<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 4-year-old male presents to the pediatrician with a one week history of fever, several days of bloody diarrhea, and right-sided abdominal pain. The mother explains that several other children at his sons pre-K have been having similar symptoms. She heard the daycare owner had similar symptoms and may have her appendix removed, but the mother claims this may just have been a rumor. Based on the history, the pediatrician sends for an abdominal ultrasound, which shows a normal vermiform appendix. She then sends a stool sample for culturing. The cultures demonstrate a Gram-negative bacteria that is motile at 25 C but not at 37 C, non-lactose fermenter, and non-hydrogen sulfide producer. What is the most likely causative agent?? A: Yersinia enterocolitica, B: Enterotoxigenic E. coli, C: Vibrio cholerae, D: Clostridium perfringens, E: Rotavirus,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette about a 4-year-old boy with a one week history of fever, bloody diarrhea, and abdominal pain. The history suggests a gastrointestinal infection that is spreading among children at his daycare. The ultrasound ruled out appendicitis. Stool cultures grew a Gram-negative, motile at 25C but not 37C, non-lactose fermenting, non-hydrogen sulfide producing bacterium. Based on the clinical presentation of bloody diarrhea and the microbiological characteristics of the organism, this sounds most consistent with an infection by Yersinia enterocolitica. Yersinia is a Gram-negative rod that causes gastroenteritis. It grows at lower temperatures but not at 37C. The other choices do not fit with the clinical presentation and microbiological features described.A: Yersinia enterocolitica 