<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 75-year-old male is hospitalized for bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain after meals. Endoscopic work-up and CT scan lead the attending physician to diagnose ischemic colitis at the splenic flexure. Which of the following would most likely predispose this patient to ischemic colitis:? A: Increased splanchnic blood flow following a large meal, B: Essential hypertension, C: Obstruction of the abdominal aorta following surgery, D: Hyperreninemic hyperaldosteronism secondary to type II diabetes mellitus, E: Juxtaglomerular cell tumor,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 75-year-old male with bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain after meals, who is diagnosed with ischemic colitis at the splenic flexure based on endoscopy and CT findings. The question asks which of the listed conditions would most likely predispose this patient to ischemic colitis.Choice A can be eliminated, as increased splanchnic blood flow following a meal would not predispose to ischemia. Choice B, essential hypertension, is a risk factor for ischemic colitis, as it can cause atherosclerosis of the mesenteric arteries. However, there are likely better choices.Choice C, obstruction of the abdominal aorta after surgery, would significantly reduce blood flow to the colon and is the most likely predisposing factor for ischemic colitis in this vignette. Choice D, hyperreninemic hyperaldosteronism in diabetes, may contribute to atherosclerosis but is less likely than abdominal aortic obstruction.Choice E, a juxtaglomerular cell tumor, can cause hypertension but is a rare cause that is unlikely to be the best answer here.C: Obstruction of the abdominal aorta following surgery 