<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 4-year-old male is evaluated for frequent epistaxis and mucous membrane bleeding. Physical examination shows diffuse petechiae on the patients distal extremities. Peripheral blood smear shows an absence of platelet clumping. An ELISA binding assay reveals that platelet surfaces are deficient in GIIbIIIa receptors. Serum platelet count is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Hemophilia A, B: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, C: Bernard-Soulier disease, D: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, E: Glanzmanns thrombasthenia,  <response>: This is a clinical case of a 4-year-old male with symptoms of frequent epistaxis nosebleeds and mucous membrane bleeding, along with petechiae small red spots on the extremities. The key finding is that platelet surfaces are deficient in GIIbIIIa receptors, which are important for platelet aggregation and clot formation. Normal platelet count rules out thrombocytopenia. This presentation is most consistent with Glanzmanns thrombasthenia, an inherited autosomal recessive disorder caused by deficiency or dysfunction of GPIIbIIIa receptors on platelets. Hemophilia A is a coagulation factor deficiency, TTP involves microthrombi, ITP involves low platelet count, and Bernard-Soulier syndrome involves deficiency of another platelet surface receptor.E: Glanzmanns thrombasthenia 