menarche. The key findings are headaches, vision loss, no menarche, normal vital signs, Tanner stage I sexual development, and MRI showing a pituitary mass. The differential diagnosis includes a pituitary tumor or other mass compressing the optic chiasm and inhibiting hormone production. Specifically, lack of menarche and sexual development indicates likely inhibition of gonadotropins FSHLH from the anterior pituitary. Choices include hormones from different pituitary cell types - ADH posterior, TSH anterior, gonadotropins anterior, ACTH anterior, and prolactin anterior. Of these, inhibition of gonadotropins best explains the clinical presentation.C: Gonadotropins 