<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 17-year-old boy presents to his primary care physician for eye pain. The patient states that it has been going on for the past 3 days and has been steadily worsening. He recently suffered a superior orbital fracture secondary to playing football without a helmet that required no treatment other than to refrain from contact sports. That patients past medical history is non-contributory, and his vitals are within normal limits. Physical exam demonstrates pain and swelling inferior to the patients eye near the lacrimal duct. When pressure is applied to the area expressible pus is noted. Cranial nerves II-XII are grossly intact. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Abscess, B: Dacrocystitis, C: Hordeolum, D: Orbital cellulitis, E: Periorbital cellulitis,  <response>: This is a clinical case scenario involving a 17-year-old boy with eye pain that has been worsening over the past 3 days. Key details from the stem include: - Recent history of superior orbital fracture while playing football without a helmet that required no treatment- Physical exam shows pain, swelling, and expressible pus inferior to the eye near the lacrimal duct - No other significant medical history or abnormal vital signsBased on the location of the pain, swelling and expressible pus near the lacrimal duct, the most likely diagnosis is dacrocystitis. An abscess would not localize to the lacrimal duct area. Hordeolum involves the eyelid. Orbital cellulitis and preseptalperiorbital cellulitis would likely cause more diffuse symptoms rather than localizing to the lacrimal duct area.B: Dacrocystitis 