<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 24-year-old woman, G1P0, presents to her OBGYN for her annual examination with complaints of painful cramps, abdominal pressure, and bloating with her cycle. She reports that she has not menstruated since her missed abortion requiring dilatation and curettage DC seven months ago. She is sexually active with her husband and is not using any form of contraception. Her BMI is 29. At the clinic, her vitals are as follows: temperature, 98.9F; pulse, 80min; and blood pressure, 12070 mm Hg. The physical examination is unremarkable. Thyroid-stimulating hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone, and prolactin concentrations are all within normal limits. The patient tests negative for qualitative serum betahCG. A progestin challenge test reveals no withdrawal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Ectopic pregnancy, B: Pelvic inflammatory disease, C: Endometriosis, D: Asherman syndrome, E: Hypothalamic hypoestrogenism,  <response>: This is a question about a 24-year-old woman with complaints of painful menstrual cramps, abdominal pressure, and bloating. She has amenorrhea since a DC 7 months ago. She is sexually active and not using contraception. Her BMI is 29. Vitals are normal. Physical exam is unremarkable. Lab tests for thyroid, FSH, prolactin are normal. Qualitative beta-hCG is negative. Progestin challenge test shows no withdrawal bleeding. The key findings here are:- Amenorrhea since DC 7 months ago - Normal thyroid, FSH, prolactin - Negative pregnancy test- No withdrawal bleeding with progestin challengeThis suggests there is no hormonal imbalance or pregnancy. The amenorrhea after DC along with the failed progestin challenge indicates there is likely intrauterine scarring or adhesions causing obstruction. This makes Asherman syndrome the most likely diagnosis.D: Asherman syndrome 