<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 69-year-old man with metastatic colon cancer is brought to the emergency department because of shortness of breath, fever, chills, and a productive cough with streaks of blood for the past 5 days. He has a history of emphysema. The patient does not have abdominal pain or headache. He receives chemotherapy with 5-fluorouracil, leucovorin, and oxaliplatin every 6 weeks; his last cycle was 3 weeks ago. His temperature is 38.3C 101F, pulse is 112min, and blood pressure is 10070 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 83. A few scattered inspiratory crackles are heard over the right lung. His mucous membranes are dry. Cardiac examination is normal. Laboratory studies show:Hemoglobin 9.3 mgdLLeukocyte count 700mm3Segmented neutrophils 68Lymphocytes 25Eosinophils 4Monocytes 3Platelet count 104,000mm3SerumGlucose 75 mgdLUrea nitrogen 41 mgdLCreatinine 2.1 mgdLGalactomannan antigen PositiveWhich of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy?? A: Ceftriaxone and azithromycin, B: Piperacillin-tazobactam, C: Ceftazidime and levofloxacin, D: Rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol, E: Voriconazole,  <response>: This is a patient with metastatic colon cancer on chemotherapy who presents with fever, respiratory symptoms, and abnormal lab results concerning for infection. The key findings are neutropenia, pulmonary infiltrates, and positive galactomannan antigen, which are consistent with invasive pulmonary aspergillosis in an immunocompromised host. The choices provided are different antibiotic regimens. Voriconazole is an antifungal medication that covers Aspergillus species. Therefore, voriconazole is the most appropriate initial therapy for this patient with suspected invasive aspergillosis.E: Voriconazole 