<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 28-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after he was found half dressed and incoherent in the middle of the road. In the emergency department he states that he has not slept for 36 hours and that he has incredible ideas that will make him a billionaire within a few months. He also states that secret agents from Russia are pursuing him and that he heard one of them speaking through the hospital intercom. His past medical history is significant only for a broken arm at age 13. On presentation, his temperature is 102.2F 39C, blood pressure is 13988 mmHg, pulse is 112min, and respirations are 17min. Physical exam reveals pupillary dilation and psychomotor agitation. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for this patients symptoms?? A: 5-HT receptor agonist, B: Gamma-aminobutyric acid receptor agonist, C: Increased biogenic amine release, D: N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor antagonist, E: Opioid receptor agonist,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 28-year-old man with symptoms of psychosis, agitation, fever, tachycardia, and hypertension. The stem is asking to identify the most likely underlying mechanism for his symptoms. The key findings are:- Acute onset psychosis with grandiose delusions and paranoia - Lack of sleep - Hyperthermia- Tachycardia - Hypertension- Pupillary dilation- Psychomotor agitationThis clinical presentation is most consistent with acute psychosis due to stimulant intoxication or withdrawal, likely related to increased synaptic dopamine and norepinephrine. Choice A can be ruled out because 5-HT receptor agonists would not cause this clinical presentation. Choice B can be ruled out because GABA receptor agonists would cause sedation rather than agitation. Choice C of increased biogenic amine release is consistent with acute stimulant intoxication or withdrawal leading to excessive dopamine and norepinephrine.Choice D can be ruled out because NMDA receptor antagonists would cause dissociative symptoms rather than psychosis. Choice E can be ruled out because opioid receptor agonists would cause sedation rather than agitation.C: Increased biogenic amine release 