<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for the evaluation of a 3-day history of left lower abdominal pain. During this period, the patient has also had a low-grade fever and has not had a bowel movement. He has a history of constipation. He underwent a cholecystectomy at the age of 53 years. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 30 years. His temperature is 38.8C 101.8F, pulse is 80min, respirations are 18min, and blood pressure is 13084 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Abdominal examination shows left lower quadrant tenderness with no guarding or rebound. There is no edema of his lower extremities. CT of the abdomen with contrast shows segmental wall thickening of the descending colon with multiple diverticula, surrounding fat stranding, and a 5.5-cm, low-attenuating pelvic fluid collection. Intravenous fluids and bowel rest are started. Treatment with intravenous morphine, ciprofloxacin, and metronidazole is begun. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?? A: Observation and serial CT scans, B: Left laparoscopic hemicolectomy, C: Colonoscopy, D: CT-guided percutaneous abscess drainage, E: Segmental colonic resectionn,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 56-year-old man with a 3-day history of left lower abdominal pain, low-grade fever, and constipation. He has a history of cholecystectomy and smoking. On exam, he has left lower quadrant tenderness without peritoneal signs. CT shows findings consistent with diverticulitis complicated by abscess formation. He has been started on IV fluids, bowel rest, antibiotics, and pain control. The question is asking for the most appropriate next step in management. Based on the clinical picture of complicated diverticulitis with abscess, the main options are observation vs surgery vs drainage of the abscess. Colonoscopy would be too risky in the acute setting. Serial CT could be reasonable to observe for resolution on antibiotics alone, but drainage or surgery may be preferable for source control of infection. Of these options, CT-guided percutaneous drainage of the abscess provides a less invasive approach to manage the abscess before considering hemicolectomy.D: CT-guided percutaneous abscess drainage 