<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 38-year-old woman presented to a clinic because of dementia, hemiparesis, ataxia, aphasia, and dysarthria that developed over the last 5 days. She had a 15-year history of intravenous drug abuse and was treated for fever, cough, and shortness of breath before the onset of neurological symptoms. Her MRI shows multiple white matter lesions, as seen in the picture. Over the course of 2 weeks, the patients condition worsens. Despite aggressive treatment, she lapses into a coma and dies. At autopsy, histologic examination of her brain tissue reveals gigantic, deformed astrocytes and oligodendrocytes with abnormal nuclei. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this womans neurological symptoms?? A: A double-stranded circular DNA virus, B: A proteinaceous infectious particle, C: A single-stranded linear RNA virus, D: An autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease, E: Autoimmune attack of myelin sheaths,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 38-year-old woman with a history of intravenous drug use who developed rapidly progressive dementia, hemiparesis, ataxia, aphasia, and dysarthria over 5 days. She also had a recent respiratory illness. MRI shows multiple white matter lesions. Over 2 weeks, she deteriorated and died. Autopsy showed abnormal astrocytes and oligodendrocytes. The key findings are the rapid neurological deterioration, white matter lesions on MRI, and abnormal glial cells on autopsy - all pointing towards a viral infection of the brain. The history of IV drug use and respiratory illness makes HIV infection likely. The description of the brain histology is typical for HIV encephalitis.Of the choices, A A double-stranded circular DNA virus describes HIV, which is the most likely cause in this case. The other choices do not fit with the clinical and histologic findings.A: A double-stranded circular DNA virus 