<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 16-year-old girl comes to the physician with her mother because of intermittent abdominal cramps, fatigue, and increased urination over the past 3 months. She has no history of serious illness. She reports that she has not yet had her first menstrual period. Her mother states that she receives mostly A and B grades in school and is very active in school athletics. Her mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus and her maternal aunt has polycystic ovary syndrome. Her only medication is a daily multivitamin. The patient is 150 cm 4 ft 11 in tall and weighs 50 kg 110 lb; BMI is 22.2 kgm2. Vital signs are within normal limits. A grade 26 early systolic murmur is heard best over the pulmonic area and increases with inspiration. The abdomen is diffusely tender to palpation and a firm mass is felt in the lower abdomen. Breast and pubic hair development are at Tanner stage 5. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Pelvic ultrasound, B: Fasting glucose and lipid panel, C: Serum fT4, D: Serum β-hCG, E: Karyotyping,  <response>: This is a question about a 16-year-old girl who has not had her first menstrual period yet. She is presenting with abdominal cramps, fatigue, increased urination, and a lower abdominal mass. Important history includes a family history of type 2 diabetes in her mother and polycystic ovary syndrome in her maternal aunt. On exam she has Tanner stage 5 pubertal development but no menstruation. The differential diagnosis includes pregnancy, ovarian masscyst, and chromosomal abnormality. A pelvic ultrasound would allow visualization of the ovaries and uterus and identify any masses. Checking serum beta-hCG would help rule in or out pregnancy. Karyotyping would identify any chromosomal abnormalities. Fasting glucose and lipids and checking T4 would not be the most appropriate next steps.D: Serum β-hCG 