<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 21-year-old woman presents with right eye irritation, redness, and watery discharge. These symptoms started abruptly 4 days ago. She is on summer vacation and does not report any contacts with evidently ill patients. However, during the vacation, she frequently visited crowded places. The patient denies any other symptoms. At the presentation, the patients vital signs include: blood pressure 12580 mm Hg, heart rate 75min, respiratory rate 14min, and temperature 36.7C 98F. The physical examination shows conjunctival injection, watery discharge, and mild follicular transformation of the conjunctiva of the right eye. There are no corneal lesions. Ipsilateral preauricular lymph nodes are enlarged. Which of the following would be a proper medical therapy for this patient? A: Oral erythromycin, B: Acyclovir ointment, C: No medical treatment required, D: Levofloxacin drops, E: Tetracycline ointment,  <response>: This is a patient presenting with acute unilateral conjunctivitis characterized by conjunctival injection, watery discharge, and follicular conjunctivitis. The acute onset and lack of contact with ill patients makes this most consistent with a viral etiology rather than bacterial. The enlarged preauricular lymph nodes also support a viral cause. The correct medical therapy for viral conjunctivitis is no treatment, as antibiotics are not indicated for viral infections and may lead to unnecessary side effects or resistance. C: No medical treatment required 