<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 27-year-old primigravida presents at 16 weeks gestation for a check-up. She has no co-existing diseases. Currently, she has no subjective complaints, but she worries about the results of her triple screen. She takes 400 mg of folic acid and 30 mg of iron daily. The results of the triple screen are shown below. Measured values Reference valuesMaternal serum alpha-fetoprotein 2.9 MoM 0.85-2.5 MoMBeta-hCG 1.1 MoM 0.5-1 MoMUnconjugated estriol 1 MoM 0.5-3 MoMWhat would be the most proper next step in the management of this patient?? A: Perform amniocentesis, B: Recommend additional inhibit A test, C: Perform ultrasound examination, D: Test for CMV infection, rubella, and toxoplasmosis, E: Arrange a chorionic villus sampling procedure,  <response>: This is a question about interpreting triple screen results in pregnancy. The patient is 27 years old and 16 weeks pregnant with her first pregnancy. She has no medical issues and is taking prenatal vitamins. Her triple screen shows an elevated AFP which can indicate neural tube defects, abdominal wall defects, or issues with the placenta or amniotic fluid. Her other markers are within normal limits. The next step would be to get an ultrasound to visualize the anatomy and look for any structural abnormalities that could be causing the isolated elevated AFP. Amniocentesis carries risk and is not indicated based solely on this result. Additional inhibit A testing may be useful if the ultrasound is normal. Chorionic villus sampling is too invasive given the limited information so far. Testing for infections is not relevant based on the information provided.C: Perform ultrasound examination 