<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 42-year-old man with chronic hepatitis C is admitted to the hospital because of jaundice and abdominal distention. He is diagnosed with decompensated liver cirrhosis, and treatment with diuretics is begun. Two days after admission, he develops abdominal pain and fever. Physical examination shows tense ascites and diffuse abdominal tenderness. Paracentesis yields cloudy fluid with elevated polymorphonuclear PMN leukocyte count. A drug with which of the following mechanisms is most appropriate for this patients condition?? A: Inhibition of bacterial RNA polymerase, B: Free radical creation within bacterial cell, C: Inhibition of bacterial 50S subunit, D: Inhibition of bacterial peptidoglycan crosslinking, E: Inhibition of bacterial DNA methylation,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a patient with decompensated liver cirrhosis who develops spontaneous bacterial peritonitis SBP. The key findings are jaundice, abdominal distention, ascites, fever, abdominal pain and tenderness, and cloudy ascitic fluid with elevated PMN count, which are classic for SBP. The question asks for the most appropriate antibiotic mechanism for this condition. SBP is most often caused by gram-negative enteric bacteria that translocate from the intestinal lumen into the peritoneal cavity. Therefore, the antibiotic choice should cover common gram-negative organisms. Choices A and E target gram-positive bacteria and can be eliminated. Choice B describes metronidazole, which has limited gram-negative coverage. Choice C describes macrolides, which also have limited gram-negative activity. Choice D describes beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillins and cephalosporins, which inhibit cell wall synthesis and provide broad-spectrum gram-negative coverage.D: Inhibition of bacterial peptidoglycan crosslinking 