<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual routine examination. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last for 4 days with normal flow. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She is sexually active with one male partner and they use condoms consistently. The patient is 160 cm 5 ft 3 in tall and weighs 72 kg 150 lb; BMI is 28.1 kgm2. She feels well. Pelvic examination shows a smooth, mobile right adnexal mass. A subsequent ultrasound of the pelvis shows a single, 2-cm large, round, hypoechoic mass with a thin, smooth wall in the right ovary. The mass has posterior wall enhancement, and there are no signs of blood flow or septae within the mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Diagnostic laparoscopy, B: CA-125 level, C: CT scan of the pelvis, D: Oral contraceptive, E: Follow-up examination,  <response>: This is a question about the management of an incidental ovarian cyst found on pelvic exam and ultrasound in an asymptomatic woman. The key findings in the stem are: - 24-year-old woman with regular menstrual cycles - Incidental finding of a 2cm right ovarian cyst on pelvic exam and ultrasound - The cyst has features of a simple cyst on ultrasound thin smooth walls, no septations, no blood flow- The patient is asymptomatic The choices include different diagnostic tests and treatments. The correct next step will be conservative management with follow up, as the cyst has features of a benign simple cyst and the patient has no symptoms. Surgery, additional imaging, or starting oral contraceptives would be inappropriate at this point.E: Follow-up examination 