<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 32-year-old nulligravid woman comes to the physician because of 2 weeks of postcoital pain and blood-tinged vaginal discharge. She has been sexually active with one male partner for the past 3 months. They do not use condoms. Her only medication is a combined oral contraceptive that she has been taking for the past 2 years. She states that she takes the medication fairly consistently, but may forget a pill 23 days per month. One year ago, her Pap smear was normal. She has not received the HPV vaccine. The cervix is tender to motion on bimanual exam. There is bleeding when the cervix is touched with a cotton swab during speculum exam. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Cervix trauma, B: Uterine leiomyomas, C: Breakthrough bleeding, D: Early uterine pregnancy, E: Chlamydia infection,  <response>: This is a clinical case question involving a 32-year-old woman with postcoital bleeding and vaginal discharge. The key findings in the stem are: - Postcoital bleeding and blood-tinged vaginal discharge for 2 weeks- Sexually active with one partner for 3 months, no condom use- On oral contraceptive pills, but misses 2-3 pills per month- Normal Pap smear 1 year ago, no HPV vaccine- Cervical motion tenderness and contact bleeding on examBased on the sexual history, cervical exam findings, and postcoital bleeding, this sounds most consistent with a sexually transmitted cervical infection like chlamydia or gonorrhea. The oral contraceptive use may explain some irregular bleeding, but would not cause contact bleeding or cervical motion tenderness. Uterine leiomyomas could cause abnormal bleeding but not the exam findings. Uterine pregnancy is unlikely given oral contraceptive use. Cervix trauma is possible but less likely with a single partner.E: Chlamydia infection 