<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 67-year-old woman presents with her husband because of left leg pain and swelling of 3 days duration. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and recent hospitalization for congestive heart failure exacerbation. On physical examination, the left calf is 4 cm greater in circumference than the right. Pitting edema is present on the left leg and there are superficial dilated veins. Venous duplex ultrasound shows an inability to fully compress the lumen of the profunda femoris vein. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Superficial venous thrombophlebitis, B: Erythema nodosum, C: Lymphangitis, D: Deep venous thrombosis, E: Ruptured popliteal cyst,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 67-year-old woman with left leg swelling and pain. She has a history of diabetes and heart failure. On exam she has left calf swelling, pitting edema, and dilated superficial veins. Duplex ultrasound shows inability to compress the profunda femoris vein. The key findings here are unilateral leg swelling and pain in an older adult with risk factors, as well as ultrasound evidence of deep venous thrombosis. Erythema nodosum, lymphangitis, and ruptured popliteal cyst would not cause inability to compress the vein on ultrasound. Superficial thrombophlebitis may cause leg pain and swelling, but would not cause deep vein thrombosis on ultrasound.Therefore, the most likely diagnosis is deep venous thrombosis.D: Deep venous thrombosis 