<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 43-year-old Caucasian female with a long history of uncontrolled migraines presents to general medical clinic with painless hematuria. She is quite concerned because she has never had symptoms like this before. Vital signs are stable, and her physical examination is benign. She denies any groin pain, flank pain, or costovertebral angle tenderness. She denies any recent urinary tract infections or dysuria. Urinary analysis confirms hematuria and a serum creatinine returns at 3.0. A renal biopsy reveals papillary necrosis and a tubulointerstitial infiltrate. What is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Analgesic nephropathy, B: Kidney stone, C: Bladder cancer, D: Kidney cancer, E: Sickle cell disease,  <response>: This is a clinical case question involving a 43-year-old Caucasian female with a history of uncontrolled migraines who now presents with painless hematuria. Key findings include:- Long history of uncontrolled migraines- New onset painless hematuria - No other urinary symptoms - Hematuria confirmed on urinalysis- Elevated serum creatinine at 3.0 - Renal biopsy showing papillary necrosis and tubulointerstitial infiltrateThe history of uncontrolled migraines along with the renal biopsy findings of papillary necrosis point towards analgesic nephropathy as the most likely diagnosis. The other options can be ruled out based on the clinical presentation.A: Analgesic nephropathy 