<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 70-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of severe fatigue. Over the past month, she has unintentionally lost 2 kg 4.4 lb. Three years ago, she was diagnosed with myelodysplastic syndrome. Currently, she takes no medications other than aspirin for occasional knee pain. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her vital signs are within the normal range. On physical examination, her conjunctivae are pale. Petechiae are present on the distal lower extremities and on the soft and hard palates. Palpation reveals bilateral painless cervical lymphadenopathy. Examination of the lungs, heart, and abdomen shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:Hemoglobin 9 gdLMean corpuscular volume 90 μm3Leukocyte count 3000mm3Platelet count 20,000mm3A Giemsa-stained peripheral blood smear is shown in the image. Which of the following best explains these findings?? A: Acute myeloid leukemia, B: Aplastic anemia, C: Chronic myelogenous leukemia, D: Hairy cell leukemia, E: Primary myelofibrosis,  <response>: This is a patient with pancytopenia low hemoglobin, leukocytes, and platelets along with fatigue, weight loss, and easy bruisingbleeding petechiae, pale conjunctivae, suggestive of bone marrow failure. The peripheral blood smear shows abnormal appearing myeloid precursors with monocytoid features, consistent with dysplasia. The history of myelodysplastic syndrome MDS along with new onset pancytopenia and dysplastic changes on smear are most consistent with progression of MDS to acute myeloid leukemia AML.The other answer choices can be ruled out:- Aplastic anemia would have hypocellular marrow without dysplasia. - CML and hairy cell leukemia would not cause pancytopenia.- Primary myelofibrosis may cause pancytopenia but would not have circulating dysplastic cells.A: Acute myeloid leukemia 