<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 37-year-old African-American man presents to his primary care provider with a history of fatigue and nausea that started about 6 months ago. His symptoms have slowly gotten worse and now he has trouble climbing the stairs to his 3rd floor apartment without resting. Past medical history is significant for poorly controlled HIV and a remote history of heroin addiction. Today his temperature is 36.9C 98.4F, the blood pressure is 11872 mm Hg, and the pulse is 75min. Physical examination reveals morbid obesity and 1 pitting edema of both lower extremities. Urine dipstick reveals 2 proteinuria. Urinalysis shows no abnormal findings. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient condition?? A: Amyloidosis, B: Minimal change disease, C: Membranous nephropathy, D: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, E: Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis,  <response>: This is a patient with a history of poorly controlled HIV infection and past heroin addiction who now presents with symptoms of fatigue, nausea, and edema concerning for a kidney disease. The key findings are proteinuria on urinalysis and lower extremity edema. The choices list various causes of nephrotic syndrome. Amyloidosis choice A is less likely in a patient this young without evidence of plasma cell dyscrasia. Minimal change disease choice B is more common in children. Membranous nephropathy choice C is possible but less likely with a normal urinalysis. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis FSGS, choice D is the most likely diagnosis given the patients history of HIV and heroin abuse, which are risk factors for secondary FSGS. FSGS commonly presents with nephrotic syndrome and proteinuria. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis choice E also commonly causes nephrotic syndrome but is less likely than FSGS in this clinical scenario.D: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis 