<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 26-year-old gravida 1 at 36 weeks gestation is brought to the emergency department by her husband complaining of contractions lasting up to 2 minutes. The contractions are mostly in the front of her abdomen and do not radiate. The frequency and intensity of contractions have not changed since the onset. The patient worries that she is in labor. The blood pressure is 12580 mm Hg, the heart rate is 96min, the respiratory rate is 15min, and the temperature 36.8C 98.2F. The physical examination is unremarkable. The estimated fetal weight is 3200 g 6.6 lb. The fetal heart rate is 146min. The cervix is not dilated. The vertex is at the -4 station. Which of the following would be proper short-term management of this woman?? A: Admit to the Obstetrics Department in preparation for labor induction, B: Perform an ultrasound examination, C: Reassurance, hydration, and ambulation, D: Manage with terbutaline, E: Admit to the Obstetrics Department for observation,  <response>: This is a question about managing a pregnant woman at 36 weeks gestation who is experiencing contractions but no cervical changes. The key findings are:- Contractions lasting up to 2 minutes, mostly in front of abdomen, no change in frequencyintensity- No evidence of labor based on cervical exam not dilated and fetal station -4- Normal vital signs and fetal heart rate - Term pregnancy 36 weeksThis suggests Braxton Hicks contractions rather than true labor. The goal would be to provide reassurance and avoid unnecessary interventions. Options A, B, D, and E are too aggressive at this point. Option C of providing reassurance, hydration, and ambulation is the most appropriate initial short-term management.C: Reassurance, hydration, and ambulation 