<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 38 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department because of vaginal bleeding for the past hour. The patient reports that she felt contractions prior to the onset of the bleeding, but the contractions stopped after the bleeding started. She also has severe abdominal pain. Her first child was delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of a nonreassuring fetal heart rate. Her pulse is 110min, respirations are 17min, and blood pressure is 9060 mm Hg. Examination shows diffuse abdominal tenderness with no rebound or guarding; no contractions are felt. The fetal heart rate shows recurrent variable decelerations. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Abruptio placentae, B: Vasa previa, C: Uterine rupture, D: Uterine inertia, E: Amniotic fluid embolism,  <response>: This is a question about a pregnant woman with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and concerning fetal heart rate findings, trying to identify the most likely diagnosis. Based on the information provided, the key factors are:- 38 weeks gestation - History of prior C-section - Vaginal bleeding after feeling contractions, now stopped - Severe abdominal pain- Tachycardia and hypotension - Diffuse abdominal tenderness without peritoneal signs- Recurrent variable fetal heart rate decelerationsThis clinical picture is most consistent with uterine rupture, which can present with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, maternal hemodynamic instability, and fetal distress in the setting of a prior uterine scar. Abruptio placentae would also cause vaginal bleeding and fetal distress but not the abdominal pain and maternal vital sign abnormalities. Vasa previa, uterine inertia, and amniotic fluid embolism are less likely based on the overall clinical presentation.C: Uterine rupture 