<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:Eighteen hours after undergoing surgery for a splenic rupture and liver laceration following a high-speed motor vehicle collision, a 23-year-old mans pulse is 140min, blood pressure is 8050 mm Hg, and central venous pressure is 19 cm H2O. He was transfused with 6 units of packed red blood cells during surgery. Examination shows jugular venous distention. There is a midline surgical incision with no erythema or discharge. The abdomen is tense and distended. The total urine output over the past 6 hours is 90 mL. Serum studies show:Urea nitrogen 80 mgdLCreatinine 3.0 mgdLHCO3- 29 mEqLWhich of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Administration of fresh frozen plasma, B: Reopen abdomen and cover with plastic, C: Administration of intravenous antibiotics, D: Angiographic embolization, E: Hemicolonic resection,  <response>: This is a question about managing a patient after splenic rupture and liver laceration surgery. The patient has signs of hypovolemic shock likely due to ongoing internal bleeding, including tachycardia, hypotension, elevated CVP, jugular venous distention, abdominal distension, and oliguria. The lab values show acute kidney injury. The choices include giving FFP A, re-exploring the abdomen B, giving antibiotics C, angiographic embolization D, and colon resection E. The key is to identify and control the likely source of ongoing bleeding. Re-exploring the abdomen surgically is the most direct way to find and control any surgical bleeding sites. Antibiotics and colon resection do not address the likely source of bleeding. Angiographic embolization could be considered but surgical re-exploration is more definitive. FFP may help but does not directly address the bleeding source.B: Reopen abdomen and cover with plastic 