<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 40-year-old man presents with a painless firm mass in the right breast. Examination shows retraction of the nipple and the skin is fixed to the underlying mass. The axillary nodes are palpable. Which of the following statements is true regarding the above condition?? A: Breast mass will regress after withdrawal of offending drugs, B: Lobular cancer is the most common breast cancer in males, C: These are positive for estrogen receptor, D: BRCA analysis is not recommended in his family members, E: Endocrine therapy has no role in the treatment,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 40-year-old male with signs and symptoms concerning for breast cancer, including a painless breast mass with nipple retraction and palpable axillary lymph nodes. The question asks which statement regarding this condition is true. Based on the clinical presentation, this patient likely has breast cancer, specifically invasive ductal carcinoma, which is the most common type of breast cancer in men. Choice A can be eliminated, as withdrawal of drugs would not cause regression of a likely malignant mass. Choice B is incorrect, as invasive ductal carcinoma, not lobular cancer, is most common in males. Choice D is incorrect, as BRCA testing should be offered to family members given his young age at diagnosis. Choice E is incorrect, as endocrine therapy, particularly tamoxifen, can be used to treat hormone receptor positive breast cancers. C: These are positive for estrogen receptor 