<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 57-year-old man is brought to the emergency department for crushing substernal chest pain at rest for the past 2 hours. The pain began gradually while he was having an argument with his wife and is now severe. He does not take any medications. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. He is diaphoretic. His temperature is 37.1C 98.8F, pulse is 110min, respirations are 21min, and blood pressure is 11565 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 97. Cardiac examination shows an S4 gallop. The lungs are clear to auscultation. An ECG is shown. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patients condition?? A: Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery, B: Thromboembolism to the right interlobar pulmonary artery, C: Diffuse coronary vasospasm, D: Occlusion of the left circumflex artery, E: Tear in the intimal lining of the aorta,  <response>: Based on the description, this is likely a case of acute coronary syndrome given the crushing chest pain, cardiac risk factors male, smoking, age, and ECG findings. The ECG shows ST segment elevation in leads V1-V4, indicating an anterior STEMI ST elevation myocardial infarction. This localizes the lesion to the left anterior descending LAD artery, which supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle. A: Occlusion of the left anterior descending artery 