<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 67-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 9-month history of progressive fatigue. Examination shows pallor. Her hemoglobin concentration is 8.9 gdL, mean corpuscular volume is 75 μm3, and serum ferritin is 9 ngmL. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Colonoscopy shows an irregular, bleeding 3-cm exophytic ulcer in the right colon. Which of the following lesions is the greatest risk factor for this patients condition?? A: Submucosal lipomatous polyp, B: Serrated hyperplastic polyp, C: Villous adenomatous polyp, D: Tubular adenomatous polyp, E: Pedunculated inflammatory polyp,  <response>: This is a patient with iron deficiency anemia likely due to occult gastrointestinal bleeding. The question is asking about the type of colonic polyp that would pose the greatest risk for this presentation.The key findings in the stem are:- 67-year-old woman with 9-month history of fatigue- Pallor on exam - Hemoglobin 8.9 gdL low- Mean corpuscular volume 75 μm3 low- Serum ferritin 9 ngmL low - Positive stool occult blood test- Colonoscopy showed irregular, bleeding 3 cm exophytic ulcer in right colonThis indicates iron deficiency anemia from chronic gastrointestinal bleeding. The colonic ulcer is the likely source. Of the polyp choices, villous adenomas have the highest risk of bleeding and malignancy. They are most likely to be the source of her occult bleeding.C: Villous adenomatous polyp 