<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department for sudden weakness. He was doing mechanical work on his car where he acutely developed right-leg weakness and fell to the ground. He is accompanied by his wife, who said that this has never happened before. He was last seen neurologically normal approximately 2 hours prior to presentation. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and type II diabetes. His temperature is 98.8F 37.1C, blood pressure is 177108 mmHg, pulse is 90min, respirations are 15min, and oxygen saturation is 99 on room air. Neurological exam reveals that he is having trouble speaking and has profound weakness of his right upper and lower extremity. Which of the following is the best next step in management?? A: Aspirin, B: CT angiogram, C: MRI of the head, D: Noncontrast head CT, E: Thrombolytics,  <response>: This is a patient with acute onset right-sided weakness concerning for stroke. The key findings are the acute onset of neurological deficits and no prior history of similar episodes. The differential diagnosis includes ischemic stroke, hemorrhagic stroke, or stroke mimics. The best initial test is a noncontrast head CT, which can quickly differentiate between ischemic and hemorrhagic stroke. It is widely available, fast, and cost-effective. MRI provides more detail but takes longer. CT angiogram visualizes vessels but exposes the patient to contrast and radiation without adding significant diagnostic value over CT in the acute setting. Aspirin and thrombolytics should not be given until hemorrhage is excluded by imaging.D: Noncontrast head CT 