<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 26-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of intractable, 1010 abdominal pain without nausea or vomiting. His CT is unremarkable, and other aspects of his history and physical examination suggest that his complaints may not be organic in etiology. His medical record is notable for previous ED visits with similar complaints that had resolved on one occasion with narcotic agents. A previous psychiatric evaluation reports a long history of migraines, depression, and characteristics of antisocial personality disorder. Which of the following best explains his abdominal symptoms?? A: Antisocial personality disorder, B: Conversion disorder, C: Malingering, D: Münchhausen syndrome, E: Opioid withdrawal,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 26-year-old man with severe abdominal pain but normal CT scan and no other concerning findings on history or physical exam. His past medical history is notable for similar complaints that resolved with narcotics, as well as migraines, depression, and antisocial personality disorder. The question asks which of the following best explains his current symptoms.Based on the unremarkable workup but history of similar complaints resolving with narcotics, as well as the psychiatric history, this appears to be a case of malingering - fabricating or exaggerating symptoms for external gain, often to obtain medications. Antisocial personality disorder may predispose him to this behavior but does not directly explain the symptoms. Conversion disorder is a possibility but less likely given the external incentive for his symptoms narcotics. Münchhausen syndrome involves fabricating symptoms for internal psychological reasons rather than external gain. Opioid withdrawal could cause abdominal pain but other features of withdrawal are not described.C: Malingering 