<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 12-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of a 6-day history of gradually worsening left knee pain. The pain is exacerbated by movement and kneeling. There is no pain at rest and no history of trauma to the knee. He is concerned because his soccer tryouts are in a few days. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows mild swelling and tenderness to palpation of the left anterior, superior tibia. Extension of the left knee against resistance reproduces the knee pain; flexion is limited by pain. There is no local erythema or effusion of the left knee. A lateral view of an x-ray of his left knee is shown. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patients symptoms?? A: Impingement of the infrapatellar fat pad, B: Inflammation of the infrapatellar bursa, C: Chondromalacia patella, D: Traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle, E: Osteochondritis dissecans of the knee,  <response>: Based on the description, this appears to be a case of anterior knee pain in an adolescent boy with no history of trauma. The key findings are pain with movement and kneeling localized to the anterior-superior aspect of the tibia near the tibial tubercle. The x-ray shows irregularity of the tibial tubercle apophysis. This presentation is most consistent with traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle, also known as Osgood-Schlatter disease. The differential diagnosis includes patellofemoral pain syndrome chondromalacia patella, infrapatellar fat pad impingement, infrapatellar bursitis, and osteochondritis dissecans. However, the location and characteristics of the pain along with the x-ray findings point specifically to Osgood-Schlatter disease as the most likely diagnosis.D: Traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle 