<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with left lower quadrant abdominal pain and fever for 1 day. He states during this time frame he has had weight loss and a decreased appetite. The patient had surgery for a ruptured Achilles tendon 1 month ago and is still recovering but is otherwise generally healthy. His temperature is 102F 38.9C, blood pressure is 15494 mmHg, pulse is 90min, respirations are 15min, and oxygen saturation is 98 on room air. Physical exam is remarkable for an uncomfortable and thin man with left lower quadrant abdominal tenderness without rebound findings. Fecal occult test for blood is positive. Laboratory studies are ordered as seen below.Hemoglobin: 10 gdLHematocrit: 30Leukocyte count: 3,500mm3 with normal differentialPlatelet count: 157,000mm3Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?? A: Ceftriaxone and metronidazole, B: Ciprofloxacin and metronidazole, C: Colonoscopy, D: CT abdomen, E: MRI abdomen,  <response>: This is a patient with fever, left lower quadrant abdominal pain, weight loss, decreased appetite, and a positive fecal occult blood test, which raises suspicion for an intra-abdominal infection or inflammatory process such as diverticulitis. The labs show a mild anemia and leukopenia, which can be seen with infection. Imaging with CT abdomen would be the most appropriate next step to evaluate for diverticulitis or other intra-abdominal infection or abscess. Colonoscopy would not be recommended acutely given the concern for perforation with active colitis. Starting antibiotics empirically or getting an MRI abdomen would not be the best options as the first step. D: CT abdomen 