<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 6-week-old boy is brought for routine examination at his pediatricians office. The patient was born at 39 weeks to a 26-year-old G1P1 mother by normal vaginal delivery. External cephalic version was performed successfully at 37 weeks for breech presentation. Pregnancy was complicated by gestational diabetes that was well-controlled with insulin. The patients maternal grandmother has early onset osteoporosis. On physical examination, the left hip dislocates posteriorly with adduction and depression of a flexed femur. An ultrasound is obtained that reveals left acetabular dysplasia and a dislocated left femur. Which of the following is the next best step in management?? A: Closed reduction and spica casting, B: Observation, C: Open reduction and femoral osteotomy, D: Pavlik harness, E: Physiotherapy,  <response>: This is a question about a 6-week-old infant with developmental dysplasia of the hip DDH. The description indicates that the infant has a dislocated left hip that can be reduced with maneuvering, suggesting a posterosuperior hip dislocation. At this young age, the first line treatment is to attempt closed reduction and immobilization in a Pavlik harness. Surgery is reserved for cases that fail closed reduction. Observation alone would allow further dysplasia and dislocation. Closed reduction with spica casting provides immobilization but lacks the dynamic elements of the Pavlik harness that encourage proper development. Physiotherapy alone is insufficient to reduce the dislocated hip and prevent recurrence.D: Pavlik harness 