<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician because she is unable to conceive for 3 years. She and her partner are sexually active and do not use contraception. They were partially assessed for this complaint 6 months ago. Analysis of her husbands semen has shown normal sperm counts and hormonal assays for both partners were normal. Her menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 5 to 6 days. Her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago. She had a single episode of urinary tract infection 4 years ago and was treated with oral antibiotics. Vaginal examination shows no abnormalities. Bimanual examination shows a normal-sized uterus and no palpable adnexal masses. Rectal examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?? A: Psychological counseling only, B: Postcoital testing, C: Hysteroscopy, D: Hysterosalpingogram, E: Chromosomal karyotyping,  <response>: This is a question about infertility workup in a 28-year-old woman who has been unable to conceive for 3 years despite regular, unprotected intercourse. Initial workup 6 months ago including semen analysis and hormonal assays were normal. She has regular menstrual cycles and normal pelvic exam findings. The most appropriate next step would be to assess tubal patency, given normal findings thus far. Postcoital testing assesses sperm-cervical mucus interaction and would not be the best next step. Hysteroscopy visualizes the uterine cavity but would not assess tubal patency. Chromosomal karyotyping is not routinely indicated in the initial infertility workup in women under 35 years of age. D: Hysterosalpingogram 