<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 31-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist for cervical cancer screening. She has no complaints and is sexually active. There is no history of cervical cancer or other malignancy in her family. A complete physical examination, including an examination of the genitourinary system, is normal. A sampling of the cervix is performed at the transformation zone and is sent for a Papanicolaou Pap smear examination and high-risk human papillomavirus HPV DNA testing. After examination of the smear, the cytopathologist informs the gynecologist that it is negative for high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions, but that atypical squamous cells are present in the sample and it is difficult to distinguish between reactive changes and low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. Atypical glandular cells are not present. The high-risk HPV DNA test is positive. Which of the following is the next best step in this patients management?? A: Follow-up after 1 year and repeat cytology by Pap smear and HPV testing, B: Follow-up after 3 years and repeat cytology by Pap smear, C: Colposcopy, D: Endometrial biopsy, E: Loop electrosurgical excision,  <response>: This is a question about cervical cancer screening in a 31-year-old woman. She had a normal physical exam but her Pap smear showed atypical squamous cells that were difficult to distinguish between reactive changes and low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. Her HPV DNA test was positive. The question is asking about the next best step in management.A Pap smear that shows atypical squamous cells along with a positive HPV test indicates a higher risk of having a precancerous cervical lesion. Guidelines recommend colposcopy as the next step when atypical squamous cells are seen on Pap smear and high-risk HPV is detected. Repeat Pap smear in 1 year or 3 years would delay diagnosis. Endometrial biopsy and LEEP are not indicated at this point.C: Colposcopy 