<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 20-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 6 hours after the onset of colicky lower abdominal pain that has been progressively worsening. The pain is associated with nausea and vomiting. She has stable inflammatory bowel disease treated with 5-aminosalicylic acid. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and they use condoms inconsistently. She was diagnosed with chlamydia one year ago. Her temperature is 38.1C 100.6F, pulse is 94min, respirations are 22min, and blood pressure is 12080 mm Hg. Examination shows right lower quadrant guarding and rebound tenderness. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Urine culture, B: Transvaginal ultrasound, C: CT scan of the abdomen, D: Serum β-hCG concentration, E: Erect abdominal x-ray,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 20-year-old woman with worsening colicky lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. She has a history of inflammatory bowel disease and chlamydia. On exam she has signs of peritonitis in the right lower quadrant. The key findings are:- Sexually active woman with inconsistent condom use- History of chlamydia- Colicky lower abdominal pain worsening over 6 hours - Fever- Signs of peritonitis on abdominal examThis presentation is most consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease given her sexual history and prior STI. The next step would be to determine if she could be pregnant, since an ectopic pregnancy would also present similarly.D: Serum β-hCG concentration 