question. i had this thought years ago about how popular classical music today (beethoven, wolfgang, bach, etc.) sounds about 99.9% the same as it was when originally performed the 1700s/1800s or something. i now think that if the world were to reject any playback that could be heard by the listener (like the phonograph in very early recordings in the mid to late 1800s), supposedly they would sound precisely like their pieces when it was first orchestrated/written. would that be true in this case?
that doesn't make very much sense to me. you are saying if the listener rejects anything they can hear, (such as recordings), then it will sound exactly the same? the way i'm adding it up here, it sounds like they wouldn't hear anything. i know your question makes sense somehow but i was unable to figure it out