<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 9-year-old African-American boy is brought to the physician by his mother because of an itchy rash on the right side of his scalp and progressive loss of hair for 1 month. He has no history of serious illness. His younger sibling was treated for pediculosis capitis 3 months ago. The boy attends elementary school, but has not been going for the last week because he was too embarrassed by the rash. He appears anxious. A photograph of his scalp is shown. Occipital lymphadenopathy is present. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Shampoo containing zinc-pyrithone, B: Topical mupirocin, C: Oral griseofulvin, D: Topical permethrin, E: Calcipotriene,  <response>: This is a clinical case about a 9-year-old African-American boy with an itchy scalp rash, hair loss, and occipital lymphadenopathy. The history and physical exam findings are most consistent with tinea capitis, a fungal infection of the scalp. The differential diagnosis includes seborrheic dermatitis and alopecia areata. However, the lymphadenopathy points more specifically to tinea capitis. The most appropriate next step would be to treat the presumed fungal infection.C: Oral griseofulvin 