<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 45-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of recurrent headaches. The headaches are of a dull, nonpulsating quality. The patient denies nausea, vomiting, photophobia, or phonophobia. Neurologic examination shows no abnormalities. The physician prescribes a drug that irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1 and cyclooxygenase-2 by covalent acetylation. Which of the following medications was most likely prescribed by the physician?? A: Indomethacin, B: Aspirin, C: Prednisolone, D: Celecoxib, E: Carbamazepine,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 45-year-old man with a 3-month history of recurrent, dull, nonpulsating headaches without associated symptoms. The physician prescribed a medication that irreversibly inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 via covalent acetylation. Based on the description, this is likely a case of tension-type headaches. The medication that irreversibly inhibits COX-1 and COX-2 via acetylation is aspirin. Indomethacin is an NSAID that reversibly inhibits COX-1 and COX-2. Prednisolone is a corticosteroid. Celecoxib selectively inhibits COX-2. Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant used for seizures and neuralgias.B: Aspirin 