<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 21-year-old Cambodian patient with a history of rheumatic heart disease presents to his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He reports being compliant with monthly penicillin G injections since being diagnosed with rheumatic fever at age 15. He denies any major side effects from the treatment, except for the inconvenience of organizing transportation to a physicians office every month. On exam, the patient is found to have a loud first heart sound and a mid-diastolic rumble that is best heard at the apex. Which of the following is the next best step?? A: Stop penicillin therapy, B: Stop penicillin therapy in 4 years, C: Decrease frequency of injections to bimonthly, D: Switch to intramuscular cefotaxime, which has fewer side effects, E: Continue intramuscular penicillin therapy,  <response>: This is a patient with a history of rheumatic heart disease who is on monthly penicillin injections for secondary prophylaxis. The description of the heart exam findings are consistent with mitral stenosis, which is a common sequela of rheumatic heart disease. The goal of secondary prophylaxis with penicillin is to prevent recurrence of rheumatic fever and worsening of rheumatic valvular disease. The options include stopping or decreasing penicillin therapy, switching antibiotics, or continuing current therapy. The correct choice will be the one that follows guidelines for rheumatic heart disease secondary prophylaxis.E: Continue intramuscular penicillin therapy 