<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to her physician with intermittent nausea for the past 2 months. Her symptoms are exacerbated within one hour after eating. She has no other history of a serious illness. She takes metformin and injects insulin. Her vitals are normal. Abdominal examination is normal. An ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with no evidence of ischemia. Hemoglobin A1c is 7. A gastric emptying scan shows 60 of her meal in the stomach 75 minutes after eating. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?? A: Dimenhydrinate, B: Lorazepam, C: Metoclopramide, D: Octreotide, E: Ondansetron,  <response>: This is a clinical case of a 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes presenting with intermittent nausea exacerbated after eating. She is on metformin and insulin with well-controlled HbA1c. Her physical exam, ECG, and vitals are normal. However, a gastric emptying scan shows delayed gastric emptying. The key finding here is the delayed gastric emptying shown on the scan, which is likely causing her postprandial nausea. This suggests gastroparesis, which can be a complication of diabetes. Of the options given, metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent that increases gastrointestinal motility by antagonizing dopamine receptors. It would help improve gastric emptying and thus relieve her symptoms. Dimenhydrinate is an antihistamine antiemetic. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine anxiolytic. Octreotide decreases gut motility. Ondansetron is a serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist antiemetic. These would not address the underlying pathophysiology of delayed gastric emptying.C: Metoclopramide 