<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 75-year-old woman comes to the physician because of generalized weakness for 6 months. During this period, she has also had a 4-kg 8.8-lb weight loss and frequent headaches. She has been avoiding eating solids because of severe jaw pain. She has hypertension and osteoporosis. She underwent a total left-sided knee arthroplasty 2 years ago because of osteoarthritis. The patient does not smoke or drink alcohol. Her current medications include enalapril, metoprolol, low-dose aspirin, and a multivitamin. She appears pale. Her temperature is 37.5C 99.5F, pulse is 82min, and blood pressure is 13580 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:Hemoglobin 10 gdLMean corpuscular volume 87 μm3Leukocyte count 8,500mm3Platelet count 450,000mm3Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 90 mmhWhich of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Intravenous methylprednisolone only, B: Oral prednisone only, C: Intravenous methylprednisolone and temporal artery biopsy, D: Oral prednisone and temporal artery biopsy, E: Temporal artery biopsy onlyn,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 75-year-old woman with a 6-month history of generalized weakness, weight loss, headaches, and jaw pain. She has a history of hypertension, osteoporosis, and knee arthroplasty. On exam she is pale with mild fever and normal blood pressure. Labs show mild anemia, normal MCV, mild leukopenia, normal platelets, and elevated ESR. The presentation is most consistent with giant cell arteritis. Key features are advanced age, headaches, jaw pain, constitutional symptoms, elevated ESR, and anemia. Temporal artery biopsy is required to confirm the diagnosis. Steroids should be started promptly given the risk of irreversible vision loss.D: Oral prednisone and temporal artery biopsy 