<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 7-year-old boy is brought to his pediatricians office by his mother with a new onset rash. His mother says that the rash appeared suddenly yesterday. He is otherwise well. His medical history is unremarkable except for a recent upper respiratory infection that resolved without intervention two weeks ago. His temperature is 98.2F 36.8C, blood pressure is 11074 mmHg, pulse is 84min, and respirations are 18min. Physical exam shows a well appearing child with a diffuse petechial rash. Complete blood count shows the following:Hemoglobin: 12.6 gdLHematocrit: 37Leukocyte count: 5,100mm3Platelet count: 65,000mm3Which of the following is the best choice in management?? A: Dexamethasone, B: Intravenous immunoglobulin IVIg, C: Observation, D: Rituximab, E: Splenectomy,  <response>: This is a case of a 7-year-old boy presenting with a new onset petechial rash and thrombocytopenia. The description of a recent upper respiratory infection that resolved 2 weeks ago raises suspicion for a post-viral process leading to immune thrombocytopenic purpura ITP. In children, most cases of acute ITP resolve spontaneously within 6 months without therapy. Therefore, observation is the best initial management choice unless there are signs of significant bleeding. Steroids may be considered in severe cases. IVIg, rituximab, and splenectomy are not indicated as initial therapy.C: Observation 