<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 23-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 5-month history of a pruritic rash on the bilateral upper extremities. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. A skin biopsy of the rash shows intraepidermal accumulation of edematous fluid and widening of intercellular spaces between keratinocytes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Psoriasis vulgaris, B: Lichen planus, C: Dermatitis herpetiformis, D: Acanthosis nigricans, E: Eczematous dermatitis,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 23-year-old woman with a 5-month history of an itchy rash on both arms. The skin biopsy shows intraepidermal edema and widened intercellular spaces between keratinocytes. Based on the chronicity, pruritus, distribution, and biopsy findings, this presentation is most consistent with eczematous dermatitis. Psoriasis vulgaris classically manifests with well-demarcated erythematous plaques with silver scale. Lichen planus presents with violaceous, flat-topped papules and plaques. Dermatitis herpetiformis causes intensely pruritic papulovesicles on extensor surfaces. Acanthosis nigricans is characterized by velvety, hyperpigmented plaques on flexural surfaces.The key finding in the biopsy of spongiosis intraepidermal edema confirms this is an eczematous process, making eczematous dermatitis the most likely diagnosis.E: Eczematous dermatitis 