<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 28-year-old primigravid woman at 36 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department for 2 hours of contractions. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. The contractions occur once every 2030 minutes, last less than 30 seconds, and have been consistent in intensity and duration since onset. During that time there has been an increase in fetal movements. Her temperature is 37.1C 98.8F, pulse is 98min, and blood pressure is 10476 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows clear cervical mucus and a firm uterus consistent in size with a 36-week gestation. The cervix is 0 effaced and undilated; the vertex is at -3 station. The fetal heart rate is reassuring. After an hour of monitoring in the emergency department, the character of the contractions and pelvic examination findings remain unchanged. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?? A: Administer tocolytics, B: Offer local or regional anesthesia, C: Admit for continuous monitoring, D: Reassurance and discharge, E: Perform cesarean delivery,  <response>: This is a question about managing a pregnant woman at 36 weeks gestation who is experiencing contractions. Based on the information provided, this appears to be a case of false labor Braxton Hicks contractions. The key findings are:- Contractions are infrequent every 20-30 min, short 30 sec, and not increasing - No cervical changes closed and firm- Reassuring fetal heart rate- No other concerning symptomsThis suggests the contractions are not causing cervical changes or putting the fetus at risk. The goal would be to avoid unnecessary interventions.D: Reassurance and discharge 