<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 39-year-old woman, gravida 5, para 4, at 41 weeks gestation is brought to the hospital because of regular uterine contractions that started 2 hours ago. Pregnancy has been complicated by iron deficiency anemia treated with iron supplements. Pelvic examination shows the cervix is 90 effaced and 7-cm dilated; the vertex is at -1 station. Fetal heart tracing is shown. The patient is repositioned, O2 therapy is initiated, and amnioinfusion is done. A repeat assessment after 20 minutes shows a similar cervical status, and no changes in the fetal heart tracing, and less than 5 contractions in a period of 10 minutes.What is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Begin active pushing, B: Retry maternal repositioning, C: Administer tocolytics, D: Monitor without intervention, E: Emergent cesarean delivery,  <response>: This is a question about managing labor in a 39-year-old woman who is 41 weeks pregnant. She is in active labor based on cervical dilation of 7 cm. The fetal heart tracing is nonreassuring, as evidenced by the variable decelerations. Initial management with repositioning, oxygen, and amnioinfusion has not improved the tracing. The goal now is to expedite delivery in the safest way possible for the mother and baby.E: Emergent cesarean delivery 