<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 31-year-old woman has a follow-up visit with her psychiatrist. She was recently diagnosed with major depressive disorder and was started on citalopram 3 months ago. Her dosage was increased one time 6 weeks ago. She has come in to discuss her progress and notes that she feels normal again and happier and has not experienced her usual feelings of depression, crying spells, or insomnia. Her appetite has also improved and she is performing better at work, stating that she has more focus and motivation to complete her assignments. During the beginning of her treatment, she states that she had occasional headaches and diarrhea, but that she no longer has those side effects. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patients management?? A: Lower the dose of citalopram, B: Maintain the current dose of citalopram for several months, C: Increase the dose of citalopram, D: Discontinue the citalopram, E: Discontinue the citalopram and switch to amitriptyline,  <response>: This is a patient who was recently diagnosed with major depressive disorder and started on citalopram 3 months ago. The dose was increased 6 weeks ago. She is now reporting significant improvement in her symptoms of depression, as well as side effects like headaches and diarrhea resolving. She has had good response to the medication. The goal of treatment is to achieve remission of symptoms, which this patient seems to have achieved. There is no indication to increase the dose if she is doing well. Similarly, there is no reason to discontinue or switch medications if she is responding positively. The appropriate next step would be to maintain her on the current effective dose of citalopram for several more months to ensure stability of her condition before considering tapering or discontinuing medication.B: Maintain the current dose of citalopram for several months 