<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 34-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-week history of left testicular swelling. He has no pain. He underwent a left inguinal hernia repair as a child. He takes no medications. He appears healthy. His vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows an enlarged, nontender left testicle. When the patient is asked to cough, there is no bulge present in the scrotum. When a light is held behind the scrotum, it does not shine through. There is no inguinal lymphadenopathy. Laboratory studies show:Hemoglobin 14.5 gdLLeukocyte count 8,800mm3Platelet count 345,000mm3SerumGlucose 88 mgdLCreatinine 0.8 mgdLTotal bilirubin 0.7 mgdLAlkaline phosphatase 35 ULAST 15 ULALT 14 ULLactate dehydrogenase 60 ULβ-Human chorionic gonadotropin 80 mIUmL N 5α-Fetoprotein 6 ngmL N 10Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Leydig cell tumor, B: Spermatocele of testis, C: Choriocarcinoma, D: Yolk sac tumor, E: Seminoma,  <response>: Based on the information provided in the question stem, the key findings are:- 34-year-old man with 3-week history of left testicular swelling, no pain- History of left inguinal hernia repair as a child- Enlarged, nontender left testicle on exam - No inguinal lymphadenopathy- Elevated β-hCG, normal AFPThe differential diagnosis for testicular swelling includes:- Testicular tumor seminoma, nonseminoma germ cell tumors- Testicular torsion - Epididymitisorchitis- Hydrocelespermatocele- HerniaThe elevated β-hCG along with enlarged testicle and lack of pain make testicular tumor most likely. Normal AFP makes nonseminomatous germ cell tumor less likely. Seminoma is the most common testicular tumor in this age group and can present with elevated β-hCG.E: Seminoma 