<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 23-year-old woman presents to the physician with complaints of pain and paresthesias in her left hand, particularly her thumb, index, and middle fingers. She notes that the pain is worse at night, though she still feels significant discomfort during the day. The patient insists that she would like urgent relief of her symptoms, as the pain is keeping her from carrying out her daily activities. On physical examination, pain and paresthesias are elicited when the physician percusses the patients wrist as well as when the patient is asked to flex both of her palms at the wrist. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patients condition?? A: Corticosteroid injection, B: Electromyography testing, C: Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, D: Splinting, E: Surgical decompression,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 23-year-old woman with pain and paresthesias in her left hand, worse at night and with certain movements. The symptoms are localized to her thumb, index and middle fingers. Percussion and flexion of the wrist elicits the symptoms. This presentation is most consistent with carpal tunnel syndrome. The initial management should focus on conservative measures like splinting and NSAIDs before considering more invasive options like injections or surgery. Electromyography testing may be useful to confirm the diagnosis but is not an initial management step.D: Splinting 