<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q: A 50-year-old man presents with headache, chest discomfort, and blurred vision. His headache started 2 days ago and has not improved. He describes it as severe, throbbing, localized to the occipital part of the head and worse at the end of the day. He says he has associated nausea but denies any vomiting. Past medical history is significant for hypertension diagnosed 15 years ago, managed with beta-blockers until the patient self dced them a month ago. He has not seen a physician for the past 2 years. Family history is significant for hypertension and an ST-elevation myocardial infarction in his father and diabetes mellitus in his mother. Vitals signs are a blood pressure of 200110 mm Hg, a pulse rate of 100min and respiratory rate of 18min Ophthalmoscopy reveals arteriolar nicking and papilledema. His ECG is normal. Laboratory findings are significant for a serum creatinine of 1.4 mgdL and a blood urea nitrogen of 25 mgdL. Urinalysis has 2 protein. He is started on intravenous nitroprusside. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiology responsible for the neovascular changes present in this patient?? A: Smooth muscle hyperplasia and duplication of the basement membrane, B: Cholesterol deposition in the vascular lumen, C: Weakening of vessel wall following endothelial injury, D: Protein deposition in the vascular lumen, E: Transmural calcification of arterial walls,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 50-year-old man with headache, chest discomfort, blurred vision, and elevated blood pressure. The question asks about the pathophysiology responsible for neovascular changes seen on ophthalmoscopy in this patient. Key findings in the vignette include:- Severe headache, nausea - Hypertension not well controlled recently- Family history of hypertension, MI, diabetes- Physical exam showing elevated BP, papilledema- Lab findings showing impaired renal functionThe neovascular changes described refer to arteriolar nicking and papilledema seen on ophthalmoscopy. These findings are consistent with hypertensive retinopathy and likely retinaloptic nerve edema due to malignant hypertension.Of the answer choices, A describes pathologic changes of benign nephrosclerosis, which does not fit the acute presentation here. B refers to atherosclerosis, which would not cause papilledema. C refers to aneurysm formation, also not applicable. D refers to diabetic retinopathy, which is unrelated to the patients presentation. E describes Monckeberg medial calcific sclerosis, also unrelated.A: Smooth muscle hyperplasia and duplication of the basement membrane 