<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 54-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with recurrent episodes of flushing. At first she attributed these symptoms to hormonal changes. However, lately she has also been experiencing episodes of explosive, watery diarrhea. She has also noticed the onset of heart palpitations. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Her physical exam is notable for an elevated jugular venous pressure JVP. Echocardiography shows tricuspid insufficiency. Urine 5-HIAA is elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Octreotide, B: Metoclopramide, C: Levothyroxine, D: Ondensatron, E: Promethazine,  <response>: Based on the patients symptoms of flushing, diarrhea, heart palpitations, elevated JVP, and tricuspid insufficiency, as well as the elevated urine 5-HIAA, this patient likely has carcinoid syndrome due to a carcinoid tumor. The most appropriate next step would be to start treatment with octreotide, a somatostatin analog that can help control the symptoms of carcinoid syndrome. Metoclopramide, levothyroxine, ondensatron, and promethazine would not be appropriate treatments for carcinoid syndrome.A: Octreotide 