<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She feels well. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last for 35 days, with normal flow. They are occasionally accompanied by pain. Three years ago, she was diagnosed with chlamydial cervicitis and treated with doxycycline. She has been sexually active with multiple partners since the age of 18 years. She regularly uses condoms for contraception. She drinks 23 beers on weekends and smokes half a pack of cigarettes daily. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination including a complete pelvic exam shows no abnormalities. A Pap smear shows a low-grade squamous epithelial lesion LSIL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Colposcopy with endocervical sampling, B: Colposcopy with endocervical and endometrial sampling, C: Repeat Pap smear in 12 months, D: Repeat Pap smear in 3 years, E: Loop electrosurgical excision procedure,  <response>: This is a question about the appropriate next step in managing a 24-year-old woman with a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion LSIL on Pap smear. Key points from the stem: - 24-year-old woman, routine health exam - Regular menses - History of chlamydia 3 years ago, treated - Multiple sexual partners since age 18 - Uses condoms for contraception - Smokes and drinks alcohol - Normal physical exam including pelvic exam - Pap smear shows LSILThe choices include different options for follow-up of the LSIL Pap smear finding, ranging from immediate procedures like colposcopy and LEEP to repeating Pap smear at various intervals. The analysis involves weighing the benefits and risks of more aggressive evaluation versus expectant management with repeat Pap smears for an LSIL in this patient.C: Repeat Pap smear in 12 months 