<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 68-year-old man presents with a 3-month history of difficulty starting urination, weak stream, and terminal dribbling. The patient has no history of serious illnesses and is not under any medications currently. The patients father had prostate cancer at the age of 58 years. Vital signs are within normal range. Upon examination, the urinary bladder is not palpable. Further examination reveals normal anal sphincter tone and a bulbocavernosus muscle reflex. Digital rectal exam DRE shows a prostate size equivalent to 2 finger pads with a hard nodule and without fluctuance or tenderness. The prostate-specific antigen PSA level is 5 ngmL. Image-guided biopsy indicates prostate cancer. MRI shows tumor confined within the prostate. Radionuclide bone scan reveals no abnormalities. Which of the following interventions is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?? A: Chemotherapy androgen deprivation therapy, B: Finasteride tamsulosin, C: Radiation therapy androgen deprivation therapy, D: Radical prostatectomy chemotherapy, E: Radical prostatectomy radiation therapy,  <response>: This is a patient with symptoms of prostatism along with a family history of prostate cancer. The digital rectal exam and PSA are concerning for prostate cancer, which was confirmed on biopsy. Imaging shows the cancer is localized to the prostate. The question is asking for the most appropriate next step in managing this patient with localized prostate cancer.C: Radiation therapy androgen deprivation therapy 