<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 51-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of upper abdominal pain for the last several hours. He says that the pain travels to his back and is less severe when he leans forward. He is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis following enzyme analysis and CT scan of the abdomen and is subsequently managed in intensive care unit ICU with IV fluids, analgesics, nasogastric decompression, and supportive therapy. He recovers quickly and is discharged within a week. However, after 5 weeks, the patient develops projectile vomiting containing food but no bile. Physical examination shows visible peristalsis from left to right in the upper abdomen. A repeat CT scan is done. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?? A: Need no management as this will resolve spontaneously, B: Octreotide infusion to reduce all gastrointestinal secretions, C: External percutaneous drainage of the lesion, D: Endoscopic drainage, E: Intravenous fluids, analgesia, and antiemetics,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 51-year-old man with acute pancreatitis who later develops projectile vomiting and visible peristalsis in the upper abdomen. A repeat CT scan was done. The question asks about the next best step in management.Based on the clinical history, the patient likely developed a pancreatic pseudocyst as a complication of acute pancreatitis. The projectile vomiting and visible peristalsis indicate gastric outlet obstruction from compression of the pseudocyst. The choices describe different management options for a pancreatic pseudocyst causing gastric outlet obstruction.D: Endoscopic drainage 