<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 7-year-old boy is rushed to the emergency room after developing severe abdominal pain with nausea and vomiting for a day at a summer camp. He also has a bad cough and generalized muscle weakness. He was doing fine until these symptoms started on day 3 of his camp. Past medical history obtained from his parents on the phone was significant for recurrent nephrotic syndrome controlled by prolonged corticosteroid therapy. His blood pressure is 11075 mm Hg, axillary temperature is 38.9C 102.0F and random blood sugar is 49 mgdL. On examination, he appears somnolent. His heart has a regular rate and rhythm and his lungs have rhonchi and focal wheezing, bilaterally. Results of other lab investigations are:Sodium 131 mEqLPotassium 5.1 mEqLChloride 94 mEqLBicarbonate 16 mEqLUrea 44 mgdLCreatinine 1.4 mgdLA respiratory culture is positive for type A influenza. Which of the following is most likely to be the predisposing cause of the patients symptoms?? A: Bilateral hemorrhagic necrosis of the adrenal glands, B: Iatrogenic suppression of a trophic effect on the adrenal glands, C: An extremely virulent form of Influenza, D: Immunosuppression, E: Primary adrenal insufficiency,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette about a 7-year-old boy with nephrotic syndrome on prolonged corticosteroid therapy who presents with abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, cough, muscle weakness, fever, and somnolence. He is found to have hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and acute kidney injury. Respiratory culture is positive for influenza A. The history of nephrotic syndrome on corticosteroid therapy and the electrolyte abnormalities suggest adrenal insufficiency as the likely diagnosis. Corticosteroid therapy can suppress the HPA axis leading to secondary adrenal insufficiency. This would explain his symptoms.Choices A and C are unlikely based on the clinical picture. Choice D is too vague. Choice E of primary adrenal insufficiency is incorrect given his known prolonged corticosteroid use. Therefore, choice B of iatrogenic adrenal suppression from corticosteroid therapy best explains his presentation.B: Iatrogenic suppression of a trophic effect on the adrenal glands 