<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 41-year-old woman comes to the primary care physicians office with a 7-day history of headaches, sore throat, diarrhea, fatigue, and low-grade fevers. The patient denies any significant past medical history, recent travel, or recent sick contacts. On review of systems, the patient endorses performing sex acts in exchange for money and recreational drugs over the last several months. You suspect primary HIV infection, but the patient refuses further evaluation. At a follow-up appointment 1 week later, she reports that she had been previously tested for HIV, and it was negative. Physical examination does not reveal any external abnormalities of her genitalia. Her heart and lung sounds are normal on auscultation. Her vital signs show a blood pressure of 12382 mm Hg, heart rate of 82min, and a respiratory rate of 16min. Of the following options, which is the next best step in patient management?? A: Repeat rapid HIV at this office check-up, B: Retest with ELISA and Western blot in 1 year, C: Retest with ELISA and Western blot in 2.58.5 weeks and again in 6 months, D: Perform monospot test, E: Perform VDRL,  <response>: This is a question about the appropriate next step in evaluating a patient with suspected primary HIV infection. The key points in the stem are:- 41 year old woman with 1 week history of nonspecific symptoms - High risk sexual behaviors reported - Previous HIV test was negative- Currently refusing further HIV evaluationThe answer choices provide different testing options for HIV and other sexually transmitted infections. I need to consider the window period for detecting HIV after a potential exposure and choose the option that would most reliably diagnose primary HIV infection in this scenario.C: Retest with ELISA and Western blot in 2.58.5 weeks and again in 6 months 