<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A previously healthy 42-year-old man comes to the emergency room with constipation and diffuse, worsening abdominal pain for 2 days. He has no history of major medical illness. His father died in a car accident at the age of 32 years, and his mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus. A diagnosis of bowel obstruction is suspected and he is taken to the operating room for exploratory laparotomy. A partial resection of the colon is performed. The gross appearance of the patients colonic tissue is shown. Microscopic examination shows tubular, tubulovillous, and villous adenomas. Assuming the patients partner is not a carrier of the condition, which of the following is the likelihood that this patients children will develop this condition?? A: 100, B: 25, C: 75, D: 50, E: 0,  <response>: This is a question about hereditary colon cancer syndromes. The patient is a 42-year-old man with no significant medical history who presented with bowel obstruction and was found to have colonic adenomas. His father died at a young age from a car accident, and his mother has type 2 diabetes. On pathology, he was found to have tubular, tubulovillous, and villous adenomas. The description of the adenomas and young age of onset suggests this patient likely has familial adenomatous polyposis FAP. FAP is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutations in the APC gene. Children of an affected individual have a 50 chance of inheriting the mutation. The patients partners carrier status does not affect the risk to their children since FAP is autosomal dominant.D: 50 