<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 17-year-old female presents to your office expressing concern that despite experiencing monthly pelvic pain for the past few years, she has not yet started her menstrual cycle. She is not taking oral contraceptive therapy and has never been sexually active. On physical exam the patient is of normal stature with appropriate breast development and growth of pubic and underarm hair. The patient declined a vaginal exam. Karyotype analysis reveals she has 46 XX. Pregnancy test is negative, thyroid stimulating hormone, prolactin, luteinizing hormone LH and follicle-stimulating hormone FSH levels are normal. The uterus is normal on ultrasound. What is the likely cause of this patients primary amenorrhea?? A: Failure in development of Mullerian duct, B: Premature ovarian failure, C: Failed canalization of external vaginal membrane, D: Androgen insensitivity, E: Pituitary infarct,  <response>: This is a question about primary amenorrhea in a 17-year-old female. Based on the information provided, she has normal secondary sexual characteristics and normal hormone levels, indicating normal pubertal development. The karyotype is 46 XX, ruling out chromosomal abnormalities as a cause. Anatomically, the uterus appears normal on ultrasound. The likely cause is a problem with the outflow tract, given normal internal development but no menstruation. Choice C, failed canalization of the vagina, is the most likely anatomical cause that would prevent menstrual flow despite normal hormone levels and internal development.Choices A, B, D, and E can be ruled out based on the information provided. Choice A would cause lack of internal reproductive organ development. Choice B would lead to abnormal hormone levels. Choice D would cause lack of secondary sexual characteristics. Choice E would not lead to primary amenorrhea with normal anatomy.C: Failed canalization of external vaginal membrane 