<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 37-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 35 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. Her three children were delivered by Cesarean section. One hour after vaginal delivery, the placenta is not delivered. Manual separation of the placenta leads to profuse vaginal bleeding. Her pulse is 122min and blood pressure is 9067 mm Hg. A firm, nontender uterine fundus is palpated at the level of the umbilicus. Hemoglobin is 8.3 gdL and platelet count is 220,000mm3. Activated partial thromboplastin time and prothrombin time are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patients postpartum bleeding?? A: Impaired uterine contractions, B: Consumption of intravascular clotting factors, C: Rupture of the uterine wall, D: Rupture of the fetal vessels, E: Defective decidual layer of the placenta,  <response>: This is a question about postpartum hemorrhage in a woman with a history of previous cesarean deliveries who now has delivered vaginally. The description of manual removal of the placenta leading to bleeding suggests placental abruption as the cause. The lab values show no evidence of coagulopathy. Uterine rupture is unlikely given the firm contracted uterus on exam. Fetal vessel rupture would not lead to delayed postpartum bleeding. Therefore, the most likely cause is a defective decidual layer of the placenta, which can occur after previous cesarean deliveries and lead to placental abruption.E: Defective decidual layer of the placenta 