<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 28-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 14 weeks gestation, comes to the physician with a 3-day history of abnormal vaginal discharge. She has not had fever, chills, or abdominal pain. One week ago, her 2-year-old daughter had a urinary tract infection that quickly resolved after antibiotic therapy. The patient reports that she is sexually active with one male partner and they do not use condoms. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows an inflamed and friable cervix. There is mucopurulent, foul-smelling discharge from the cervical os. There is no uterine or cervical motion tenderness. Vaginal pH measurement shows a pH of 3.5. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?? A: Wet mount preparation, B: Amine test, C: Urine analysis and culture, D: Nucleic acid amplification test, E: Potassium hydroxide preparation,  <response>: This is a patient with symptoms of abnormal vaginal discharge that started 3 days ago. She has no fever, chills or abdominal pain. Her 2-year-old daughter recently had a UTI that resolved with antibiotics. She is sexually active with one partner and they do not use condoms. On exam, she has an inflamed, friable cervix with foul-smelling mucopurulent discharge and a normal vaginal pH of 3.5. The key finding here is the mucopurulent cervical discharge, which indicates cervicitis likely due to a sexually transmitted infection. The next step would be to identify the organism causing the cervicitis. A wet mount preparation allows direct visualization of trichomonads, clue cells bacterial vaginosis or yeast. A nucleic acid amplification test NAAT detects gonorrhea and chlamydia. An amine test detects the amines released by bacterial vaginosis. A KOH prep detects yeast. A urine culture would not be helpful in diagnosing the cause of cervicitis.D: Nucleic acid amplification test 