<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 42-year-old woman presents to the physician because of an abnormal breast biopsy report following suspicious findings on breast imaging. Other than being concerned about her report, she feels well. She has no history of any serious illnesses and takes no medications. She does not smoke. She consumes wine 12 times per week with dinner. There is no significant family history of breast or ovarian cancer. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormal findings. The biopsy shows lobular carcinoma in situ LCIS in the left breast. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Breast irradiation tamoxifen, B: Careful observation routine mammography, C: Left mastectomy axillary dissection local irradiation, D: Lumpectomy breast irradiation, E: Lumpectomy routine screening,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette about a 42-year-old woman with a diagnosis of lobular carcinoma in situ LCIS on breast biopsy. The question asks about the most appropriate next step in management.The key findings in the vignette are:- 42-year-old woman - Abnormal breast biopsy showing LCIS- No significant symptoms- No significant medical history - No family history of breastovarian cancer- Unremarkable physical examLCIS is considered a benign breast condition that confers an increased lifetime risk of developing invasive breast cancer. It is not considered cancer itself. The goal of management is cancer risk reduction rather than treating LCIS as a malignancy.Choices A and D involve treatments aimed at treating breast cancer, so they are incorrect. Choice C of mastectomy is overly aggressive for a benign condition and also incorrect. Choice B involving observation and routine mammography is reasonable. Choice E adds lumpectomy, which is unnecessary given the diagnosis of LCIS.B: Careful observation routine mammography 