<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency room following a seizure. The patient suffered from an upper respiratory infection complicated by sinusitis two weeks ago. The patients past medical history is remarkable for hypertension for which he takes hydrochlorathiazide. Temperature is 39.5C, blood pressure is 12060 mmHg, pulse is 85min, and respiratory rate is 20min. Upon interview, the patient appears confused and exhibits photophobia. CSF cultures are obtained. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?? A: Ceftriaxone, B: Ceftriaxone and vancomycin, C: Ceftriaxone, vancomycin and ampicillin, D: MRI of the head, E: Head CT,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 45-year-old male who presents to the ER following a seizure, with a history of a recent upper respiratory infection complicated by sinusitis. The question asks about the most appropriate next step in management. Based on the history of sinusitis preceding the seizure, there is concern for possible bacterial meningitis causing the seizure. The patient is febrile and appears confused with photophobia, further supporting possible meningitis. CSF cultures were obtained, which is appropriate. The answer choices include different antibiotic options to cover common bacterial pathogens that cause meningitis as well as imaging options. Imaging would be important for this patient at some point to evaluate for complications of meningitis, but empiric antibiotics would be the most urgent next step while awaiting CSF results.B: Ceftriaxone and vancomycin 