<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 46-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 3-day history of productive cough with purulent sputum and fever with chills. On the second day of admission, he develops bloody vomiting, altered mental status, and multiple red spots all over the body. He is oriented only to self. His temperature is 39.3C 102.7F, pulse is 110min, respirations are 26min, and blood pressure is 8650 mm Hg. Physical examination shows ecchymoses on both lower extremities. Crackles are heard at the right lung base. Laboratory studies show a platelet count of 45,000mm3, with a prothrombin time of 44 sec and partial thromboplastin time of 62 sec. D-dimer concentrations are elevated. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patients ecchymoses?? A: Disseminated intravascular coagulation, B: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura, C: Severe hepatic dysfunction, D: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura, E: Hemolytic uremic syndromen,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 46-year-old man with a 3-day history of productive cough, fever, and purulent sputum who develops bloody vomiting, altered mental status, petechiae, thrombocytopenia, coagulopathy, and elevated D-dimer. The key findings are:- Fever, productive cough, purulent sputum - suggests bacterial pneumonia- Bloody vomiting, altered mental status - suggests disseminatedsevere infection- Petechiae, thrombocytopenia, coagulopathy - suggests DIC - Elevated D-dimer - supports DICThe prolonged PT, PTT, and thrombocytopenia point towards DIC as the most likely cause of his ecchymoses. The other choices can cause thrombocytopenia but are less likely given the clinical picture.A: Disseminated intravascular coagulation 