<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 28-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of weakness in the fingers of his right hand. One week ago, he experienced sudden pain in his right forearm during weight training. He has no history of serious illness. Physical examination shows impaired flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joints, while flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints is intact. Which of the following muscles is most likely injured?? A: Palmaris longus, B: Flexor carpi radialis, C: Flexor carpi ulnaris, D: Flexor digitorum superficialis, E: Flexor digitorum profundus,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 28-year-old man with weakness in the fingers of his right hand that started 1 week ago after he experienced sudden pain in his right forearm while weight training. The key findings on physical exam are impaired flexion of the proximal interphalangeal PIP joints, while flexion of the distal interphalangeal DIP joints is intact. This localization indicates an injury to a muscle involved in flexing the PIP joints but not the DIP joints. The flexor digitorum superficialis muscle flexes the PIP joints, while the flexor digitorum profundus muscle flexes both the PIP and DIP joints. Therefore, the impaired PIP flexion with intact DIP flexion localizes the injury to the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle.D: Flexor digitorum superficialis 