<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 40-year-old sailor is brought to a military treatment facility 20 minutes after being involved in a navy ship collision. He appears ill. He reports a sensation that he needs to urinate but is unable to void. His pulse is 140min, respirations are 28min, and blood pressure is 10470 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows ecchymoses over the scrotum and perineum. There is tenderness over the suprapubic region and blood at the urethral meatus. Digital rectal examination shows a high-riding prostate. Abdominal ultrasound shows a moderately distended bladder. X-rays of the pelvis show fractures of all four pubic rami. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patients symptoms?? A: Tearing of the anterior urethra, B: Rupture of the corpus cavernosum, C: Rupture of the bladder, D: Tearing of the posterior urethra, E: Tearing of the ureter,  <response>: This is a clinical case scenario about a 40-year-old sailor who was involved in a ship collision and is now presenting with urinary retention, pelvic trauma, and hematuria. The key findings are the inability to urinate despite feeling the need to do so, pelvic ecchymoses and tenderness, blood at the urethral meatus, high-riding prostate on rectal exam, and pelvic fractures seen on X-ray. This constellation of findings points towards a likely posterior urethral injury given the pelvic trauma. The distended bladder on ultrasound also supports an obstructive process such as posterior urethral tear. The other answer choices can be ruled out as they do not explain all the findings.D: Tearing of the posterior urethra 