<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 68-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of a lump in his left axilla that he first noticed 1 year ago. He reports that the size of the mass has varied over time and that there have been similar masses in his neck and groin. He has not had fever, weight loss, or night sweats. Physical examination shows a nontender, rubbery mass in the left axilla and a similar, smaller mass in the right groin. His spleen is palpable 3 cm below the left costal margin. Laboratory studies, including complete blood count, are within reference ranges. Genetic analysis obtained on resection of the axillary mass shows a t14;18 translocation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Hodgkin lymphoma, B: Follicular lymphoma, C: Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma, D: Burkitt lymphoma, E: Marginal zone lymphoma,  <response>: This is a clinical case about a 68-year-old man with rubbery masses in his axilla, neck and groin that have varied in size over time. He has no constitutional symptoms. Physical exam shows splenomegaly. Lab studies are normal. Biopsy of the axillary mass shows a t14;18 translocation. The key findings here are the indolent nature of the masses over 1 year, lack of constitutional symptoms, and the t14;18 translocation. The t14;18 translocation is characteristic of follicular lymphoma. The waxing and waning nature of the masses over time and lack of constitutional symptoms also point to an indolent lymphoma rather than an aggressive lymphoma like diffuse large B cell lymphoma or Burkitt lymphoma.Hodgkin lymphoma and marginal zone lymphoma would not have this genetic translocation.B: Follicular lymphoma 