<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 26-year-old immigrant from Mexico presents to your clinic for a physical. He tells you that several weeks ago, he noticed a lesion on his penis which went away after several weeks. It was nontender and did not bother him. He currently does not have any complaints. His temperature is 97.9F 36.6C, blood pressure is 13991 mmHg, pulse is 87min, respirations are 14min, and oxygen saturation is 98 on room air. Physical exam is unremarkable and shows no evidence of any rash. A VDRL and FTA-ABS test are both positive. What is the most appropriate management of this patient?? A: Acyclovir, B: Azithromycin and ceftriaxone, C: Doxycycline, D: No treatment indicated, E: Penicillin,  <response>: This is a patient with a history suggestive of a painless genital lesion that resolved spontaneously, along with positive syphilis serology. The description of the lesion is consistent with a chancre of primary syphilis. The appropriate treatment for early syphilis infection is intramuscular benzathine penicillin G. VDRL and FTA-ABS are treponemal tests used to diagnose syphilis. A positive result confirms exposure to Treponema pallidum. Acyclovir is used for herpes infections, not syphilis. Azithromycin and ceftriaxone would be used for gonorrhea and chlamydia, not syphilis. Doxycycline could be used as an alternative treatment for syphilis in penicillin-allergic patients. No treatment is not appropriate for a patient with serologic evidence of untreated syphilis.E: Penicillin 