<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 30-year-old man comes to the physician after receiving a high blood pressure reading of 16090 mm Hg at an annual employee health check-up. During the past few months, the patient has had occasional headaches and mild abdominal pain, both of which were relieved with ibuprofen. He has also had several episodes of heart palpitations. He has no history of serious illness. His mother and father both have hypertension. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years and drinks one glass of wine daily. He occasionally smokes marijuana. He appears pale. His temperature is 36.8C 98.2F, pulse is 103min, and blood pressure is 164102 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:Hemoglobin 15.3 gdLLeukocyte count 7,900mm3Platelet count 223,000mm3SerumNa 138 mEqLK 4.6 mEqLCl- 103 mEqLUrea nitrogen 14 mgdLGlucose 90 mgdLCreatinine 0.9 mgdLPlasma metanephrines 1.2 nmolL N 0.5 nmolLUrine toxicology screening is positive for tetrahydrocannabinol THC. Renal doppler shows no abnormalities. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a mass in the left adrenal gland. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?? A: MIBG therapy, B: Phenoxybenzamine, C: Resection of adrenal mass, D: Propranolol, E: Metoprolol,  <response>: Based on the patients symptoms of headaches, palpitations, and hypertension, as well as the lab findings of elevated plasma metanephrines and a left adrenal mass on CT, this patient likely has pheochromocytoma. The next step in management would be to start alpha blockade with phenoxybenzamine prior to surgical resection of the tumor, in order to prevent intraoperative hypertensive crisis.B: Phenoxybenzamine 