<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 24-year-old woman presents to the emergency department for evaluation of lower abdominal pain. She endorses 6 hours of progressively worsening pain. She denies any significant past medical history and her physical examination is positive for non-specific, diffuse pelvic discomfort. She denies the possibility of pregnancy given her consistent use of condoms with her partner. The vital signs are: blood pressure, 11168 mm Hg; pulse, 71min; and respiratory rate, 15min. She is afebrile. Which of the following is the next best step in her management?? A: Obtain a pelvic ultrasound, B: Surgical consultation, C: Abdominal CT scan, D: Serum hCG, E: Admission and observation,  <response>: This is a clinical case about a 24-year-old woman with lower abdominal pain. The key findings are:- 6 hours of progressively worsening abdominal pain - No significant past medical history- Physical exam shows diffuse pelvic discomfort- Denies possibility of pregnancy due to consistent condom use- Vital signs are normal, afebrileThe question asks for the next best step in management. Based on the history and physical, this appears to be a case of possible pelvic inflammatory disease or ectopic pregnancy. Even though she denies the possibility of pregnancy, it would still be important to rule this out given the severe abdominal pain. Of the choices, checking a serum hCG level would be the next best step to rule out ectopic pregnancy before considering imaging studies like ultrasound or CT scan.D: Serum hCG 