<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 55-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his wife after falling down. About 90 minutes ago, they were standing in their kitchen making lunch and chatting when he suddenly complained that he could not see as well, felt weak, and was getting dizzy. He began to lean to 1 side, and he eventually fell to the ground. He did not hit his head. In the emergency department, he is swaying while seated, generally leaning to the right. The general physical exam is unremarkable. The neurologic exam is notable for horizontal nystagmus, 35 strength in the right arm, ataxia of the right arm, and absent pinprick sensation in the left arm and left leg. The computed tomography CT scan of the head is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely single location of this patients central nervous system lesion?? A: Anterior spinal cord, B: Lateral medulla, C: Primary motor cortex, D: Primary somatosensory cortex, E: Thalamus,  <response>: Based on the information provided in the question stem, the patient is experiencing sudden onset of neurological deficits including weakness, loss of coordination, and sensory changes on the right side of the body. This indicates a lesion in the left side of the central nervous system that is affecting the motor and sensory pathways. The horizontal nystagmus and ataxia point towards a brainstem lesion. Of the answer choices, a lesion in the lateral medulla would best explain the constellation of symptoms described. The medulla contains important motor and sensory tracts like the corticospinal and spinothalamic tracts that would be affected by a lesion at this location.B: Lateral medulla 