<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 45-year-old woman comes to the office with a 2-week history of rectal bleeding that occurs every day with her bowel movements. She denies any pain during defecation. Apart from this, she does not have any other complaints. Her past medical history is insignificant except for 5 normal vaginal deliveries. Her vitals are a heart rate of 72min, a respiratory rate of 15min, a temperature of 36.7C 98.1F, and a blood pressure of 11585 mm Hg. On rectovaginal examination, there is a palpable, non-tender, prolapsed mass that can be pushed back by the examiners finger into the anal sphincter. What is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Anal fissure, B: Anorectal fistula, C: Rectal ulcer, D: Proctitis, E: Hemorrhoids,  <response>: Based on the information provided in the question stem, the key findings are:- 45-year-old woman with 2-week history of daily rectal bleeding with bowel movements- No pain during defecation- 5 normal vaginal deliveries in past medical history - Vitals are normal- On rectovaginal exam, palpable, non-tender, prolapsed mass that can be pushed back into anal sphincterThe presence of a palpable, non-tender, prolapsed mass that can be reduced back into the anal sphincter points to a diagnosis of hemorrhoids. Hemorrhoids are dilated veins in the anal canal and are a common cause of rectal bleeding, especially with bowel movements. The lack of pain and normal vitals make infectious causes like proctitis less likely. The patients history of multiple vaginal deliveries is a risk factor for developing hemorrhoids.E: Hemorrhoids 