<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 37-year-old man comes to the physician because of increasing swelling and pain of his right knee for the past month. He has not had any trauma to the knee or previous problems with his joints. He has hypertension. His only medication is hydrochlorothiazide. He works as a carpet installer. He drinks two to three beers daily. He is 170 cm 5 ft 7 in tall and weighs 97 kg 214 lb; BMI is 33.6 kgm2. His temperature is 37C 98.6F, pulse is 88min, and blood pressure is 12282 mm Hg. Examination of the right knee shows swelling and erythema; there is fluctuant edema over the lower part of the patella. The range of flexion is limited because of the pain. The skin over the site of his pain is not warm. There is tenderness on palpation of the patella; there is no joint line tenderness. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Gout, B: Septic arthritis, C: Prepatellar bursitis, D: Osteoarthritis, E: Osgood-Schlatter diseasen,  <response>: This is a clinical case scenario involving a 37-year-old man with right knee pain and swelling. Based on the information provided, the most relevant findings are:- No history of trauma to the knee- No previous joint problems- Hypertension, on hydrochlorothiazide - BMI 33.6 kgm2 obese- Drinks 2-3 beers daily- Physical exam shows swelling, erythema, fluctuant edema over lower patella, limited flexion due to pain, tenderness over patella, no warmth or joint line tenderness.The key findings are the location of the pain and swelling over the patella, lack of warmth, and normal vital signs. This localizes the problem to the prepatellar bursa. The lack of fever makes septic arthritis unlikely. The history and physical do not support gout, osteoarthritis or Osgood-Schlatter disease. Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is prepatellar bursitis.C: Prepatellar bursitis 