<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 34-year-old gravida 2, para 1 woman at 376 weeks of gestation presents for elective cesarean delivery. She says she has been having increased fatigue over the past few weeks. Past medical history includes gestational hypertension for which she has been taking an antihypertensive drug twice daily since week 24. Her vital signs include: temperature 36.7C 98.0F, blood pressure 12075 mm Hg, pulse 127min. Physical examination reveals generalized pallor. Her laboratory results reveal microcytic, hypochromic anemia with anisocytosis, hemoglobin of 9 gdL, a differential with 14 lymphocytes, an ESR of 22 mmhr, and a reticulocyte production index of 3.1. A direct antiglobulin test is positive. LFTs, creatinine, ferritin level, vitamin B12 level, coagulation studies, and urinalysis are normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?? A: Preeclampsia, B: Hereditary spherocytosis, C: HELLP syndrome, D: Drug-induced immune hemolytic reaction, E: Normal pregnancy,  <response>: Based on the information provided in the question stem, the key findings are:- 34-year-old pregnant woman at 376 weeks gestation presenting for elective C-section- History of gestational hypertension, on antihypertensive medication since week 24- Symptoms of fatigue and pallor - Lab findings showing microcytic, hypochromic anemia with high RPI and positive direct antiglobulin test- Normal LFTs, creatinine, ferritin, B12, coagulation, and urinalysisThe positive direct antiglobulin test and history of antihypertensive medication use point towards an immune-mediated hemolytic anemia. The normal LFTs and coagulation studies make HELLP syndrome unlikely. There is no history to support hereditary spherocytosis. The lab findings are not consistent with normal pregnancy.D: Drug-induced immune hemolytic reaction 