<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 9-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father for dysuria, genital pruritus, and vaginal discharge. Cultures of the discharge are sent, revealing the causative agent to be a Gram-negative glucose-fermenting, non-maltose fermenting diplococci. Which of the following steps should the physician follow next?? A: Tell the father that the child needs antiobiotics to treat the bacterial infection, B: Discuss with the father that the child is being sexually abused, C: Contact the mother instead of the father, D: Contact Child Protective Services, E: Treat the child with antibiotics and schedule a follow up,  <response>: This is a clinical case about a 9-year-old girl with symptoms of a urinary tract infection dysuria, genital itching, vaginal discharge and lab results showing gram-negative diplococci, likely Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which causes gonorrhea. The key steps are to recognize that a sexually transmitted infection in a prepubescent child indicates likely sexual abuse, discuss this sensitive issue appropriately with the caregivers, provide antibiotics to treat the infection, and report the suspected abuse to child protective services as legally mandated.D: Contact Child Protective Services 