<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 25-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 4-day history of bloody stools. During this time, he has not had nausea, vomiting, abdominal cramps, or pain while defecating. He has had recurrent episodes of non-bloody diarrhea for the past 6 months. His father died of colon cancer at the age of 39 years. His vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows small, painless bony swellings on the mandible, forehead, and right shin. There are multiple non-tender, subcutaneous nodules with central black pores present over the trunk and face. Fundoscopic examination shows multiple, oval, darkly pigmented lesions on the retina. Colonoscopy shows approximately 150 colonic polyps. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?? A: Cronkhite-Canada syndrome, B: Lynch syndrome, C: Peutz-Jeghers syndrome, D: Gardner syndrome, E: Cowden syndrome,  <response>: This is a clinical vignette describing a 25-year-old man with a 4-day history of bloody stools and a family history of early-onset colon cancer in his father, who died at age 39. He has had recurrent non-bloody diarrhea for 6 months. On exam, he has bony swellings, subcutaneous nodules with black pores, and retinal lesions. Colonoscopy shows numerous polyps. The family history of early-onset colon cancer suggests a hereditary colon cancer syndrome. The physical exam findings of bony lesions, skin findings, and retinal lesions narrow the differential. The large number of colonic polyps also helps point to the diagnosis. Of the choices given, Gardner syndrome best fits the clinical presentation of colonic polyps, osteomas, epidermoid cysts, and retinal lesions.D: Gardner syndrome 