<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician for decreased vision and worsening headaches since this morning. She has hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. Pulse is 119min and irregular. Current medications include ramipril and atorvastatin. Ocular and funduscopic examination shows no abnormalities. The findings of visual field testing are shown. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patients symptoms?? A: Degeneration of the macula, B: Impaired perfusion of the retina, C: Occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery, D: Occlusion of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, E: Occlusion of anterior cerebral arteryn,  <response>: This is a clinical case question involving a 62-year-old woman with decreased vision, worsening headaches, irregular pulse, and visual field defect. The key findings are the visual field defect shown in the image, which demonstrates a right homonymous hemianopsia, along with the patients symptoms and vital signs. This indicates a lesion in the posterior cerebral circulation supplying the visual pathways. Of the answer choices given, occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery would most likely result in the symptoms and visual field defect described in this patient.C: Occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery 