<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:Two days after admission for myocardial infarction and subsequent coronary angioplasty, a 65-year-old man becomes distressed and diaphoretic in the cardiac intensive care unit. Suddenly he is no longer responsive. Pulse oximetry does not show a tracing. He has a history of hypertension and depression. Prior to his admission, his medication included ramipril and aripiprazole. Examination shows no carotid pulse. An ECG is shown. After beginning chest compressions, which of the following is the most appropriate step in management of the patient?? A: Intravenous procainamide, B: Defibrillation, C: Intravenous magnesium sulfate, D: Cardiac catheterization, E: Intravenous amiodarone,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a patient who has suffered a cardiac arrest after undergoing coronary angioplasty for a myocardial infarction. The key details are that the patient suddenly became unresponsive with no pulse, and the ECG shows ventricular fibrillation. The question asks for the most appropriate next step in management. The choices include antiarrhythmic medications like procainamide, amiodarone, and magnesium, as well as defibrillation and cardiac catheterization. Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia that requires immediate defibrillation. Antiarrhythmic medications are not first-line treatments for ventricular fibrillation. Cardiac catheterization is used to treat blockages in the coronary arteries but will not address the immediate life-threatening arrhythmia. Therefore, defibrillation is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient.B: Defibrillation 