<prompt> Please answer with one of the option in the bracket. Write reasoning in between . Write answer in between .Q:A 37-year-old man with a history of IV drug use presents to the ED with complaints of fevers, chills, and malaise for one week. He admits to recently using IV and intramuscular heroin. Vital signs are as follows: T 40.0 C, HR 120 bpm, BP 11068 mmHg, RR 14, O2Sat 98. Examination reveals a new systolic murmur that is loudest at the lower left sternal border. Initial management includes administration of which of the following regimens?? A: IV Vancomycin, B: IV Vancomycin, IV levofloxacin, C: IV Vancomycin, IV ceftriaxone, D: IV Vancomycin, IV gentamycin, PO rifampin, E: IV Vancomycin, IV ceftriaxone, IV fluconazole,  <response>: This is a question about treating endocarditis in an IV drug user. The key findings are the history of IV drug use, fevers, new heart murmur, and blood cultures pending. The most likely diagnosis is infective endocarditis. IV drug users are at risk for endocarditis from injecting drugs with contaminated equipment. The fevers and new murmur point towards endocarditis. Initial treatment should cover common endocarditis pathogens like Staph aureus, Strep species, and Enterococcus. Vancomycin covers MRSA. Ceftriaxone adds coverage for Strep species. C: IV Vancomycin, IV ceftriaxone 