<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 72-year-old woman comes to the emergency department 1 hour after the sudden onset of a diffuse, dull, throbbing headache. She also reports blurred vision, nausea, and one episode of vomiting. She has a history of poorly controlled hypertension. A photograph of her fundoscopic examination is shown. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patients symptoms?? A: Hemorrhagic lacunar stroke, B: Giant cell arteritis, C: Hypertensive emergency, D: Epidural hematoma, E: Transient ischemic attack,  <response>: This is a clinical case of an elderly woman with a sudden onset of headache, nausea, vomiting and blurred vision. She has a history of poorly controlled hypertension. The fundoscopic exam shows papilledema, which indicates increased intracranial pressure. The most likely diagnosis given the acute presentation, history of hypertension and fundoscopic findings is a hypertensive emergency. This is characterized by severely elevated blood pressure along with evidence of end organ damage, in this case likely posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome causing the neurological symptoms. Hemorrhagic lacunar stroke, giant cell arteritis and epidural hematoma are less likely as they would not present acutely with the fundoscopic findings. A transient ischemic attack would also not explain the papilledema.C: Hypertensive emergency 