<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 58-year-old man comes to the physician for a 2-month history of increased urinary frequency. Urodynamic testing shows a urinary flow rate of 11 mLs N15 and a postvoid residual volume of 65 mL N50. Prostate-specific antigen level is 3.2 ngmL N4. Treatment with a drug that also increases scalp hair regrowth is initiated. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action of this drug?? A: Decreased conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, B: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone receptor agonism, C: Decreased conversion of hydroxyprogesterone to androstenedione, D: Selective alpha-1AD receptor antagonism, E: Decreased conversion of testosterone to estradiol,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 58-year-old man with lower urinary tract symptoms increased urinary frequency, decreased urinary flow rate, increased post-void residual volume and mildly elevated PSA, consistent with benign prostatic hyperplasia BPH. The treatment described increases scalp hair regrowth, indicating it likely blocks conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone DHT. DHT is responsible for androgenic effects including prostate growth. Therefore, the most likely mechanism of action of this drug is decreased conversion of testosterone to DHT.A: Decreased conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone 