<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 12-hour history of a severe headache. She does not smoke or use illicit drugs. Her blood pressure at admission is 180125 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a bruit in the epigastric region. Fundoscopy shows bilateral optic disc swelling. Which of the following investigations is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?? A: Urinary catecholamine metabolites, B: Echocardiography, C: Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone level, D: Oral sodium loading test, E: CT angiography,  <response>: This is a clinical case scenario describing a 32-year-old woman with a severe headache, high blood pressure, epigastric bruit, and bilateral optic disc swelling. This presentation is most consistent with hypertension and signs of end-organ damage, specifically to the eyes and likely the kidneys based on the bruit which may indicate renal artery stenosis. The key finding is the bilateral optic disc swelling, which indicates increased intracranial pressure. The most likely diagnosis would be a condition causing increased intracranial pressure and hypertension. Of the choices given, CT angiography would best confirm the suspected diagnosis by allowing visualization of the intracranial vasculature. Urinary catecholamines may indicate pheochromocytoma but would not explain the optic disc swelling. Echocardiography may reveal cardiac abnormalities leading to hypertension but would not confirm the cause of increased intracranial pressure. Serum 17-hydroxyprogesterone level tests for congenital adrenal hyperplasia, which does not fit the clinical picture. Oral sodium loading test assesses for mineralocorticoid excess, which also does not match the presentation.E: CT angiography 