<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:Twelve days after undergoing a cadaveric renal transplant for adult polycystic kidney disease, a 23-year-old man has pain in the right lower abdomen and generalized fatigue. During the past 4 days, he has had decreasing urinary output. Creatinine concentration was 2.3 mgdL on the second postoperative day. Current medications include prednisone, cyclosporine, azathioprine, and enalapril. His temperature is 38C 100.4F, pulse is 103min, and blood pressure is 16898 mm Hg. Examination reveals tenderness to palpation on the graft site. Creatinine concentration is 4.3 mgdL. A biopsy of the transplanted kidney shows tubulitis. C4d staining is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patients findings?? A: Drug-induced nephrotoxicity, B: Donor T cells from the graft, C: Allorecognition with T cell activation, D: Irreversible fibrosis of the glomerular vessels, E: Preformed cytotoxic antibodies against class I HLA,  <response>: This is a question about a patient who recently underwent a kidney transplant and is now experiencing decreased urinary output, increased creatinine, fever, hypertension, and tenderness over the graft site. The biopsy shows tubulitis but no evidence of antibody-mediated rejection negative C4d staining. The key findings here are:- Recent kidney transplant - Decreasing kidney function increased creatinine, decreased urine output- Fever, hypertension - Tenderness over graft - Biopsy shows tubulitis but no antibody-mediated rejectionThis presentation is most consistent with acute cellular rejection, which involves T cell-mediated immune response against the graft. The negative C4d stain rules out antibody-mediated rejection. Nephrotoxicity from medications like cyclosporine could also cause similar findings, but acute rejection is more likely in this scenario.C: Allorecognition with T cell activation 