<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 35-year-old African American man presents with fever, abdominal pain, and severe weakness since yesterday. On physical examination, the patient is jaundiced and shows a generalized pallor. Past medical history is significant for recently receiving anti-malaria prophylaxis before visiting Nigeria. Laboratory tests show normal glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase G6PD levels. Peripheral smear shows the presence of bite cells and Heinz bodies. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?? A: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, B: Sickle cell disease, C: Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, D: Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria PNH, E: Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase G6PD deficiency,  <response>: Based on the information provided in the question stem, the key findings are:- 35-year-old African American male - Presenting with fever, abdominal pain, weakness- Jaundiced and generalized pallor on exam- Recent history of taking anti-malaria medication before traveling to Nigeria- Normal G6PD levels- Peripheral smear showing bite cells and Heinz bodiesThe jaundice, pallor, and presence of bite cells and Heinz bodies point towards a hemolytic anemia. The recent anti-malaria medication use and travel to Nigeria raise suspicion for G6PD deficiency causing drug-induced hemolysis. However, the normal G6PD levels make this less likely. Of the choices given, sickle cell disease is unlikely given the acute presentation. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and PNH would not have the typical findings mentioned. E: Glucose-6-phosphate-dehydrogenase G6PD deficiency 