<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a diffuse, itchy rash and swollen face for 6 hours. That morning, she was diagnosed with an abscess of the lower leg. She underwent treatment with incision and drainage as well as oral antibiotics. She has no history of serious illness. She is not in acute distress. Her temperature is 37.2C 99F, pulse is 78min, and blood pressure is 12884 mm Hg. Physical examination shows mild swelling of the eyelids and lips. There are multiple erythematous patches and wheals over her upper extremities, back, and abdomen. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. After discontinuing all recently administered drugs and beginning continuous vital sign monitoring, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Watchful waiting and regular reassessments, B: Intravenous ranitidine administration, C: Intravenous methylprednisolone, ranitidine, and diphenhydramine administration, D: Intramuscular epinephrine and intravenous hydrocortisone administration, E: Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 23-year-old woman who develops an acute diffuse itchy rash and facial swelling 6 hours after undergoing incision and drainage of a leg abscess and starting oral antibiotics. She has no prior history of serious illness. On exam she has mild eyelid and lip swelling, scattered hives, and normal vital signs. This presentation is most consistent with an acute allergic reactionanaphylaxis likely triggered by the antibiotics. The key steps in management are discontinuing the likely triggering medication, monitoring vitals, and administering medications to treat the allergic reaction and prevent progression to anaphylactic shock.C: Intravenous methylprednisolone, ranitidine, and diphenhydramine administration 