<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 58-year-old woman comes to the physician because of headaches for 1 month. She describes them as 7 out of 10 in intensity. She has no nausea. Two years ago, she was treated for invasive lobular carcinoma of the left breast. She underwent a left mastectomy and multiple cycles of chemotherapy. She has been in good health since this treatment. Her temperature is 37C 98.6F, pulse is 90min, and blood pressure is 11872 mm Hg. There is a well-healed scar on the left side of the chest. There is no lymphadenopathy. The abdomen is soft and nontender; there is no organomegaly. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. An MRI of the brain shows a 4-cm temporal hyperintense mass near the surface of the brain. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Whole brain radiation therapy, B: Surgical resection, C: Chemotherapy, D: Antibiotic therapy, E: Palliative care,  <response>: This is a clinical case about a 58-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer who now presents with new onset headaches. MRI shows a brain mass concerning for metastatic disease. The key findings are her history of breast cancer, new onset headaches, and MRI finding of a brain mass. The question asks for the most appropriate next step in management. Given her history of breast cancer, new neurological symptoms, and finding of a brain mass, this is most concerning for metastatic brain disease. Therefore, the next step would be to obtain a tissue diagnosis to confirm metastasis and determine tumor biologysubtype to guide further treatment. Of the answer choices, surgical resection is the only one that would provide a tissue diagnosis and should be pursued as the next step over the other options like radiation, chemotherapy or antibiotics. Palliative care would not be appropriate as the next immediate step before confirming diagnosis and staging.B: Surgical resection 