<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 22-year-old woman presents to her physician with an increased vaginal discharge. She has no other complaints. She has recently changed her sexual partner, who claims to have no genitourinary symptoms. They do not use condoms. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure, 11080 mm Hg; heart rate, 65min; respiratory rate, 11min; and temperature, 36.6C 97.9F. Her physical examination is unremarkable. The gynecologic examination shows increased production of a white-yellow vaginal discharge. Wet mount microscopy shows the below picture. Which of the following treatments is indicated in this patient?? A: Peroral metronidazole, B: Vaginal clindamycin gel, C: Peroral cephalexin, D: No treatment required in the patient with minor symptoms, E: Vaginal probiotics,  <response>: Based on the description, this patient has increased vaginal discharge and microscopy shows trichomonads, indicating Trichomonas vaginalis infection. The choices provided are treatment options for vaginal infections. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for T. vaginalis infection. Clindamycin treats bacterial vaginosis. Cephalexin is an oral antibiotic that does not cover T. vaginalis. Probiotics may help with minor vaginal symptoms but are not a primary treatment. No treatment is not appropriate given she has an active infection.A: Peroral metronidazole 