<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:Seventy-two hours after admission for an acute myocardial infarction, a 48-year-old man develops dyspnea and a productive cough with frothy sputum. Physical examination shows coarse crackles in both lungs and a blowing, holosystolic murmur heard best at the apex. ECG shows Q waves in the anteroseptal leads. Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is 23 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patients current condition?? A: Postmyocardial infarction syndrome, B: Aortic root dilation, C: Rupture of the chordae tendinae, D: Rupture of the ventricular free wall, E: Rupture of the interventricular septum,  <response>: This is a patient who developed dyspnea, cough, and crackles 72 hours after an acute myocardial infarction. The description of a blowing, holosystolic murmur at the apex along with ECG changes and elevated pulmonary wedge pressure indicate complications from the recent myocardial infarction. The key finding is the holosystolic murmur suggesting a new valvular regurgitation. This, along with the timing after myocardial infarction, makes rupture of a papillary musclechordae tendinae the most likely diagnosis. Post-MI syndrome would not cause a new murmur. Aortic root dilation and ventricular free wall rupture would likely cause different murmur characteristics and timing. Septal rupture is less common than chordae tendinae rupture after MI.C: Rupture of the chordae tendinae 