<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 22-year-old man comes to the physician because of yellow eyes and malaise for the past several hours. His symptoms began after he had cried at his fathers funeral this morning. He says that his fathers death was unexpected. He had a similar episode a year ago when he returned from a 2-day hiking trip. He has no history of any serious illness and takes no medications. His vital signs are within normal limits. His sclera are icteric. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:Hemoglobin 15 gdLMean corpuscular volume 95 μm3Leukocyte count 6000mm3 with a normal differentialSerum bilirubin, total 3.8 mgdLDirect bilirubin 0.5 mgdLLactate dehydrogenase 320 ULAlkaline phosphatase 70 ULAspartate aminotransferase AST, GOT 22 ULAlanine aminotransferase ALT, GPT 19 ULγ-Glutamyltransferase GGT 43 UL N5-50 ULWhich of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Prednisone, B: Packed cell transfusion, C: Phenobarbital, D: Reassurance, E: Refer for liver transplantation,  <response>: This is a clinical case of a 22-year-old man presenting with yellow eyes and malaise after attending his fathers funeral. His symptoms and history are consistent with Gilberts syndrome, which is a benign condition characterized by mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. The mildly elevated total and indirect bilirubin along with normal AST, ALT, and alkaline phosphatase indicate that this is likely Gilberts syndrome rather than liver disease or hemolysis. The normal hemoglobin and MCV rule out hemolysis or anemia as a cause. The key to managing Gilberts syndrome is reassurance, as it is a benign condition that does not require any specific treatment. Prednisone, packed cell transfusion, phenobarbital, and liver transplant would be inappropriate.D: Reassurance 