<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 37-year-old woman with a history of anorectal abscesses complains of pain in the perianal region. Physical examination reveals mild swelling, tenderness, and erythema of the perianal skin. She is prescribed oral ampicillin and asked to return for follow-up. Two days later, the patient presents with a high-grade fever, syncope, and increased swelling. Which of the following would be the most common mechanism of resistance leading to the failure of antibiotic therapy in this patient?? A: Use of an altered metabolic pathway, B: Drug efflux pump, C: Production of beta-lactamase enzyme, D: Intrinsic absence of a target site for the drug, E: Altered structural target for the drug,  <response>: This is a question about antibiotic resistance in a patient with a perianal abscess who was initially prescribed oral ampicillin but returned with worsening symptoms. The key points are:- Patient has a history of perianal abscesses- Was prescribed oral ampicillin, a beta-lactam antibiotic- Returned with fever, syncope, and increased swelling, indicating treatment failure- Asking for the most common mechanism of resistance leading to antibiotic failureBased on the history of abscesses, the antibiotic used, and the treatment failure, this implicates beta-lactamase production as the likely mechanism of resistance. Beta-lactam antibiotics like ampicillin are often ineffective for abscesses due to beta-lactamase enzymes produced by bacteria that break down the antibiotic. Of the choices, production of a beta-lactamase enzyme that inactivates the ampicillin is the most likely reason for treatment failure.C: Production of beta-lactamase enzyme 