<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 28-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 40 weeks of gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. The patient has attended many prenatal appointments and followed her physicians advice about screening for diseases, laboratory testing, diet, and exercise. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has no history of a serious illness. Her first child was delivered via normal vaginal delivery. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Cervical examination shows 80 effacement, 5 cm dilation and softening without visible fetal parts or prolapsed umbilical cord. A cardiotocograph is shown. Which of the following options is the most appropriate initial step in management?? A: Administration of beta-agonists, B: Amnioinfusion, C: Operative vaginal delivery, D: Repositioning, E: Urgent Cesarean delivery,  <response>: This is a question about the initial management of a woman in active labor at 40 weeks gestation. Based on the information provided, this is a normal, uncomplicated labor so far. The woman is in the active phase of labor with 5cm cervical dilation and 80 effacement. There are no concerning findings on the fetal heart rate tracing per the cardiotocograph. The initial step should be a conservative, expectant approach allowing labor to progress naturally without medical intervention. Options A, B, C, and E are all more invasive interventions that are not indicated at this stage of an uncomplicated labor.D: Repositioning 