<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She feels well. She had a chlamydia infection at the age of 22 years that was treated. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 6 years. She has recently been sexually active with 3 male partners and uses condoms inconsistently. Her last Pap test was 4 years ago and results were normal. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A Pap test shows atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Perform cervical biopsy, B: Perform loop electrosurgical excision procedure, C: Perform HPV testing, D: Repeat cytology in 6 months, E: Perform laser ablation,  <response>: This is a question about managing atypical squamous cells on a Pap smear in a 27-year-old woman. Key points from the stem:- 27-year-old woman with no symptoms, on OCPs, smoker- History of chlamydia infection at age 22, treated- Sexually active with multiple partners, inconsistent condom use- Last normal Pap 4 years ago- Current Pap shows ASCUS atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance- Physical exam normalThe choices include various procedures to evaluate or treat cervical abnormalities. The most appropriate next step will depend on current guidelines for managing ASCUS Pap results. This patient is at higher risk due to her sexual history and smoking. HPV testing would help determine her risk of developing cervical cancer precursors. More invasive procedures like biopsy, LEEP, or ablation are not indicated for initial ASCUS results per guidelines. Repeat cytology may be reasonable, but HPV testing is preferred.C: Perform HPV testing 