<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 19-year-old woman comes to the physician because of pelvic pain and vaginal discharge that began 2 days ago. She has no history of serious medical illness and takes no medications. Her temperature is 39C 102.2F. Pelvic examination shows pain with movement of the cervix and mucopurulent cervical discharge. A Gram stain of the discharge does not show any organisms. A Giemsa stain shows intracytoplasmic inclusions. The patients current condition puts her at increased risk for which of the following complications?? A: Cervical cancer, B: Endometriosis, C: Aortic root dilatation, D: Purulent arthritis, E: Ectopic pregnancy,  <response>: This is a medical question asking about the complications that a 19-year-old woman with pelvic pain, vaginal discharge, high fever, and cervical discharge with intracytoplasmic inclusions seen on Giemsa stain is at increased risk for. Based on the clinical presentation, this is most consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease PID. The intracytoplasmic inclusions on Giemsa stain indicate chlamydia infection. PID and chlamydia infection put the patient at increased risk for ectopic pregnancy and infertility. E: Ectopic pregnancy 