<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 32-year-old HIV positive female known to be non-adherent to her treatment regimen, presents to the hospital with the complaint of new-onset headaches. Her vital signs are only significant for a low-grade fever. Neurological examination reveals right-sided upper motor neuron signs, as well as a inattention and difficulty with concentration. The patient currently does not have a primary medical provider. A CT of the patients head is shown in the image below. What is the next best step in management for this patient?? A: Perform a biopsy of the lesion, B: Perform an analysis for 14-3-3 protein levels, C: Begin treatment with pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine, D: Begin treatment with albendazole and corticosteroids, E: Begin treatment with acyclovir,  <response>: Based on the information provided, this patient is a 32-year-old HIV positive female with poor adherence to medications who now presents with new onset headaches and low-grade fever. She has neurological findings concerning for upper motor neuron disease as well as inattention and difficulty concentrating. Imaging shows a ring-enhancing lesion concerning for toxoplasmosis. In an HIV positive patient with CD4 count likely low given non-adherence to medications, this presentation is most consistent with CNS toxoplasmosis. The next best step would be to start treatment for toxoplasmosis with pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine. Biopsy would be too invasive. Testing for 14-3-3 protein would not be useful here. Albendazole and corticosteroids would be used for neurocysticercosis. Acyclovir would be incorrect as this presentation is not consistent with herpes encephalitis.C: Begin treatment with pyrimethamine-sulfadiazine 