<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 77-year-old woman is brought by ambulance to the emergency department after she developed weakness of her right arm along with a right-sided facial droop. By the time the ambulance arrived, she was having difficulty speaking. Past medical history is significant for hypertension, diabetes mellitus type II, and hyperlipidemia. She takes lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, metformin, and atorvastatin. On arrival to the emergency department, her vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, she is awake and alert but the right side of her mouth is dropping, making it difficult for her to speak clearly. Her heart has a regular rate and rhythm and her lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Fingerstick glucose is 85 mgdL. Her right upper extremity strength is 25 and her left upper extremity strength is 55. Which of the following is the best next step in management?? A: Intubate the patient, B: Obtain noncontrast CT of the brain, C: Obtain transcranial doppler, D: Start tissue plasminogen activator tPA, E: Consult cardiology,  <response>: This is a patient presenting with acute onset right-sided weakness and facial droop, making it difficult to speak. She has risk factors for stroke including hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia. Her symptoms and examination findings are concerning for an acute ischemic stroke. The best next step would be to obtain a noncontrast CT scan of the brain to determine if she has an ischemic stroke and to assess whether she is a candidate for thrombolytic therapy with tPA. Intubation would not be indicated unless she cannot protect her airway. Transcranial doppler and cardiology consultation are not the next best steps. B: Obtain noncontrast CT of the brain 