<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 28 weeks gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. Her temperature is 37.2C 99F and blood pressure is 163105 mm Hg. Her blood pressure 10 weeks ago was 12884 mm Hg. At her last visit two weeks ago, her blood pressure was 14292 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 28-week gestation. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, creatinine, and hepatic transaminases are within the reference range. A urinalysis is within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Magnesium sulfate therapy, B: Lisinopril therapy, C: Complete bed rest, D: Dietary salt restriction, E: Hydralazine therapy,  <response>: This is a question about the management of preeclampsia in a pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation. The key findings are that the patient has new onset hypertension blood pressure 163105 mmHg compared to previous normal blood pressures earlier in pregnancy. She also has proteinuria based on the description that her urinalysis was within normal limits. This meets the criteria for a diagnosis of preeclampsia. The goal in management is to control blood pressure to prevent complications like placental abruption, stroke, pulmonary edema etc. The next step should be to start antihypertensive medication. Of the choices, lisinopril an ACE inhibitor is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risks of fetal renal damage. Magnesium sulfate may be used for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia, but blood pressure control should be the priority here. Bedrest and dietary salt restriction have not been shown to improve outcomes in preeclampsia. Hydralazine is a commonly used antihypertensive in pregnancy that can be given IV or orally.E: Hydralazine therapy 