<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 53-year-old woman comes to the physician in February because of a 1-day history of fever, chills, headache, and dry cough. She also reports malaise and generalized muscle aches. She works as a teacher at a local high school, where there was recently an outbreak of influenza. She has a history of intermittent asthma, for which she takes albuterol as needed. She declined the influenza vaccine offered in the fall because her sister told her that a friend developed a flulike illness after receiving the vaccine. She is worried about possibly becoming ill and cannot afford to miss work. Her temperature is 37.9C 100.3F, heart rate is 58min, and her respirations are 12min. Physical examination is unremarkable. Her hemoglobin concentration is 14.5 gdL, leukocyte count is 9,400mm3, and platelet count is 280,000mm3. In addition to analgesia, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Supportive therapy only, B: Amantadine, C: Inactivated influenza vaccine, D: Oseltamivir, E: Live attenuated influenza vaccine,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette about a 53-year-old woman presenting with acute onset of fever, chills, headache, dry cough, malaise and myalgias. She works as a teacher where there was recently an influenza outbreak. She has a history of asthma but declined the influenza vaccine. On exam she is febrile with minimal other findings. Lab tests show normal WBC, hemoglobin and platelets. The acute presentation is most consistent with influenza infection given the local outbreak and her exposure as a teacher. Vaccination is not useful at this point as she already has symptoms. Amantadine may help shorten symptoms but is most effective when started very early in illness course. The most appropriate management is to start the antiviral medication oseltamivir, which can reduce symptom duration and severity if given within 48 hours of symptom onset.D: Oseltamivir 