<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 27-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with lower back pain. He notes that the pain started over a year ago but has become significantly worse over the past few months. The pain is most severe in the mornings. His past medical history is unremarkable except for a recent episode of right eye pain and blurry vision. Radiographs of the spine and pelvis show bilateral sacroiliitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?? A: Indomethacin, B: Methotrexate, C: Cyclophosphamide, D: Oral prednisone, E: Bed rest,  <response>: This is a patient with inflammatory back pain and sacroiliitis on imaging, which is most consistent with ankylosing spondylitis. The history of eye inflammation also supports this diagnosis. Ankylosing spondylitis is typically treated first-line with NSAIDs like indomethacin to reduce inflammation and pain. Methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, and oral steroids may be used as well but are not first-line. Bed rest is not recommended as it can worsen stiffness.A: Indomethacin 