<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 28-year-old woman visits her physician with complaints of inability to become pregnant despite frequent unprotected sexual intercourse with her husband for over a year. She breastfed her only child until about 13 months ago, when the couple decided to have a second child. Over the past year, the patient has had only 4 episodes of menstrual bleeding. She reports occasional milk discharge from both breasts. Her only medication currently is daily pantoprazole, which she takes for dyspepsia. Her BMI is 29 kgm2. Physical examination and vitals are normal. Pelvic examination indicates no abnormalities. The patients breast examination reveals full breasts and a few drops of milk can be expressed from both nipples. Estradiol, serum follicle-stimulating hormone FSH, testosterone, and thyroid-stimulating hormone TSH levels are within the normal range. Which of the following best explains these findings?? A: Pantoprazole, B: Primary ovarian insufficiency, C: Prolactinoma, D: Sheehans syndrome, E: Normal findings,  <response>: This is a question about a 28-year-old woman who is unable to get pregnant despite frequent unprotected intercourse for over a year. She recently stopped breastfeeding about 13 months ago and since then has had only 4 menstrual periods. She has milk discharge from her breasts still. Her BMI is 29. Pelvic exam is normal. Breast exam shows full breasts and she can express milk from her nipples. Her hormone levels estradiol, FSH, testosterone, TSH are normal. The key findings here are her recent lactation, infrequent menses since stopping breastfeeding, and milk discharge from breasts. This indicates she likely has elevated prolactin levels inhibiting ovulation, known as hyperprolactinemia. Of the choices given, prolactinoma a prolactin-secreting pituitary tumor would explain her elevated prolactin levels leading to these findings.C: Prolactinoma 