<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 33 weeks gestation, is admitted to the hospital for treatment of preterm labor. She has no history of serious illness and her only medication is a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37.2C 99.0F, pulse is 100min, respirations are 20min, and blood pressure is 10075 mm Hg. Therapy with nifedipine and betamethasone is begun. The patient continues to have contractions; nifedipine is discontinued and treatment with high-dose terbutaline is initiated. Her contractions resolve. Three hours later, the patient reports fatigue and weakness. Neurologic examination shows proximal muscle weakness of the lower extremities. Deep tendon reflexes are 1 bilaterally. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?? A: Serum electrolytes, B: Complete blood count, C: Serologic antibody testing, D: Amniotic fluid culture, E: Thyroid function tests,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette about a 24-year-old pregnant woman at 33 weeks gestation who is admitted for preterm labor. She is treated with nifedipine and betamethasone but continues having contractions, so nifedipine is discontinued and high-dose terbutaline is started. She then develops fatigue, weakness and reduced reflexes. The question asks which test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis.Based on the clinical history, the most likely diagnosis is beta-2 agonist toxicity from the high-dose terbutaline. This can cause muscle weakness, fatigue, hypokalemia and other electrolyte abnormalities. Serum electrolytes would help confirm this diagnosis. The other tests listed are less relevant.A: Serum electrolytes 