<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 24-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia presents for follow-up. The patient says that he is still having paranoia and visual hallucinations on his latest atypical antipsychotic medication. Past medical history is significant for schizophrenia diagnosed 1 year ago that failed to be adequately controlled on 2 separate atypical antipsychotic medications. The patient is switched to a typical antipsychotic medication that has no effect on muscarinic receptors. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the medication that was most likely prescribed for this patient?? A: Cholinergic receptor agonist, B: Dopaminergic partial agonist, C: Dopaminergic receptor antagonist, D: Serotonergic receptor agonist, E: Serotonergic receptor antagonist,  <response>: This is a question about choosing the appropriate antipsychotic medication for a patient with schizophrenia who has failed multiple trials of atypical antipsychotics. The key details are that the patient has ongoing psychotic symptoms despite multiple atypical antipsychotics, and has now been switched to a typical antipsychotic that does not act on muscarinic receptors. Schizophrenia is characterized by positive symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions, which are due to excess dopamine activity, particularly at D2 receptors. Both typical and atypical antipsychotics act by blocking dopamine receptors, with atypicals having a lower affinity for D2 receptors and more affinity for serotonin receptors. The question states the new medication is a typical antipsychotic without antimuscarinic effects. Typical antipsychotics like haloperidol are potent D2 antagonists. Therefore, the mechanism of action of the medication prescribed is most likely choice C, dopaminergic receptor antagonist.C: Dopaminergic receptor antagonist 