<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 15-year-old girl is brought to the physician because of abnormal vaginal bleeding for the past 2 months. Apart from the past 2 months, she has had regular menstrual cycles. She had menarche at the age of 13. She has no personal or family history of any serious illnesses. She takes no medications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormal findings. Laboratory studies show elevated serum beta-HCG and AFP levels. An abdominal ultrasound shows a predominantly solid mass in the left ovary. The right ovary and the uterus show no abnormal findings. Which of the following ovarian tumors best explains these findings?? A: Corpus luteum cyst, B: Embryonal carcinoma, C: Fibromas, D: Krukenberg tumor, E: Serous cystadenoma,  <response>: This is a clinical case about a 15-year-old girl with abnormal vaginal bleeding, elevated beta-HCG and AFP levels, and a solid ovarian mass on ultrasound. The key findings are:- Abnormal vaginal bleeding in a previously regular menstrual cycle - Elevated beta-HCG pregnancy hormone and AFP alpha-fetoprotein - Solid ovarian mass in a 15-year-old girlBased on these findings, the most likely diagnosis is an embryonal carcinoma. Embryonal carcinoma is a malignant germ cell tumor that can secrete beta-HCG and AFP. It often presents as a solid ovarian mass in adolescents and young women.The other options can be ruled out:- Corpus luteum cyst would not cause elevated beta-HCG or AFP.- Fibromas are benign tumors and would not cause the hormone elevations.- Krukenberg tumor is metastatic from the GI tract and would not present this way.- Serous cystadenoma is a benign cystic lesion.B: Embryonal carcinoma 