<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 34-year-old woman visits an outpatient clinic with a complaint of pain in her left breast for the last few months. The pain worsens during her menstrual cycle and relieves once the cycle is over. She denies any nipple discharge, skins changes, warmth, erythema, or a palpable mass in the breast. Her family history is negative for breast, endometrial, and ovarian cancer. There is no palpable mass or any abnormality in the physical examination of her breast. A mammogram is ordered which shows a cluster of microcalcifications with a radiolucent center. A breast biopsy is also performed which reveals a lobulocentric proliferation of epithelium and myoepithelium. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Intraductal papilloma, B: Fibroadenoma, C: Infiltrating ductal carcinoma, D: Sclerosing adenosis, E: Ductal hyperplasia without atypia,  <response>: Based on the information provided in the question stem, this appears to be a case involving a 34-year-old woman with cyclical breast pain and a family history negative for breast, endometrial, and ovarian cancer. Key findings include a mammogram showing microcalcifications with a radiolucent center and a breast biopsy revealing lobulocentric proliferation of epithelium and myoepithelium. The cyclical nature of the pain suggests a hormonal etiology. The negative family history makes hereditary breast cancer syndromes less likely. The mammogram and biopsy findings point towards a benign proliferative process rather than malignancy. The lobulocentric pattern on biopsy narrows the differential down to a fibroepithelial lesion like fibroadenoma or sclerosing adenosis rather than ductal hyperplasia or ductal carcinoma. The presence of microcalcifications favors sclerosing adenosis over fibroadenoma.D: Sclerosing adenosis 